Related provisions for LR 11.1.5A

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IFPRU 2.2.16GRP
(1) A firm should:2(a) carry out assessments of the sort described in the overall Pillar 2 rule and IFPRU 2.2.13R on an ongoing basis; and2(b) document the assessments in (a), in line with IFPRU 2.2.43R to IFPRU 2.2.44R (Documentation of risk assessments), at least annually, or more frequently if changes in the business, strategy, nature or scale of its activities or operational environment suggest that the current level of financial resources is no longer adequate.2(2) The appropriateness
IFPRU 2.2.31RRP
(1) As part of its obligations under the overall Pillar 2 rule, a firm must carry out an evaluation of its exposure to the interest-rate risk arising from its non-trading activities.(2) The evaluation under (1) must cover the effect of a sudden and unexpected parallel change in interest rates of 200 basis points in both directions.(3) A firm must immediately notify the FCA if any evaluation under this rule suggests that, as a result of the change in interest rates described in
IFPRU 2.2.37RRP
(1) As part of its obligation under the overall Pillar 2 rule, a firm that is a significant IFPRU firm must:(a) for the major sources of risk identified in line with IFPRU 2.2.7R(2), carry out stress tests and scenario analyses that are appropriate to the nature, scale and complexity of those major sources of risk and to the nature, scale and complexity of the firm's business; and(b) carry out the reverse stress testing under SYSC 20 (Reverse stress testing).(2) In carrying out
IFPRU 2.2.46RRP
A firm that is not a member of a FCAconsolidation group must apply the ICAAPrules on an individual basis. [Note: article 108(1) of CRD]
IFPRU 2.2.48RRP
A firm controlled by a parent financial holding company in a Member State or a parent mixed financial holding company in a Member State must comply with the ICAAPrules on the basis of the consolidated situation of that holding company, if the FCA is responsible for supervision of the firm on a consolidated basis under article 111 of CRD. [Note: article 108(3) of CRD]
IFPRU 2.2.51RRP
For the purpose of the ICAAPrules as they apply on a consolidated basis or on a sub-consolidated basis: (1) the firm must ensure that the FCA consolidation group has the processes, strategies and systems required by the overall Pillar 2 rule;(2) the risks to which the overall Pillar 2 rule and the general stress and scenario testing rule refer are those risks as they apply to each member of the FCA consolidation group;(3) the reference in the overall Pillar 2 rule to amounts
IFPRU 2.2.52RRP
(1) This rule relates to the assessment of the amounts, types and distribution of financial resources, own funds and internal capital (referred to in this rule as "resources") under the overall Pillar 2 rule as applied on a consolidated basis and to the assessment of diversification effects as referred to in IFPRU 2.2.14 R (3)(b) as applied on a consolidated basis.(2) A firm must be able to explain how it has aggregated the risks referred to in the overall Pillar 2 rule and the
IFPRU 2.2.53RRP
(1) A firm must allocate the total amount of financial resources, own funds and internal capital identified as necessary under the overall Pillar 2 rule (as applied on a consolidated basis) between different parts of the FCA consolidation group. IFPRU 2.2.11 R (Identifying different tiers of capital) does not apply to this allocation(2) The firm must carry out the allocation in (1) in a way that adequately reflects the nature, level and distribution of the risks to which the group
IFPRU 2.2.54RRP
A firm must also allocate the total amount of financial resources, own funds and internal capital (referred to in this rule as "resources") identified as necessary under the overall Pillar 2 rule as applied on a consolidated basis or sub-consolidated basis between each firm which is a member of the FCA consolidation group on the following basis:(1) the amount allocated to each firm must be decided on the basis of the principles in IFPRU 2.2.53 R (2); and(2) if the process in (1)
IFPRU 2.2.55GRP
A firm to which the ICAAPrules apply on a consolidated basis need not prepare a consolidated basis assessment if such an assessment has been prepared by another member of its FCA consolidation group. In such cases, a firm may adopt such an assessment as its own. A firm nevertheless remains responsible for the assessment.
IFPRU 2.2.56GRP
The purpose of IFPRU 2.2.52 R to IFPRU 2.2.55 G is to enable the FCA to assess the extent, if any, to which a firm's assessment, calculated on a consolidated basis, is lower than it would be if each separate legal entity were to assess the amount of capital it would require to mitigate its risks (to the same level of confidence) were it not part of a group subject to consolidated supervision under Part One, Title II, Chapter 2 of the EUCRR (Prudential consolidation). The reason
IFPRU 2.2.59RRP
Where a firm is a member of a FCA consolidation group or a non-EEA sub-group, the firm must ensure that the risk management processes and internal control mechanisms at those levels comply with the obligations set out in the risk control rules on a consolidated basis (or a sub-consolidated basis).[Note: article 109(2) of CRD]
IFPRU 2.2.60RRP
Compliance with the obligations in IFPRU 2.2.59 R must enable the FCA consolidation group or the non-EEA sub-group to have arrangements, processes and mechanisms that are consistent, well integrated and ensure that data relevant to the purpose of supervision can be produced.[Note: article 109(2) of CRD]
IFPRU 2.2.63RRP
When the overall financial adequacy rule applies on a consolidated basis or sub-consolidated basis, the firm must ensure that at all times its FCA consolidation group maintains overall financial resources and internal capital, including own funds and liquidity resources, which are adequate, both as to amount and quality, to ensure that there is no significant risk that the liabilities of any members of its FCA consolidation group cannot be met as they fall due.
IFPRU 2.2.73GRP
(1) In identifying an appropriate range of adverse circumstances and events in accordance with IFPRU 2.2.37 R (2):(a) a firm will need to consider the cycles it is most exposed to and whether these are general economic cycles or specific to particular markets, sectors or industries;(b) for the purposes of IFPRU 2.2.37 R (2)(a), the amplitude and duration of the relevant cycle should include a severe downturn scenario based on forward-looking hypothetical events, calibrated against
IFPRU 2.2.74GRP
The FCA may formulate macroeconomic and financial market scenarios which a firm may use as an additional input to its ICAAP submission. In addition, the FCA may also ask a firm to apply specific scenarios directly in its ICAAP submission.
IFPRU 2.2.86GRP
A firm should include in the written record in IFPRU 2.2.43 R (Documentation of risk assessments) a description of the broad business strategy of the FCA consolidation group or the non-EEA sub-group of which it is a member, the group's view of its principal risks and its approach to measuring, managing and controlling the risks. This description should include the role of stress testing, scenario analysis and contingency planning in managing risk on an individual basis and consolidated
IFPRU 2.2.87GRP
A firm should satisfy itself that the systems (including IT) of the FCA consolidation group or the non-EEA sub-group of which it is a member are sufficiently sound to support the effective management and, where applicable, the quantification of the risks that could affect the FCA consolidation group or the non-EEA sub-group, as the case may be.
IFPRU 2.2.88GRP
In performing stress tests and scenario analyses, a firm should take into account the risk that its group may have to bring back on to its consolidated balance sheet the assets and liabilities of off-balance sheet entities as a result of reputational contagion, notwithstanding the appearance of legal risk transfer.
FEES 3.2.1RRP
A person in column (1) of the table in FEES 3.2.7 R37 as the relevant fee payer for a particular activity must pay to the FCA (in its own capacity or, if the fee is payable to the PRA, in its capacity as collection agent for the PRA)78 a fee for each application or request for vetting, or request for support relating to compatibility of its systems with 37FCA systems,7 or admission approval made, or notification or notice of exercise of a Treaty right given, or other matter
FEES 3.2.1ARRP
38A person must pay the fee in Categories A5 and A6 of FEES 3 Annex 12R for the first submission of a document to the FCA for approval or review in relation to a significant transaction or super transaction. As an exception to FEES 3.2.1R, after that fee is paid, Categories A1 to A4 of FEES 3 Annex 12R specify the fees a person must pay for any further documents submitted for approval or review in relation to the same transaction.
FEES 3.2.3BGRP
23If FEES 3.2.3AR (1)(a) applies to a fee payer, that fee payer would be expected to notify the FCA of these circumstances in advance of making its payment (and, in any event, no less than 7 days before the date on which the application for a Part 4A permission or the variation of a Part 4A permission is made) unless such notification is impossible in the circumstances, eg, there is a sudden technological failure.
FEES 3.2.4GRP
The FCA expects that a person seeking to become a recognised body or a designated professional body or to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges or accredited bodies 15will generally pay their respective fees by electronic credit transfer.
FEES 3.2.5GRP
(1) (a) 37The appropriate authorisation or registration 8fee is an integral part of an application for, or an application for a variation of, a Part 4A permission ,24 authorisation, registration or variation under the Payment Services Regulations or the Electronic Money Regulations, registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order80or notification or registration under the AIFMD UK regulation24.16248(b) 37 Any application or notification24 received by the37FCA without the accompanying
FEES 3.2.7RRP

Table of application, notification, vetting and other fees payable to the FCA32

31

31Part 1: Application, notification and vetting fees

31(1) Fee payer

(2) Fee payable (£)37

Due date

(a) Any applicant for Part 4A permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission) whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (ga) of this table26

(1) Unless (2),41 (3) or (4)41 applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 which apply to that application.

When both (A) and (B) apply, 50% of the tariff payable under (1):34

(2) 50% of the tariff payable under (1) is payable when either (a) or (b) apply:

(a) the application is one referred to in paragraph p; or

(b) the application is a limited permission case under .

(A) the application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 6; and34

(B) the application is:34

(i) a straightforward case under paragraph 2(d) or 3(g) of FEES 3 Annex 1;

(ii) a moderately complex case under paragraph 2(e) or 3(h) of FEES 3 Annex 1; or

(iii) a limited permission case under paragraph 3(i) of FEES 3 Annex 1.

(3) If the applicant applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order at the same time as applying for a Part 4A permission, the fee payable is the higher of: 80

(i) the fee otherwise payable in (1) or (2); and 80

(ii) the fee payable in FEES 3 Annex 10AR. 80

(4) No fee is payable if the applicant satisfies the criteria set out in FEES 4 Annex 2BR(5)(a).41

18034343434

On or before the application is made

(aa) A person who makes an application under section 24A of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 31 (Applications for a standard licence where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant application”)30

As (a) above less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant application.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

(b) Any Treaty firm that wishes to exercise a Treaty right to qualify for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act (Treaty rights) in respect of regulated activities for which it does not have an EEA right, except for a firm providing cross border services only4

(1) Where no certificate has been issued under paragraph 3(4) of Schedule 4 to the Act the fee payable is, in respect of a particular exercise, set out in FEES 3 Annex 1, part 4

(2) Where a certificate in (i) has been issued no fee is payable

On or before the notice of exercise is given

(c) Any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order

2,000

On or before the application is made

(d) Applicants for an authorisation order for, or recognition under section 272 of the Act27 of, a collective investment scheme

FEES 3 Annex 2R, part 227

27

On or before the application is made

(da) Applicants for the authorisation of an AIF as a UK ELTIF36

FEES 3 Annex 2R, part 2A36

On or before the date the application is made36

(e) The management company27 of a scheme making a notification under section 264 of the Act

2727

FEES 3 Annex 2R, part 327

27

On or before the date the application is made28

28(ea)

(i) An AIFM (other than a UK AIFM or an EEA AIFM with a branch in the UK) notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 57 of the AIFMD UK regulation

(ii) An AIFM notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 58 or 59 of the AIFMD UK regulation

FEES 3 Annex 2 R, part 4

On or before the date the notification is made

28(eb) An applicant for registration on the register of small registered UK AIFM which the FCA is required to maintain under regulation 10 of the AIFMD UK regulation

£750

On or before the date the application is made

(f) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body.

10,000

30 days after the order is granted

(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body:17

(i) under section 287 of the Act; or17

(ii) under regulation 2(1) of the RAP regulations17

78

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1

On or before the date the application is made26

26(ga) Any applicant for:

(i) a Part 4A permission to carry out the regulated activity of administering a specified benchmark; or35administering a specified benchmark for one or more specified benchmarks or;35

(ii) varying its Part 4A permission to carry out the regulated activity of administering a specified benchmark for one or more specified benchmarks35

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(h) Any applicant for recognition as an ROIE78 under section 287 or section 292 of the Act

7878

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(i) [deleted]35

35		 35 35

(j) [deleted]38

38

38

(k) [deleted]35

35		 35 35

(l) [deleted]38

38

72

38

(m) [deleted]38

38

72

38

(n) Applicants to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges

50,000

On or before the date the application is made

2(o) In relation to a BIPRU firm, either:29

(i) a firm applying to the FCA29 for permission to use one of the advanced prudential calculation approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6 R (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches or (in the case of any application being made for such permission to the FCA29 as EEA consolidated supervisor under the (transposing parts of the BCD and CAD, as applicable under article 95(2) of the EUCRR29)) any firm making such an application ;5 or

(ii) in the case of an application to 5a Home State regulator other than the FCA295for the use of the Internal Ratings Based approach and the Home State regulator requesting the FCA's29 assistance in accordance with the Capital Requirements Regulations 2006 (transposing parts of the BCD and CAD, as applicable under article 95(2) of the EUCRR29), any firm to which the FCA29 would have to apply any decision to permit the use of that approach.5

1122957829578295782978297829

(1) Unless5 (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6.5

(2) (a) Unless5 (b) applies a1firm submitting a second application for the permission or5guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6, but only in respect of that second application

(b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission5 based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.1

(c) No fee is payable where the Home State regulator has requested the assistance described in paragraph (o)(ii) of column 1 except in the cases specified in 5FEES 3 Annex 6.2

52512555785785

Where the firm has made an application directly to the FCA29, on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the FCA29 notifies the firm that its EEA parent's Home State regulator has requested assistance.229

27829782978

29(oa) Either:

(i) a firm applying to the 37FCA

for permission to use one of the internal approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6A (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches or (in the case of any application being made for such permission to the 37FCA

as consolidating supervisor under the EU CRR) any firm making such an application; or

(ii) in the case of an application to the consolidating supervisor other than the 37FCA

for the use of the IRB approach and the consolidating supervisor requesting the 37FCA's

assistance in accordance with the EU CRR, any firm to which the 37FCA would have to apply any decision to permit the use of that approach.

3737373737

(1) Unless (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6A.

(2) (a) Unless (b) applies a firm submitting a second application for the permission or guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6A, but only in respect of that second application.

(b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.

(c) No fee is payable where the consolidating supervisor has requested the assistance described in paragraph (oa)(ii) of column 1.

37

Where the firm has made an application directly to the 37FCA , on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the 37FCA notifies the firm that its EEA parent's consolidating supervisor has requested assistance.

3737

(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part 4A permission whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (ga) of this table26

(1) Unless (2), (2A), (3), (3A), (3B), (3C), (3D) or 3(E)44 applies, if the proposed new1 business of the firm would1 fall within one or more activity groups specified in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 1AR not applicable before the application1, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37 which apply to that application.

(2) Subject to (2A) below, if the firm's application includes an application for a Part 4A permission to carry on a new credit-related regulated activity, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37

that would be payable under (1) above or, if higher, 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37

that would be payable in relation to the new credit-related regulated activity30.37

(2A) If an applicant which already has a Part 4A permission to carry on a credit-related regulated activity exclusively applies for a Part 4A permission to carry on a new credit-related regulated activity, that is specified in Part 3 of FEES 3 Annex 1R37

in the straightforward category (or if it exclusively applies for a number of such permissions), the fee is £25030.37

(3) If the firm is in the A.1 fee-block at the date of the application and the variation involves adding any of the regulated activities of meeting of repayment claims or managing dormant account funds (including the investment of such funds), the fee is 50% of the fee in FEES 3 Annex 1 R that applies to that application11

(3A) If the applicant had a limited permission prior to the application to vary its Part 4A permission, 100% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37

which apply to that application30.37

(3B) If the applicant has a limited permission and its application exclusively relates to another limited permission, the fee is 030

(3C) If the applicant applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order at the same time as it applies for a variation of its Part 4A permission, the fee is the highest of the fees set out in FEES 3 Annex 10AR and the amount otherwise payable in (1), (2), (2A), (3), (3A) or (3B), or (4).80

(3D) No fee is payable if the applicant satisfies the criteria set out in FEES 4 Annex 2BR(5)(a).41

(4) 11 In all other cases, other than applications by credit unions, the fee payable is 250 for firms which are not, or are not seeking to become, a PRA-authorised person, and 125 for firms which are, or are seeking to become, a PRA-authorised person,78 unless the variation involves only the reduction (and no other increases) in the scope of a Part 4A permission in which case no fee is payable.1

(3E) The fee is 12,500 if the firm applying:44

(i) is an MTF operator and the proposed new business of the firm is to be an OTF operator; or44

(ii) is an OTF operator and the proposed new business of the firm is to be an MTF operator.44

308041308080178783778378080371373030233737371137

On or before the date the application is made

30(pa) A person who makes an application under section 30(1) of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 33 (Variations at request of licensee where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant variation application”)

As (a) or 31(p) above, less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant variation application.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

2(q) [deleted]38

77137913797722227

38

38

333

2(r) Providers of reporting or trade matching systems applying for recognition under MiFID as an Approved Reporting Mechanism.

100,0006

6

Having received its application, within 30 days after the FCA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.6

56

5(s) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme, a transferor.

Note - for the purpose of this paragraph an insurance business transfer scheme consists of a single transferor and a single transferee. Where however such a scheme is part of a single larger scheme, that larger scheme is treated as a single insurance business transfer scheme. If an insurance business transfer scheme includes more than one transferor in accordance with this paragraph, the transferors are liable to pay the fee under column (2) jointly.

Either (1) or (2) as set out below:

(1) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme involving long term insurance business, 9,25037; or

(2) in the case of an insurance business transfer scheme not involving long term insurance business, 5,000.

7777377777377737

On or before any application is made for the appointment of a person as an independent expert.

37

6(t) A firm, a third party acting on a firm's behalf, an operator of a regulated market or an operator of an MTF applying to the FCA to report transaction reports directly to the FCA.

20

100,000

Having received its application, within 30 days after the FCA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.

(u) [deleted]34

34		 34 34

(v) [deleted]38

2222

38

38

[deleted]35

35		 35 35

(x)[deleted]38

38

388

8(y) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised payment institution under regulation 5 of the Payment Services Regulations

The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8 which apply to that application.

Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in

FEES 3 Annex 8R

On or before the date the application is made.

(z) An application by a small payment institution for authorisation as an authorised payment institution because regulation 15 of the Payment Services Regulations applies

The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application.

On or before the date the application is made.

(za) An applicant for registration as a small payment institution under regulation 12 of the Payment Services Regulations

FEES 3 Annex 8R, paragraph (1). Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 8R.

On or before the date the application is made.

(zb) An authorised payment institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Payment Services Regulations.

(1) If the payment services carried on by the authorised payment institution prior to the variation only fall within paragraph (f) or (g) or (h) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and any of the payment services in paragraphs (a) to (e) of that Schedule will apply after variation, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application.

(2) Where the

authorised payment institution:(i) already has authorisation to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other services in (a) to (g); or

(ii) has authorisation to provide payment services in either paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to extend its authorisation to include the other paragraph ((f) or (g));

the fee payable is 250 irrespective of the number of agents it has.

(3) In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable.

On or before the date the application is made.

(zc) A small payment institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Payment Services Regulations

(1) If the payment services carried on by the small payment institution prior to the variation only fall within paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and any of the payment services in paragraphs (a) to (e) of that Schedule will apply after variation, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8Rwhich apply to that application.

(2) Where the small payment institution:

(i) is already registered to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other of the services in (a) to (g); or

(ii) is registered to provide payment services in either paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to extend its registration to include the other paragraph ((f) or (g));the fee payable is 250 irrespective of the number of agents it has.

(2)

(3) In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable.

On or before the date the application is made.

A financial institution notifying the FSAFCA in accordance with regulation 121(2)(a) of the Payment Services Regulations.

50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3Annex 8R, paragraphs (2) to (5) which apply to that application.

On or before the date the application is made.

(ze) Any person to which the Special Project Fee for restructuring applies under FEES 3 Annex 9.12

12

Special Project Fee for restructuring in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 9 .

30 days of the date of the invoice.9

(zf) [deleted]78

78		 78 91678

16(zg) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution under regulation 5 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zh) An applicant for registration as a small electronic money institution under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zi) An application by a small electronic money institution for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution14because regulation 16 of the Electronic Money Regulations applies.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zj) An authorised electronic money institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zk) A small electronic money institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

15(zl) An applicant for recognition as an accredited body.

2,500

On or before the date the application is made.18

18(zm) An issuer applying for registration of a regulated covered bond.

(1) Unless (2) or (3)41 applies, 45,000.

(2) In the case of a proposed covered bond or programme where the assets in the asset pool will consist primarily of UK residential mortgages, 25,000.

(3) No fee is payable if the issuer satisfies the criteria set out in FEES 4 Annex 2BR(5)(b).41

On or before the date the application is made.

18(zn) An issuer who proposes to make a material change to the contractual terms of a regulated covered bond under RCB 3.5.4 D.

(1) Unless (2) applies 6,500.41

(2) No fee is payable if the issuer satisfies the criteria set out in FEES 4 Annex 2BR(5)(c).41

On or before the date the notification under RCB 3.5.4 D is made.21

21(zo) In the case of persons in respect of which the FCA has given notice of its intention to take, or appoint a competent person to take, any steps under CONRED 2.5.12R, either:

(i) a Firm (as defined in CONRED 2.1.1R(1); or

(ii) a person falling within CONRED 2.1.2R(1).

An amount equal to:

(1) a sum determined by the number of hours, or part of an hour, taken by the FCA in relation to work conducted in taking steps under recorded on the FCA's systems, multiplied by the rate in FEES 3 Annex 9 (11)R; or

(2) any amount invoiced to the FCA by a competent person in relation to any work carried out by that competent person in connection with its appointment by the FCA under CONRED 2.5.12R.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

78(zp) A person in respect of which the FCA37 has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to provide it with a report pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act and SUP 5.2.

37

Any amount invoiced to the FCA37 by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the FCA37 pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act.

37

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

78(zq) A person in respect of which the FCA37 has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to collect or update information pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act .

37

Any amount invoiced to the FCA37 by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the FCA 37 pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act.

3737

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.33

33(zr) [deleted]38

38

38

30(zs) Applicant for FCA permission for an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) and/or money paid or property transferred under and agreement to be retained under 3128A(3)(b) of the Act

(1) If the application is for permission for an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) of the Act and for permission for money paid or property transferred under an agreement to be retained under section 28A(3)(b) of the Act, the fee is 31£3,500 per type of agreement specified in the application.30

(2) If the application is for permission for an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) of the Act only, the fee is £3,500 per type of agreement specified in the application.31

(3) If the application is for permission for money paid or property transferred under an agreement to be retained under section 28A(3)(b) of the Act only, the fee is £3,500 per type of agreement specified in the application.31

Where there are a number of agreements of the same type, only one fee is payable in respect of those agreements. A number of agreements are of the same type when those agreements are entered into on the same terms and conditions.

On or before the date the application is made.

(zt) An applicant for registration in the Financial Services Register under article 8(1) of the MCD Order. 80

Unless (1), or (2) applies, the fee as set out in FEES 3 Annex 10A. 80

(1) If the applicant is applying for a Part 4A permission at the same time as it applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, the fee payable in row (a), column (2) paragraph (3) of this Table. 80

(2) If the applicant is applying for a variation of a Part 4A permission at the same time as it applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, the fee payable in row (p), column 2 paragraph (3)(c) of this Table. 80

On or before the application is made.80

(zu)40 Any person to which the Designated Credit Reference Agencies and Finance Platform42 Fee applies under FEES 3 Annex 10B.

39

Designated Credit Reference Agencies and Finance Platform42 Fee in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 10B.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

43(zv) Any firm that meets the test in FEES 3 Annex 10C(1)R(1) (PPI campaign fees).

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10C(1) R(2).

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

32Part 2: UKLA38 fees

(1) Fee payer

(2) Fee payable

(3) Due date

(a)

(i) An issuer which has not made public its annual financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.1.3 R.

(ii) An issuer which has not made public its half-yearly financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.2.2 R (2).

FEES 3 Annex 12R38

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

38(b) An applicant for approval as a sponsor.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date the application is made.

38(c) For the purposes of48 the listing rules:48

(i)48 an issuer requesting approval of a document arising in relation to a specific event or transaction, which is not a significant transaction or a super transaction; or48

48(ii) an issuer or person applying for eligibility for listing of its securities.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.

38(d) Under the prospectus rules, Prospectus Rules or the Prospectus Regulation, an issuer or a person requesting approval or review of a document arising in relation to a specific event or transaction, which is not a significant transaction or a super transaction.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.

38(e) An issuer requesting the approval or review of a document in connection with a super transaction.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.

38(f) An issuer requesting the approval or review of a document in connection with a significant transaction.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.

38(g) A person who requests the FCA’s approval of a document that includes a mineral expert’s report and who is a fee payer under one or more of the categories (c), (d), (e), and (f) above must additionally pay a fee under this category.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.

38(h) An applicant for approval as a primary information provider.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date the application is made.

[Note:Guidance on how a firm liable to pay a fee under both rows (s) and (ze) of this table for the same transaction should expect to be treated is set out in FEES 3 Annex 11 G.]19

EG 19.33.2RP
As the provision of credit data on companies is not a regulated activity under the Act, the Regulations create a separate monitoring and enforcement regime but apply, or make provision corresponding to, certain aspects of the Act. The FCA's approach to taking enforcement action under the Regulations will reflect its general approach to enforcing the Act, as set out in EG 2. It will seek to exercise its enforcement powers in a manner that is transparent, proportionate and responsive
EG 19.33.3RP
Regulation 23 of the Small and Medium Sized Business (Finance Platforms) Regulations applies many of the provisions of the Act in relation to the FCA’s investigation and information-gathering powers in respect of designated banks and designated finance platforms. The effect of this is to apply the same procedures under the Act for appointing investigators and requiring information when investigating any breaches of the Small and Medium Sized Business (Finance Platforms) Regulations.
EG 19.33.4RP
For example, the FCA will notify the subject of the investigation that it has appointed investigators to carry out an investigation and the reasons for the appointment. The FCA's policy in regulatory investigations under the Regulations is to use powers to compel information, in the same way as it would in the course of an investigation under the Act.
EG 19.33.5RP
The RDC is the FCA’s decision maker for some decisions which require warning notices or decision notices to be given under the Small and Medium Sized Business (Finance Platforms) Regulations as set out in DEPP 2 Annex 1G. The RDC will make its decisions following the procedure in DEPP 3.2 or, where appropriate, DEPP 3.3 or DEPP 3.4. For decisions made by executive procedures, the procedure to be followed will be those described in DEPP 4.
EG 19.33.7RP
When determining whether to take action to impose a penalty or to issue a public censure under the Small and Medium Sized Business (Finance Platforms) Regulations, the FCA’s policy includes having regard to the relevant factors in DEPP 6.2 and DEPP 6.4. When determining the level of financial penalty, the FCA’s policy includes having regard to the relevant principles and factors in DEPP 6.5, DEPP 6.5A, DEPP 6.5D and DEPP 6.7.
EG 19.33.8RP
As with cases under the Act, the FCA may settle or mediate appropriate cases involving breaches of the Small and Medium Sized Business (Finance Platforms) Regulations to assist it to exercise its functions. DEPP 5, DEPP 6.7 and EG 5 set out information on the FCA’s settlement process and the settlement discount scheme.
EG 19.33.9RP
When determining whether to take action to impose a restriction under regulation 27 of the Small and Medium Sized Business (Finance Platforms) Regulations, the FCA’s policy includes having regard to the relevant factors in DEPP 6A.2 and 6A.4. When determining the length of the period of restriction, the FCA’s policy includes having regard to the relevant principles and factors in DEPP 6A.3.
EG 19.33.10RP
The FCA will apply the approach to publicity that is outlined in EG 6.
SUP 8A.3.1GRP
The FCA intends to include any direction or determination made by the FCA waiving, varying or disapplying CCA requirements in the public register under section 347 of the Act.
SUP 8A.3.2DRP
A firm wishing to apply for a direction under section 60(3) of the CCA, must complete the application form in SUP 8A Annex 1 D and submit it to the FCA in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R, SUP 15.7.5A R, SUP 15.7.6A G and SUP 15.7.9 G.
SUP 8A.3.3DRP
A firm wishing to apply for a determination under section 64(4) of the CCA must apply to the FCA in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R, SUP 15.7.5A R, SUP 15.7.6A G and SUP 15.7.9 G.
SUP 8A.3.4DRP
A firm wishing to apply for a direction under section 101(8) of the CCA must complete the application form in SUP 8A Annex 2 D and the information form in SUP 8A Annex 3 D, and submit them to the FCA in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R, SUP 15.7.5A R, SUP 15.7.6A G and SUP 15.7.9 G.
SUP 8A.3.5GRP
The FCA will acknowledge an application promptly and, if necessary, will seek further information from the firm. The time taken to determine an application will depend on the issues it raises. A firm should make it clear in the application if it needs a decision within a specific time.1
SUP 8A.3.6GRP
The FCA will treat a firm's application as withdrawn if it does not hear from the firm within 20 business days of sending a communication which requests or requires a response from the firm. The FCA will not do this if the firm has made it clear to the FCA in some other way that it intends to pursue the application.
SUP 8A.3.7GRP
If the FCA decides not to give a direction or a determination, it will give reasons for the decision.
SUP 8A.3.8GRP
A firm may withdraw its application at any time up to the giving of the direction or determination. In doing so, a firm should give the FCA its reasons for withdrawing the application.
LR 3.2.1GRP
The FCA will maintain the official list on its website.
LR 3.2.2RRP
An applicant for admission must apply to the FCA by:(1) submitting, in final form:(a) the documents described in LR 3.3 in the case of an application in respect of equity shares;44(b) the documents described in LR 3.4 in the case of an application in respect of debt securities or other securities;(c) the documents described in LR 3.5 in the case of a block listing;(2) submitting all additional documents, explanations and information as required by the FCA;(3) submitting verification
LR 3.2.3GRP
Before submitting the documents referred to in LR 3.2.2 R (1), an applicant should contact the FCA to agree the date on which the FCA will consider the application.3
LR 3.2.4RRP
All documents must be submitted to the Issuer Management5at the FCA's address.5
LR 3.2.5GRP
The FCA will admit securities to listing if all relevant documents required byLR 3.2.2 R2 have been submitted to the FCA.2
LR 3.2.6GRP
When considering an application for admission to listing, the FCA may:(1) carry out any enquiries and request any further information which it considers appropriate, including consulting with other regulators or exchanges;(2) request that an applicant, or its specified representative answer questions and explain any matter the FCA considers relevant to the application for listing;(3) take into account any information which it considers appropriate in relation to the application
LR 3.2.7GRP
The admission becomes effective only when the FCA's decision to admit the securities to listing has been announced by being either:(1) disseminated by a RIS; or(2) posted on a notice board designated by the FCA should the electronic systems be unavailable.
SUP 5.5.1RRP
When a firm appoints a skilled person4 to provide a report under section 166 (Reports by skilled persons) or collect or update information under section 166A (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information) of the Act,4 the firm must, in a contract with the skilled person:44(1) require and permit the skilled person during and after the course of his appointment:(a) to cooperate with the FCA3 in the discharge of its functions under the Act in relation to the firm;
SUP 5.5.2GRP
In complying with the contractual duty in SUP 5.5.1 R (1) the FCA3 expects that a skilled person appointed by a firm4 under section 166 (Reports by skilled persons) or section 166A (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information) of the Act4 will cooperate with the FCA3 by, amongst other things, providing information or documentation about the planning and progress of the report and its findings and conclusions, if requested to do so. A firm should therefore
SUP 5.5.3GRP
If the FCA3 is considering asking for the information specified in SUP 5.5.2 G it will take into consideration the cost of the skilled person complying with the request, and the benefit that the FCA3 may derive from the information. For example, in most cases, the FCA3 will not need to request a skilled person to give it source data, documents and working papers. However, the FCA3 may do so when it reasonably believes that this information will be relevant to any investigation
SUP 5.5.4GRP
In complying with the contractual duty in SUP 5.5.1 R, the FCA3 expects that, in the case of substantial or complex reports, the skilled person will give a periodic update on progress and issues to allow for a re-focusing of the report if necessary. The channel of communication would normally be directly between the skilled person and the FCA3. However, the FCA3 would also expect firms normally to be informed about the passage of information, and the skilled person would usually
SUP 5.5.5RRP
A firm must ensure that the contract required by SUP 5.5.1 R:(1) is governed by the laws of a part of the United Kingdom; (2) expressly:3.(a) provides that the FCA3 has a right to enforce the provisions included in the contract under SUP 5.5.1 R and SUP 5.5.5 R (2);44(b) provides that, in proceedings brought by the FCA3 for the enforcement of those provisions, the skilled person is not to have available by way of defence, set-off or counterclaim any matter that is not relevant
SUP 5.5.6GRP
The Contracts (Rights of Third Parties) Act 1999, or Scots common law, enables the FCA3 to enforce the rights conferred on it under the contract required by SUP 5.5.1 R4 against the skilled person.44
SUP 5.5.7GRP
If the FCA3 considers it appropriate, it may request the firm to give it a copy of the draft contract required by SUP 5.5.1 R4 before it is made with the skilled person. The FCA3 will inform the firm of any matters that it considers require further clarification or discussion before the contract is finalised.4444
SUP 5.5.8GRP
The FCA3 expects the firm, including where applicable4 in complying with Principle 11, to give the FCA3 information about the cost of the skilled persons report. This may include both an initial estimate of the cost as well as the cost of the completed report. This information is required to help inform the FCA's3 decision making in the choice of regulatory tools. Information about the number and cost of reports by skilled persons will be published by the FCA3. 44444444
SUP 13.7.3GRP
If a UK firm is passporting under the UCITS Directive, regulation 12(1) states that the UK firm must not make a change in its programme of operations, or the activities to be carried on under its EEA right, unless the relevant requirements in regulation 12(2) have been complied with. These requirements are:5(1) the UK firm has given a notice to the FCA15 and to the Host State regulator stating the details of the proposed change; or15(2) if the change arises as a result of circumstances
SUP 13.7.6AGRP
5For further details on giving the notices to the appropriate UK regulator, as described in SUP 13.7.3 G (1), SUP 13.7.3AG and SUP 13.7.3BG12, UK firms may wish to use the standard electronic15 form available from the FCA and PRA authorisation teams 15(see SUP 13.12 (Sources of further information)).15151551515
SUP 13.7.13AGRP
15Where the PRA is the appropriate UK regulator, it will consult the FCA before deciding whether to give consent to a change (or proposed change) and where the FCA is the appropriate UK regulator, it will consult the PRA before deciding whether to give consent in relation to a UK firm whose immediate group includes a PRA-authorised person.
SUP 13.7.15GRP
(1) 11A UK firm which has exercised an EEA right deriving from the MCD to provide a cross border service, must not make any material changes to the service unless it has complied with the requirements in regulation 17(B)(2).(2) The requirements in regulation 17(B)(2) are that;(a) the UK firm has given notice to the FCA stating the details of the proposed change; and(b) the period of one month has elapsed, beginning with the day on which the UK firm gave notice.(3) Paragraph (1)
SUP 16.23.3GRP
(1) The purpose of this section is to ensure that the FCA receives regular and comprehensive information about the firm’s systems and controls in preventing financial crime.(2) The purpose of collecting the data in the Annual Financial Crime Report is to assist the FCA in assessing the nature of financial crime risks within the financial services industry.
SUP 16.23.4RRP
(1) A firm must submit the Annual Financial Crime Report to the FCA annually in respect of its financial year ending on its latest accounting reference date.(2) A firm is only required to submit data that relates to the parts of its business subject to the Money Laundering Regulations.
SUP 16.23.6RRP
A firm must submit the Annual Financial Crime Report in the form specified in SUP 16 Annex 42AR using the appropriate online systems accessible from the FCA’s website.
SUP 16.23.7RRP
A firm must submit the Annual Financial Crime Report within 60 business days of the firm’saccounting reference date.
REC 3.8.1RRP
A UK recognised body must give the FCA1:1(1) a copy of its annual report and accounts; and(2) a copy of the consolidated annual report and accounts: (a) of any group in which the UK recognised body is a subsidiary undertaking; or(b) (if the UK recognised body is not a subsidiary undertaking in any group) of any group of which the UK recognised body is a parent undertaking;no later than the time specified for the purpose of this rule in REC 3.8.2 R.
REC 3.8.2RRP
The time specified for the purpose of REC 3.8.1 R is the latest of:(1) four months after the end of the financial year to which the document which is to be given to the FCA1relates; or1(2) the time when the documents described in REC 3.8.1 R (1) or REC 3.8.1 R (2)(b) are sent to the members or shareholders of the UK recognised body; or (3) the time when the document described in REC 3.8.1 R (2)(a) are sent to the shareholders in a parent undertaking of the group to which that
REC 3.8.3RRP
Where an audit committee of a UK recognised body has prepared a report in relation to any period or any matter relating to any relevant function of that UK recognised body, the UK recognised body must immediately give the FCA1a copy of that report.1
REC 3.8.4RRP
A UK recognised body must give the FCA1a copy of:1(1) its quarterly management accounts; or (2) its monthly management accounts;within one month of the end of the period to which they relate.
REC 3.8.5GRP
A UK recognised body is not required to provide quarterly and monthly management accounts in respect of the same period, but management accounts (whether quarterly or monthly) should be submitted for all periods. A UK recognised body may choose whichever method is the more suitable for it, but where it intends to change from providing monthly to quarterly management accounts (or from quarterly to monthly management accounts), it should inform the FCA1 of that fact.1
REC 3.8.6RRP
A UK recognised body must give the FCA1:1(1) a statement of its anticipated income, expenditure and cashflow for each financial year; and(2) an estimated balance sheet showing its position as it is anticipated at the end of each financial year;before the beginning of that financial year.
REC 3.8.7RRP
Where the accounting reference date of a UK recognised body is changed, that body must immediately give notice of that event to the FCA1and inform it of the new accounting reference date.1
COLL 11.6.1GRP
(1) Section 258A(1) and (2) and section 261Z(1) and (2)1 (Winding up or merger of master UCITS) of the Act, in implementation of article 60 of the UCITS Directive, provide1 that where a master UCITS is wound up, for whatever reason, the FCA is to direct the manager and trustee of any AUT or the authorised contractual scheme manager and depositary of any ACS1 which is a feeder UCITS of the master UCITS to wind up the scheme, unless one of the following conditions is satisfied:1(a)
COLL 11.6.3RRP
Where the authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme that is a feeder UCITS is notified that its master UCITS is to be wound up, it must submit to the FCA the following:(1) where the authorised fund manager of the feeder UCITS intends to invest at least 85% in value of the scheme property in units of another master UCITS:(a) its application for approval under section 283A of the Act for that investment;(b) where applicable, its notice under section 251 (Alteration of schemes and
COLL 11.6.4RRP
(1) The information in COLL 11.6.3 R must be submitted no later than two months after the date on which the master UCITS has informed the authorised fund manager of the feeder UCITS of the binding decision to be wound up.(2) By way of derogation from (1), where the master UCITS has informed the authorised fund manager of the feeder UCITS of the binding decision to be wound up more than five months before the date at which the winding up will start, the authorised fund manager
COLL 11.6.5RRP
Where the authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme that is a feeder UCITS is notified that the master UCITS is to merge with another UCITS scheme or EEA UCITS scheme or divide into two or more such schemes, it must submit to the FCA the following:(1) where the authorised fund manager of the feeder UCITS intends it to continue to be a feeder UCITS of the same master UCITS:(a) its application under section 283A of the Act, for approval;(b) where applicable, a notice under section
COLL 11.6.7RRP
(1) The information in COLL 11.6.5 R must be submitted to the FCA no later than one month after the date on which the authorised fund manager of the feeder UCITS has received the information of the planned merger or division in accordance with regulation 13(6) of the UCITS Regulations 2011.(2) By way of derogation from (1), where the master UCITS provides the information referred to in, or comparable with, COLL 7.7.10 R (Information to be given to Unitholders) to the authorised
COLL 11.6.8GRP
Regulation 12(4) (Right of redemption) of the UCITS Regulations 2011 provides that where a master UCITS merges with another scheme, the master UCITS must enable its feeder UCITS to repurchase or redeem all the units of the master UCITS in which they have invested before the consequences of the merger become effective, unless the FCA approves the continued investment by the feeder UCITS in a master UCITS resulting from the merger.
COLL 11.6.9RRP
(1) Where:(a) the authorised fund manager of a feeder UCITS has submitted the documents required under COLL 11.6.5R (2) and (3); and(b) does not receive the necessary approvals from the FCA by the business day preceding the last day on which the authorised fund manager of the feeder UCITS can request repurchase or redemption of its units in the master UCITS;the authorised fund manager of the feeder UCITS must exercise the right to repurchase or redeem its units in the master UCITS
COLL 11.6.10RRP
Where:(1) the FCA approves an application under sections 283A (Master-feeder structures), 252A or 261S1 (Proposal to convert to a non-feeder UCITS) of the Act or regulation 22A of the OEIC Regulations that arises as a result of the winding-up, merger or division of the master UCITS (other than an application pursuant to COLL 11.6.5R (1)); and1(2) the authorised fund manager of the feeder UCITS holds or receives cash in accordance with COLL 11.6.9R (4) or as a result of a winding-up;the
COLL 11.6.11GRP
COLL 11.6.10 R gives effect to sections 283A(4), 252A(8) and 261S(8)1 of the Act and regulation 22A(4) of the OEIC Regulations which require the FCA to impose certain conditions when approving the re-investment of cash received from a master UCITS which has been wound up.1
COLL 11.6.12RRP
Where the authorised fund manager of a feeder UCITS has submitted the documents required under COLL 11.6.3R (1), COLL 11.6.3R (2), COLL 11.6.5R (1), COLL 11.6.5R (2) or COLL 11.6.5R (3) and has received written notice of any required approvals from the FCA, it must:(1) inform the master UCITS of those approvals; and(2) in the case of the required approvals received in respect of documents submitted under COLL 11.6.3 R (1) and COLL 11.6.5 R (2), take the necessary measures to comply
COLL 11.6.13RRP
Where the authorised fund manager of a feeder UCITS gives notice to the FCA under section 251 or section 261Q1 of the Act or regulation 21 of the OEIC Regulations that it intends to wind up the scheme, it must inform:(1) the unitholders of the feeder UCITS; and(2) where notice is given under COLL 11.6.5R (4) (Application for approval by a feeder UCITS where a master UCITS merges or divides), the authorised fund manager of the master UCITS;of its intention without undue delay.[Note:
REC 3.26.1GRP
1Under section 300B(1) of the Act (Duty to notify proposal to make regulatory provision), a UK RIE3 that proposes to make any regulatory provision must give written notice of the proposal to the FCA4without delay.344
REC 3.26.2GRP
1Under section 300B(2) of the Act, the FCA4may, by rules under section 293 (Notification requirements):4(1) 1specify descriptions of regulatory provision in relation to which, or circumstances in which, the duty in section 300B(1) does not apply, or(2) 1provide that the duty applies only to specified descriptions of regulatory provision or in specified circumstances.
REC 3.26.3GRP
1Under section 300B(3) of the Act, the FCA4may also by rules under section 293: 4(1) 1make provision as to the form and contents of the notice required, and(2) 1require the UK recognised body to provide such information relating to the proposal as may be specified in the rules or as the FCA4may reasonably require.4
REC 3.26.5RRP
1A notice under section 300B(1) of the Act of a proposal to make a regulatory provision must be in writing and state expressly that it is a notice for the purpose of that section. To be effective, a notice must: (1) 1contain full particulars of the proposal to make a regulatory provision which is the subject of that notice; and(2) 1either be accompanied by sufficient supporting information to enable the FCA4to assess the purpose and effect of the proposed regulatory provision
REC 3.26.6GRP
1In determining whether a UK RIE3has provided sufficient supporting information, the FCA4may have regard to the extent to which the information includes:44(1) 1clearly expressed reasons for the proposed regulatory provision; and(2) 1an appropriately detailed assessment of the likely costs and benefits of the proposed regulatory provision.
REC 3.26.7RRP
1A UK RIE3must provide such additional information in connection with a notice under section 300B(1) of the Act as the FCA4may reasonably require.344
REC 3.26.8GRP
1Where a UK RIE3wishes to give notice to the FCA4for the purposes of section 300B(1) of the Act, it should in the first instance inform its usual supervisory contact at the FCA.43444
REC 3.26.9GRP
1The FCA4expects that an advanced draft of any consultation document a UK RIE3intends to publish in connection with a proposed regulatory provision could provide some or all of the information described in REC 3.26.5 R.3434
EG 19.14.1RP
1The FCA has investigation and sanctioning powers in relation to both criminal and civil breaches of the Money Laundering Regulations. The Money Laundering Regulations impose requirements including, amongst other things, obligations to apply customer due diligence measures and conduct ongoing monitoring of business relationships on designated types of business.
EG 19.14.2RP
1The FCA is responsible for monitoring and enforcing compliance with the Regulations not only by authorised firms who are within the Money Laundering Regulations’ scope, but also by what the Regulations describe as “Annex I financial institutions”. These are businesses which are not otherwise authorised by us but which carry out certain of the activities listed in Annex I of the Banking Consolidation Directive28, now Annex I of the CRD. The activities include lending (e.g. forfaiters
EG 19.14.3RP
1The Money Laundering Regulations add to the range of options available to the FCA for dealing with anti-money laundering failures. These options are: • to prosecute both authorised firms and Annex I financial institutions;to take regulatory action against authorised firms for failures which breach the FCA'srules and requirements (for example, under Principle 3 or SYSC 3.2.6R or SYSC 6.1.1R); and• to impose civil penalties on both authorised firms and Annex I financial institutions
EG 19.14.4RP
1This means that there will be situations in which the FCA has powers to investigate and take action under both the Act and the Money Laundering Regulations. The FCA will consider all the circumstances of the case when deciding what action to take and, if it is appropriate to notify the subject about the investigation, will in doing so inform them about the basis upon which the investigation is being conducted and what powers it is using. The FCA will adopt the approach outlined
EG 19.14.5RP
1The Money Laundering Regulations also provide investigation powers that the FCA can use when investigating whether breachesof the Regulations have taken place. These powers include: • the power to require information from, and attendance of, relevant and connected persons (regulation 37); and• powers of entry and inspection without or under warrant (regulations 38 and 39).The use of these powers will be limited to those cases in which the FCAexpects to take action under the
EG 19.14.6RP
1The FCA will adopt a risk-based approach to its enforcement of the Money Laundering Regulations. Failures in anti-money laundering controls will not automatically result in disciplinary sanctions, although enforcement action is more likely where a firm has not taken adequate steps to identify its money laundering risks or put in place appropriate controls to mitigate those risks, and failed to take steps to ensure that controls are being effectively implemented.
EG 19.14.7RP
1However, the Money Laundering Regulations say little about the way in which investigation and sanctioning powers should be used, so the FCA has decided to adopt enforcement and decision making procedures which are broadly akin to those under the Act. Key features of the FCA's approach are described below.
SUP 10C.9.1GRP
SUP 10C.9 deals with how the FCA's senior management regime for relevant authorised persons interacts with the PRA's one.
SUP 10C.9.2GRP
Both the FCA and the PRA may specify a function as a designated senior management function in relation to a PRA-authorised person.
SUP 10C.9.3GRP
If a person's job for a firm involves performing: (1) an FCA-designated senior management function, the firm should apply to the FCA for approval;(2) a PRA-designated senior management function, the firm should apply to the PRA for approval;(3) both an FCA-designated senior management function and a PRA-designated senior management function, the firm should apply to both the FCA and the PRA for approval (the purpose of SUP 10C.9 is to cut down the need for this sort of dual a
SUP 10C.9.4GRP
The FCA is under a duty, under section 59A of the Act (Specifying functions as controlled functions: supplementary), to exercise the power to specify any senior management function as an FCA controlled function in a way that it considers will minimise the likelihood that approvals need to be given by both the FCA and the PRA for the performance by a person of senior management functions in relation to the same PRA-authorised person.
SUP 10C.9.5GRP
The FCA and PRA have coordinated their approved person regimes to reduce the amount of overlap.
SUP 10C.9.8RRP
A person (referred to as ‘A’ in this rule) is not performing an FCA governing function (referred to as the ‘particular’ FCA governing function in this rule) in relation to a PRA-authorised person (referred to as ‘B’ in this rule), at a particular time, if:(1) A has been approved by the PRA to perform any PRA-designated senior management function in relation to B;(2) throughout the whole of the period between the time of the PRA approval in (1) and the time in question, A has been
SUP 10C.9.9GRP

Table: Examples of how the need for dual FCA and PRA approval in relation to PRA-authorised persons is reduced

1Example

Whether FCA approval required

Whether PRA approval required

Comments

(1) A is appointed as chief risk officer and an executive director.

No. He is not treated as performing the executive director function.

Yes

Chief risk officer is a PRA-designated senior management function. A’s functions as a director will be included in the PRA-designated senior management function. To avoid the need for FCA approval, A’s appointment as director should not take effect before PRA approval for the chief risk officer role.

(2) Same as example (1), except that A will take up the role as an executive director slightly later because the approval is needed from the firm's shareholders or governing body.

No

Yes

The answer for (1) applies. The arrangements in this section apply if the application to the PRA says that A will start to perform the potential FCA governing function around the time of the PRA approval as well as at that time.

(3) Same as example (1) but the application to the PRA does not mention that it is also intended that A is to be an executive director.

Yes, to perform the executive director function.

Yes

SUP 10C.9.8R does not apply if the application for PRA approval does not say that A will also be performing what would otherwise be an FCA governing function.

(4) A is to be appointed as chief executive and an executive director.

No. A is not treated as performing the executive director function.

Yes

Being a chief executive is a PRA-designated senior management function. A’s functions as a director will be included in the PRA controlled function.

(5) A is appointed as chief risk officer. Later, A is appointed as an executive director while carrying on as chief risk officer.

Yes, when A takes up the director role. The executive director function applies.

Yes, when A takes up the chief risk officer role.

SUP 10C.9.8R does not apply because, when the firm applied for approval for A to perform the PRA chief risk officer designated senior management function, there was no plan for A also to perform the executive director function.

(6) A is appointed as an executive director. Later, A takes on the chief risk officer function and remains as an executive director.

Yes, when A is appointed as director. The executive director function applies.

Yes, when A takes up the chief risk officer role.

When A is appointed as chief risk officer, A is still treated as carrying on the executive director function. A retains the status of an FCA-approved person.

(7) A is appointed as chief risk officer. A then stops performing that role and for a while does not perform any controlled function for that firm. Later, A is appointed as an executive director with the same firm.

Yes, when A is appointed as an executive director. The executive director function applies.

Yes, when A takes up the chief risk officer role.

SUP 10C.9.8R does not apply because there is no current PRA approval when A is being appointed as a director.

(8) A is appointed as an executive director and chief risk officer at the same time. Later, A gives up the role as chief risk officer but remains as an executive director.

No, on A’s first appointment (see example (1)). But when A gives up the role as chief risk officer, FCA approval is needed to perform the executive director function.

Form E should be used. The application should state that it is being made as a result of A ceasing to perform a PRA-designated senior management function.

Form A should be used if there have been changes in A’s fitness (SUP 10C.10.9D(4))

Yes, on A’s first appointment.

When A stops being a chief risk officer, A stops performing a PRA-designated senior management function. However, being an executive director requires FCA approval. A does not have that approval because A did not need it when A was first appointed.

The combined effect of SUP 10C.9.8R and the relevant PRA rules is that the firm has three months to secure approval by the FCA. During that interim period, A keeps the status of a PRA approved person performing the director element of the PRA chief risk designated senior management function - which is included in that function under relevant PRA rules. The relevant PRA rules say that, during this transitional period, A is still treated as performing the PRA chief risk designated senior management function and SUP 10C.9.8R says that, for as long as A is performing a PRA-designated senior management function, A does not perform the executive director function.

(9) A is appointed as the chief finance officer and an executive director at the same time. Later, A switches to being chief risk officer while remaining as an executive director.

No

Yes

The arrangements in SUP 10C.9.8R continue to apply, even though A switches between PRA-designated senior management function after the PRA's first approval.

(10) A is appointed chief risk officer and an executive director. A goes on temporary sick leave. A takes up his old job when he comes back.

No, neither on A’s first appointment nor when A comes back from sick leave.

Yes

SUP 10C.9.8R still applies on A’s return because A does not stop performing either the PRA's chief risk function or what would otherwise have been the executive director function just because A goes on temporary sick leave.

(11) A is appointed to be chairman of the governing body and chairman of the nomination committee at the same time.

No. A does not need approval to perform the chair of the nomination committee function.

Yes, on first appointment.

Being chairman of the governing body is a PRA-designated senior management function. Therefore, the answer for example (1) applies.

2(12) ‘A’ is to be appointed to perform the Head of Overseas Branch PRA-designated senior management function (SMF19) for a third-country relevant authorised person. A is also an executive director of that firm’sUKbranch.

No. A is not treated as performing the executive3director function.

Yes

A’s functions as a director will be included in the PRA controlled function.

Note: The relevant PRA rules can be found in Chapter 2 of the part of the PRA rulebook called ‘Senior Management Functions’
SUP 10C.9.11GRP
The PRA cannot give its approval for the performance of a PRA-designated senior management function without the consent of the FCA. The firm does not need to apply to the FCA for that consent.
SUP 10C.9.12GRP
Under section 59B of the Act (Role of FCA in relation to PRA decisions), the FCA may arrange with the PRA that, in agreed cases, the PRA may give approval without obtaining the consent of the FCA. No such arrangements are currently in force.
PERG 4.11.1GRP
Section 19 of the Act (The general prohibition) provides that the requirement to be authorised under the Act only applies in relation to regulated activities which are carried on 'in the United Kingdom'. In many cases, it will be quite straightforward to identify where an activity is carried on. But when there is a cross-border element, for example because a borrower is outside the United Kingdom or because some other element of the activity happens outside the United Kingdom,
PERG 4.11.6GRP
The exclusions in article 72(5A) to (5F) of the Regulated Activities Order (Overseas persons) provide that an overseas person does not carry on the regulated activities of:(1) arranging (bringing about) or making arrangements with view to a regulated mortgage contract;(2) entering into a regulated mortgage contract; or(3) administering a regulated mortgage contract;of the borrower (and each of them, if more than one) is an individual and is normally resident outside the United
PERG 4.11.8GRP
The FCA's view of the effect of the Act and Regulated Activities Order in various territorial scenarios is set out in the remainder of this section. In those scenarios:(1) the term "service provider" is used to describe a person carrying on any of the regulated mortgage activities;(2) the term "borrower" refers to a borrower who is an individual and not a trustee; the position of a borrower acting as a trustee is not considered; and(3) it is assumed that the activity is not an
PERG 4.11.13GRP
When a person is arranging (bringing about) regulated mortgage contracts or making arrangements with a view to regulated mortgage contracts from overseas, the question of whether he will be carrying on regulated activities in the United Kingdom will depend on the relevant circumstances. In the FCA's view, factors to consider include:(1) the territorial limitation in the definition of regulated mortgage contract so that regulation only applies if the land is in the EEA;44(2) the
PERG 4.11.14GRP
In the FCA's view:(1) if the borrower is normally resident in the United Kingdom and the land is in the United Kingdom4, the clear territorial limitation in the definition of regulated mortgage contract carries most weight in determining where regulation should apply; it is likely that the arranger will be carrying on regulated activities in the United Kingdom;(2) if the borrower is normally resident overseas, the arrangements are excluded by the overseas persons exclusion if
PERG 4.11.15GRP
In the FCA's view, advising on regulated mortgage contracts is carried on where the borrower receives the advice. Accordingly:(1) if the borrower is located in the United Kingdom, a person advising that borrower on regulated mortgage contracts is carrying on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom; but(2) if the service provider and borrower are both located overseas, the regulated activity is not carried on in the United Kingdom.
PERG 4.11.17GRP
In the FCA's view, in circumstances other than those excluded by article 72(5D) of the Regulated Activities Order, the need for an overseas lender to be authorised or to have an exemption will depend on the location of the land.4 This is because of:4(1) the territorial limitation in the definition of regulated mortgage contract so that regulation applies only if the land is in the EEA;44(2) the general principle and practice that contracts relating to land are usually governed
PERG 4.11.19GRP
In the FCA's view, in circumstances other than those excluded by article 72(5E) of the Regulated Activities Order, the need for an overseas administrator to be authorised or to have an exemption will depend on the location of the land.4 This is because:4(1) the territorial limitation in the definition of regulated mortgage contract means that regulation applies only if the land is in the EEA;44(2) when administrators notify borrowers resident in the United Kingdom or the other
PERG 4.11.20GRP
In most cases, there will be no preliminary agreement to enter into a regulated mortgage contract in advance of entering into the contract itself. Moreover, the exclusions relevant to a regulated activity are taken into account to determine whether a person is agreeing to carry on that regulated activity. So, for example, agreeing to arrange regulated mortgage contracts in cases where borrower and service provider are overseas, would not be regulated activities because the activities
PERG 4.11.22GRP
The FCA will be responsible for implementing the Distance Marketing Directive for those firms and activities it regulates. The FCA and the Treasury agree that the Distance Marketing Directive is intended to operate on a country of origin basis, except where a firm is marketing into the UK from an establishment in an EEA State which has not implemented the Directive.
LR 8.3.1RRP
A1sponsor must in relation to a sponsor service:11(1) referred to in 3LR 8.2.1R (1) to (4), LR 8.2.1R (11), LR 8.2.1A R and, where relevant LR 8.2.1R (5)3, 1provide assurance to the FCA when required that the responsibilities of the company with or applying for a premium listing of its equity shares3 under the listing rules have been met;3(1A) 3provide to the FCA any explanation or confirmation in such form and within such time limit as the FCA reasonably requires for the purposes
LR 8.3.1ARRP
3A sponsor must, for so long as it provides a sponsor service:(1) take such reasonable steps as are sufficient to ensure that any communication or information it provides to the FCA in carrying out the sponsor service is, to the best of its knowledge and belief, accurate and complete in all material respects; and(2) as soon as possible provide to the FCA any information of which it becomes aware that materially affects the accuracy or completeness of information it has previously
LR 8.3.1BGRP
3Where a sponsor provides information to the FCA which is or is based on information it has received from a third party, in assessing whether a sponsor has complied with its obligations in LR 8.3.1AR (1) the FCA will have regard, amongst other things, to whether a sponsor has appropriately used its own knowledge, judgment and expertise to review and challenge the information provided by the third party.
LR 8.3.2GRP
The1sponsor will be the main point of contact with the FCA for any matter referred to in LR 8.2.1 The FCA expects to discuss all issues relating to a transaction and any draft or final document directly with the sponsor. However, in appropriate circumstances, the FCA will communicate directly with the company with or applying for a premium listing of its equity shares, or its advisers3.113
LR 8.3.2AGRP
3A sponsor remains responsible for complying with LR 8.3 even where a sponsor relies on the company with or applying for a premium listing of its equity shares or a third party when providing an assurance or confirmation to the FCA.
LR 8.3.5RRP
A sponsor must at all times (whether in relation to a sponsor service or otherwise):1(1) deal with the FCA in an open and co-operative way; and1(2) deal with all enquiries raised by the FCA promptly.11(3) [deleted]11
LR 8.3.5ARRP
1If, in connection with the provision of a3sponsor service, a sponsor becomes aware that it, or a company with or applying for a premium listing of its equity shares is failing or has failed to comply with its obligations under3 the listing rules3, the3disclosure requirements7 or the transparency rules, the sponsor must promptly notify the FCA2.323
LR 8.3.8GRP
1In identifying conflicts of interest, sponsors should also take into account3 circumstances that could:333(1) 3create a perception in the market that a sponsor may not be able to perform its functions properly; or4(2) 3compromise the ability of a sponsor to fulfil its obligations to the FCA in relation to the provision of a sponsor service.
LR 8.3.12GRP
1LR 8.3.11 R recognises that there will be some conflicts of interest that cannot be effectively managed. Providing sponsor services in those cases could adversely affect both a sponsor's ability to perform its functions and market confidence in the sponsor regime. If in doubt about whether a conflict can be effectively managed a sponsor should discuss the issue with the FCA before it decides if it can provide a sponsor service.
LR 8.3.15GRP
6If a listed company or applicant appoints more than one sponsor to provide a sponsor service, the FCA expects the sponsors to co-operate with each other in relation to the sponsor service, including by establishing arrangements for the sharing of information as appropriate having regard to the sponsor service.
RCB 2.2.2GRP
RCB 3.6.5 D sets out the methods the issuer may use to send the form to the FCA.
RCB 2.2.3DRP
Until the application has been determined by the FCA, the issuer must inform the FCA of any significant change to the information given in the application immediately it becomes aware of that change.
RCB 2.2.4GRP
The form and content of the application documentation is a matter for direction by the FCA, which will determine what additional information and documentation may be required on a case-by-case basis.
RCB 2.2.5GRP
The FCA will not treat the application as having been received until it receives the registration fee (see RCB 5.2.5 R) and all relevant documentation requested by the FCA before its on-site review of the application.1
RCB 2.2.6DRP
The issuer must ensure that a director or a1senior manager of the issuer verifies the application by confirming on the FCA's form that the issuer has obtained the appropriate third party advice or reports as required by RCB 2.3.16 D and is satisfied that:(1) the information provided in the application is correct and complete; and (2) the arrangements relating to the covered bond or programme will comply with the requirements in the RCB Regulations and in RCB.
RCB 2.2.7GRP
The FCA expects the issuer to be able to justify any reliance it places on advice or reports which are not reasonably contemporaneous with the confirmation the senior manager gives in relation to compliance with the requirements of the RCB Regulations and RCB.
RCB 2.2.8DRP
The issuer must ensure that the senior manager, who verifies the application for registration under this section, gives their consent to the FCA displaying their confirmation of compliance with the relevant requirements on the FCA's website.
IFPRU 4.2.2GRP
Where the FCA has published evidence showing that a well-developed and long-established residential property market is present in that territory with loss rates which do not exceed the limits in article 125(3) of the EU CRR (Exposures fully and completely secured by mortgages on residential property), a firm does not need to meet the condition in article 125(2)(b) of the EU CRR in order to consider an exposure, or any part of an exposure, as fully and completely secured for the
IFPRU 4.2.3RRP
For the purposes of articles 124(2) and 126(2) of the EU CRR, and in addition to the conditions in those regulations, a firm may only treat exposures as fully and completely secured by mortgages on commercial immovable property located in the UK1 in line with article 126 where annual average losses stemming from lending secured by mortgages on commercial property in the UK did not exceed 0.5% of risk-weighted exposure amounts over a representative period. A firm must calculate
IFPRU 4.2.5GRP
The FCA confirms that, in relation to the concessionary treatment set out in article 119(5) of the EU CRR, there are no financial institutions currently authorised and supervised by it (other than those to which the EU CRR applies directly) that are subject to prudential requirements that it considers to be comparable in terms of robustness to those applied to institutions under the EU CRR.[Note: article 119(5) of the EU CRR]
IFPRU 4.2.6GRP
Where an exposure is denominated in a currency other than the euro, the FCA expects a firm to use appropriate and consistent exchange rates to determine compliance with relevant thresholds in the EU CRR. Accordingly, a firm should calculate the euro equivalent value of the exposure for the purposes of establishing compliance with the aggregate monetary limit of €1 million for retail exposures using a set of exchange rates the firm considers to be appropriate. The FCA expects a
IFPRU 4.2.7GRP
The FCA considers an Ijara mortgage to be an example of an exposure to a tenant under a property leasing transaction concerning residential property under which the firm is the lessor and the tenant has an option to purchase. Accordingly, the FCA expects exposures to Ijara mortgages to be subject to all of the requirements that apply to exposures secured by mortgages on residential property, including in respect of periodic property revaluation (see articles 124 and 125 of the
IFPRU 4.2.8GRP
The FCA expects a firm with exposure to a lifetime mortgage to inform the FCA of the difference in the own funds requirements on those exposures under the EU CRR and the credit risk capital requirement that would have applied under BIPRU 3.4.56A R.The FCA will use this information in its consideration of relevant risks in its supervisory assessment of the firm (see articles 124, 125 and 208 of the EU CRR).
IFPRU 4.2.9GRP
When determining the portion of a past due item that is secured, the FCA expects the secured portion of an exposure covered by a mortgage indemnity product that is eligible for credit risk mitigation purposes under Part Three, Title II, Chapter 4 of the EU CRR (Credit risk mitigation) to qualify as an eligible guarantee (see article 129(2) of the EU CRR).
IFPRU 4.2.10GRP
When determining whether exposures in the form of units or shares in a CIU are associated with particularly high risk, the FCA expects the following features would be likely to give rise to such risk:(1) an absence of external credit assessment of such CIU from an ECAI recognised under article 132(2) of the EU CRR (Items representing securitisation positions) and where such CIU has specific features (such as high levels of leverage or lack of transparency) that prevent it from
IFPRU 4.2.11GRP
The FCA expects a firm's assessment of whether types of exposure referred to in article 128(3) of the EU CRR are associated with particularly high risk to include consideration of exposures arising out of a venture capital business (whether the firm itself carries on the venture capital business or not) . The FCA considers "venture capital business" to include the business of carrying on any of the following:(1) advising on investments, managing investments, arranging (bringing
IFPRU 4.2.12GRP
Until such time as the European Commission adopts implementing technical standards drafted by the European Supervisory Authorities Joint Committee to specify for all ECAIs the relevant credit assessments of the ECAI that correspond to credit quality steps, the FCA expects a firm to continue to have regard to the table mapping the credit assessments of certain ECAIs to credit quality steps produced in accordance with regulation 22(3) of the Capital Requirements Regulations 2006.
SUP 15.5.1RRP
A firm must give the FCA4 reasonable advance notice of a change in:1010(1) the firm's name (which is the registered name if the firm is a body corporate); (2) any business name under which the firm carries on a regulated activity or ancillary activity either from an establishment in the United Kingdom or with or for clients in the United Kingdom.
SUP 15.5.4RRP
A firm must give the FCA4 reasonable advance notice of a change in any of the following addresses, and give details of the new address and the date of the change:1010(1) the firm's principal place of business in the United Kingdom; (2) in the case of an overseas firm, its registered office (or head office) address.
SUP 15.5.5RRP
A firm must give the FCA4 reasonable advance notice of a change in any of the following telephone numbers, and give details of the new telephone number and the date of the change:131010(1) the number of the firm's principal place of business in the United Kingdom;(2) in the case of an overseas firm, the number of its head office.3
SUP 15.5.6GRP
SUP 15.5.4 R and SUP 15.5.5 R mean that a firm should notify the FCA4 of a change in telephone number even if the address of the office is not changing.3131010
SUP 15.5.7RRP
A firm must notify the FCA4 immediately if it becomes subject to or ceases to be subject to the supervision of any overseas regulator (including a Home State regulator). 1010
SUP 15.5.8GRP
The FCA's4 approach to the supervision of a firm is influenced by the regulatory regime and any legislative or foreign provisions to which that firm, including its branches, is subject. 1010
SUP 15.5.9RRP
(1) 2A firm other than:55(a) a credit union; or5(b) an FCA-authorised person with permission to carry on only credit-related regulated activity;5must submit any notice under6SUP 15.5.1R, SUP 15.5.4Rand10SUP 15.5.5 R3 by submitting the form in SUP 15 Ann 3R online at the FCA's4 website.101010(2) A credit union or an FCA-authorised person with permission to carry on only credit-related regulated activity (other than a firm with only an interim permission to which the modifications
SUP 15.5.10GRP
(1) If the FCA's4 information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, the FCA4 will endeavour to publish a notice on its website confirming that online submission is unavailable and that the alternative methods of submission set out in SUP 15.5.9R(3) and SUP 15.7.4R to SUP 15.7.9G (Form and method of notification) should be used.10101010(2) Where 10SUP 15.5.9R (2)10 applies to a firm, GEN 1.3.2 R (Emergency) does not apply.
SUP 10A.6.1GRP
(1) Every firm will have one or more persons responsible for directing its affairs. These persons will be performing the FCA governing functions and will be required to be FCA-approved persons unless the application provisions in SUP 10A.1, or the particular description of an FCA controlled function, provide otherwise. For example, each director of a company incorporated under the Companies Acts will perform an FCA governing function. However, if the firm is a PRA-authorised person,
SUP 10A.6.10GRP
A director can be a body corporate and may accordingly require approval as an FCA-approved person in the same way as a natural person may require approval.
SUP 10A.6.11GRP
(1) The director function applies in relation to a PRA-authorised person, as set out below3. 2(2) 3For a Solvency II firm or a small non-directive insurer3, the FCAdirector function may apply if the person carrying out the function is not approved to carry out a PRA controlled function or the other conditions in SUP 10A.11.12R (minimising overlap with the PRA approved persons regime) are not satisfied.2
SUP 10A.6.16GRP
(1) This paragraph explains the basis on which the director function and the non-executive director function are applied to persons who have a position with the firm'sparent undertaking or holding company under SUP 10A.6.8 R or SUP 10A.6.13 R.(2) The basic position is set out in SUP 10A.3.4 G. As is the case with all controlled functions, SUP 10A.6.8 R and SUP 10A.6.13 R are subject to the overriding provisions in SUP 10A.3.1 R, which sets out the requirements of section 59(1)
SUP 10A.6.19GRP
For a branch in the United Kingdom of an overseas firm, the FCA would not normally expect the overseas chief executive of the firm as a whole to be FCA-approved for this function where there is a senior manager under him with specific responsibility for those activities of the branch which are subject to the UKregulatory system. In some circumstances, the person within the firm responsible for UK operations may, if the function is likely to enable him to exercise significant influence
SUP 10A.6.21GRP
Note that a body corporate may be a chief executive. If so, it will need to be approved (if the firm in question is an FCA-authorised person) to perform the chief executive function.
SUP 10A.6.24GRP
Any apportionment referred to in SUP 10A.6.23R (3)(b) will have taken place under SYSC 2.1.1 R or SYSC 4.3.1 R and SYSC 4.4.3 R. The FCA may ask to see details of the apportionment but will not require, as a matter of course, a copy of the material which records this (see SYSC 2.2).
SUP 10A.6.25GRP
The effect of SUP 10A.1.17 R is that regulated activity in SUP 10A.6.23 R (and elsewhere) is to be taken as not including an activity that is a non-mainstream regulated activity. Therefore, a partner whose only regulated activities are incidental to his professional services, in a partnership whose principal purpose is to carry on other than regulated activities, need not be an FCA-approved person. What amounts to the principal purpose of the firm is a matter of fact in each case
SUP 10A.6.33GRP
Typically a non-directive friendly Society will appoint a “committee of management” to direct its affairs. However, the governing arrangements may be informal and flexible. If this is the case, the FCA would expect the society to resolve to give responsibility for the carrying on of regulated activities to one individual who is appropriate in all the circumstances. That individual may, for example, have the title of chief executive or similar. The individual would have to be an
SUP 10A.6.34GRP
In practice, the FCA expects that most non-directive friendly societies will be PRA-authorised persons. Where that is the case, the small friendly society function apply as set out in SUP 10A.6.1G above3.
IFPRU 3.2.4GRP
For the purposes of article 4(1)(126) (Definition of synthetic holding) and Part Two (Own funds) of the EUCRR, the FCA considers the holdings described in IFPRU 3.2.5 G to be examples of indirect or synthetic holdings by an IFPRU investment firm of own common equity tier 1 instruments.
IFPRU 3.2.7RRP
A firm must report to the FCA all connected transactions described in IFPRU 3.2.6 R at least one month in advance of entry into the relevant transaction and identify each relevant transaction with sufficient detail to allow the FCA to evaluate it.
IFPRU 3.2.8RRP
A firm must demonstrate to the FCA that any additional tier 1 instrument or tier 2 instrument issued by it that is governed by the law of a third country is by its terms capable, as part of a resolution of the firm, of being written down or converted into a common equity tier 1 instrument of the firm to the same extent as an equivalent own funds instrument issued under the law of the UK.
IFPRU 3.2.9RRP
A firm must include, in the materials it provides to the FCA under IFPRU 3.2.8 R, a properly reasoned legal opinion from an individual appropriately qualified in the relevant third country.
IFPRU 3.2.10RRP
A firm must notify the FCA of the following:(1) its intention; or(2) the intention of another member of its group that is not a firm, but is included in the supervision on a consolidated basis of the firm;to issue a capital instrument that it believes will qualify under the EUCRR as own funds other than a common equity tier 1 capital at least one month before the intended date of issue.
IFPRU 3.2.11RRP
A firm does not have to give notice under IFPRU 3.2.10 R if the capital instrument is: (1) an ordinary share; or(2) a debt instrument issued under a debt securities programme under which the firm or group member has previously issued and the firm has notified the FCA, in accordance with IFPRU 3.2.10 R, prior to a previous issuance under the programme.
IFPRU 3.2.13RRP
A firm must notify the FCA in writing, no later than the date of issue of its intention, or the intention of another member of its group that is not a firm included in the supervision on a consolidated basis of the firm, to issue a capital instrument described in IFPRU 3.2.11 R.
IFPRU 3.2.15RRP
The firm must promptly notify the FCA of any change to the intended date of issue, amount of issue, type of investors, type of own funds or any other feature of the capital instrument to that previously notified to the FCA under IFPRU 3.2.10 R or IFPRU 3.2.13 R.
IFPRU 3.2.16RRP
A firm must notify the FCA of its intention, or the intention of another member of its group that is not a firm included in the supervision on a consolidated basis of the firm, to amend or otherwise vary the terms of any own funds instrument included in its own funds or the own funds of its consolidated group at least one month before the intended date of such amendment or other variation.
IFPRU 3.2.17RRP
A firm must notify the FCA of its intention, or the intention of another member of its group included in the supervision on a consolidated basis of the firm, to carry out any of the actions described in article 77 of the EUCRR (Conditions for reducing own funds) for an own funds instrument.