Related provisions for PRIN 3.1.5

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To access the FCA Handbook Archive choose a date between 1 January 2001 and 31 December 2004 (From field only).

MCOB 6.4.4RRP
The illustration provided as part of the offer document in accordance with MCOB 6.4.1 R (1) must meet the requirements of MCOB 5.6 (Content of illustrations) with the following modifications:(1) the illustration must be suitably adapted and revised to reflect the fact that the firm is making an offer to a customer and updated to reflect changes to, for example, the interest rate, charges, the exchange rate or the APR required by MCOB 10 (Annual Percentage Rate), at the date the
FIT 1.1.2GRP
The purpose of FIT is to set out and describe the criteria that:1(1) a relevant authorised person should consider when:1(a) assessing the fitness and propriety of a candidate whom the firm is proposing to put forward for approval as an FCA-approved SMF manager;1(b) assessing the continuing fitness and propriety of a person approved to perform the function of an FCA-approved SMF manager, including for formulating an opinion about whether there are any grounds on which the regulator
SUP 10A.6.16GRP
(1) This paragraph explains the basis on which the director function and the non-executive director function are applied to persons who have a position with the firm'sparent undertaking or holding company under SUP 10A.6.8 R or SUP 10A.6.13 R.(2) The basic position is set out in SUP 10A.3.4 G. As is the case with all controlled functions, SUP 10A.6.8 R and SUP 10A.6.13 R are subject to the overriding provisions in SUP 10A.3.1 R, which sets out the requirements of section 59(1)
LR 9.2.6RRP
A listed company that is not already required to comply with the obligations referred to under article 17 of the Market Abuse Regulation12 must comply with those obligations12 as if it were an issuer for the purposes of the disclosure requirements12 and transparency rules subject to article 22 of the Market Abuse Regulation12.1
SUP 13.5.5GRP
A notice of intention3 (other than one to establish a branch or provide services in another EEA state under the auction regulation)7 may include activities within the scope of the relevant Single Market Directive which are not regulated activities (paragraphs 19(3) and 20(2) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act), although in the case of a MiFID investment firm a notice of intention may only include ancillary services which are to be carried on with one or more investment services
BIPRU 12.4.3GRP
Consistent with BIPRU 12.3.5R, the expects that the extent and frequency of such testing, as well as the degree of regularity of governing body review under BIPRU 12.4.2R, should be proportionate to the nature scale and complexity of a firm's activities, as well as to the size of its liquidity risk exposures. Consistent with the appropriate regulator's statutory objectives under the Act, in assessing the adequacy of a firm's stress testing arrangements (including their frequency
REC 6.2.4GRP
There is no standard application form for application for recognition as an ROIE2. An application should be made in accordance with any direction the FCA3 may make under section 287 (Application by an investment exchange) of the Act and should include:333(1) the information, evidence and explanatory material necessary to demonstrate to the FCA3 that the recognition requirements (set out in REC 6.3) will be met;(2) the application fee (see REC 7);(3) the address of the applicant's
EG App 2.1.9RP
2The following are indicators of whether action by the FCA or one of the other agencies is more appropriate. They are not listed in any particular order or ranked according to priority. No single feature of the case should be considered in isolation, but rather the whole case should be considered in the round.(a) 2 Tending towards action by the FCAWhere the suspected conduct in question gives rise to concerns regarding market confidence or protection of consumers of services regulated
IFPRU 4.14.3GRP
A firm may apply to the FCA under section 138A of the Act to waiveIFPRU 4.14.2 R if it wishes to use the residual maturity of the interest-rate contract.
FIT 1.3.4AGRP
1A relevant authorised person assessing the continuing fitness and propriety of an approved person is required to notify the FCA under section 63(2A) of the Act if it forms the opinion that there are grounds on which the FCA could withdraw its approval (see SUP 10C.14.24R). In discharging its obligation to notify the FCA, a relevant authorised person should take into account how relevant and how important the matter is that comes to its attention which suggests an approved person
SYSC 22.2.3RRP

Table: What positions need a reference

Position

When to obtain reference

Comments

(A) Permitting or appointing someone to perform an FCA controlled function or a PRA controlled function.

One month before the end of the application period

Where a request for a reference would require:

(a) the firm requesting the reference;

(b) the employer giving the reference; or

(c) any other person;

to make a mandatory disclosure prior to P disclosing to its current employer that such application has been made, the date is the end of the application period.

(B) Issuing a certificate under section 63F of the Act (Certification of employees by relevant authorised persons).

Before the certificate is issued

This includes renewing an existing certificate.

(C) Appointing someone to any of the following positions (as defined in the PRA Rulebook):

(a) a notified non-executive director;

(b) a credit union non-executive director; or

(c) a key function holder.

Not applicable

SYSC 22.2.1R (obligation to obtain a reference) does not apply to a firm appointing someone to the position in column (1).

However SYSC 22.2.2R does apply to a firm asked to give a reference to a firm appointing someone to the position in column (1).

Note 1: Mandatory disclosure means an obligation in any applicable laws, regulations or rules to declare or disclose information to the public.

Note 2: P refers to the employee or ex-employee about whom the reference is given as defined in more detail in SYSC 22.2.1R and SYSC 22.2.2R.

Note 3: The application period means the period for consideration referred to in section 61 of the Act (Determination of application).
CASS 5.3.1GRP
Section 137B(1) of the Act (Miscellaneous ancillary matters) provides that rules may make provision which results in client money being held by a firm on trust (England and Wales and Northern Ireland) or as agent (Scotland only). CASS 5.3.2 R creates a fiduciary relationship between the firm and its client under which client money is in the legal ownership of the firm but remains in the beneficial ownership of the client. In the event of failure of the firm, costs relating to
DISP App 1.1.5GRP
This appendix is also relevant to complaints which the Ombudsman may investigate under the Compulsory Jurisdiction or Voluntary Jurisdiction of the Financial Ombudsman Service established under Part XVI of the Act (The Ombudsman Scheme).2525
SUP 12.7.3AGRP
Where a notification is linked to an application for approval under section 59 of the Act (Approval for particular arrangements), see SUP 10A.13.7 G21.121
SYSC 5.1.5GRP
The requirements on firms with respect to approved persons are in Part V of the Act (Performance of regulated activities) and SUP 10A, SUP 10C and in the corresponding parts of the PRA’s Rulebook9.1616
SUP 16.8.9GRP
1Life policies and stakeholder pensions falling within SUP 16.8.8 R (2) (c) are those which have been transferred from another firm, for example under an insurance business transfer scheme under Part 711 of the Act (Control of Business Transfers).11
DEPP 6.5A.2GRP
(1) The FCA2 will determine a figure that reflects the seriousness of the breach. In many cases, the amount of revenue generated by a firm from a particular product line or business area is indicative of the harm or potential harm that its breach may cause, and in such cases the FCA2 will determine a figure which will be based on a percentage of the firm’s revenue from the relevant products or business areas. The FCA2 also believes that the amount of revenue generated by a firm