Related provisions for BIPRU 1.2.19
61 - 80 of 318 items.
A firm (other than the Society and an MTF operator in relation to its MTF business5) must notify to the FCA (in its own capacity and, if applicable, in its capacity as collection agent for the PRA) the value (as at the valuation date specified in Part 5 of FEES 4 Annex 1AR6) of each element of business on which the periodic fee payable by the firm is to be calculated.15
3A fee-paying payment service provider and a fee-paying electronic money issuer4 must notify to the FCA the value (as at the valuation date specified in Part 4 of FEES 4 Annex 11) of each element of business on which the periodic fee (other than a flat fee)4 payable by the firm under 1 R4 is to be calculated, including any payment services carried on by its agents from an establishment in the United Kingdom. 4
Where a UK recognised body is to circulate any notice or other document proposing any amendment to its memorandum or articles of association (or other similar agreement or document relating to its constitution) to:(1) its shareholders (or any group or class of them); or(2) its members (or any group or class of them); or(3) any other group or class of persons which has the power to make that amendment or whose consent or approval is required before it may be made;that UK recognised
Where a UK recognised body makes an amendment to its memorandum or articles of association (or other similar agreement or document relating to its constitution), that UK recognised body must immediately give the FCA1notice of that event, and give written particulars of that amendment and of the date on which it is to become or became effective.1
Where any change is made to an agreement which relates to the constitution or governance of a UK recognised body:(1) between that UK recognised body and another person; or(2) between the owners of that UK recognised body; or(3) between the owners of that UK recognised body and another person; or(4) between other persons; that UK recognised body must give the FCA1notice of that event as soon as it is aware of it, and give written particulars of that change and of the date on which
A UK firm17 or an AIFM exercising an EEA right to market an AIF under AIFMD13,9 cannot start providing cross border services into another EEA State under an EEA right unless it satisfies the conditions in paragraphs 20(1) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act and, if it derives its EEA right from17AIFMD, MiFID or the UCITS Directive,13paragraph 20(4B) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act. If a UK firm derives its EEA right from the MCD, it cannot start providing cross border services
8(2) [deleted]17(2A) 8(a) If the UK firm'sEEA right derives from the Insurance Mediation Directive, and the EEA State in which the UK firm is seeking to provide services has notified the European Commission of its wish to be informed of the intention of persons to provide cross border services in its territory in accordance with article 6(2) of that directive, paragraph 20(3B)(a) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act requires the appropriate UK regulator20 to send a copy of the
(1) 14If the UKfirm'sEEA right derives from AIFMD (other than the EEA right to market an AIF (referred to in (3)) and the condition in (2) is met, paragraph 20(3D) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act requires the FCA to:(a) send a copy of the notice of intention to the Host State regulator within one month of receipt; (b) include confirmation that the UKfirm has been authorised by the FCA under AIFMD; and(c) immediately inform the UKfirm that the notice of intention and confirmation
A firm is required to notify the appropriate regulator of changes to its close links (see SUP 11.9). The effective supervision threshold conditions provide that, if a firm has close links with another person, the matters which are relevant in determining whether a firm satisfies the condition of being capable of being effective supervised include:1111(1) the nature of the relationship between the firm and that person;1111(2) whether those links or that relationship are likely
The purposes of the rules and guidance in this section are:(1) to ensure that, in addition to such notifications, the appropriate regulator11 receives regular and comprehensive information about the identities of all persons with whom a firm has close links, which is relevant to a firm's continuing to satisfy the effective supervision threshold conditions11 and to the protection of consumers; and1111(2) to implement certain requirements relating to the provision of information
7If a group includes more than one firm, a single close links notification may be made by completing the Annual Close Links Report and so satisfy the notification requirement for all firms in the group. Nevertheless, the requirement to notify, and the responsibility for notifying, remains with each firm in the group.
(1) The purpose of REC 3.15.2 R to REC 3.15.5 G is to enable the FCA3 to obtain information where a UK recognised body decides to suspend the provision of its services in relation to particular investments or (for an RAP) decides to cancel an auction.2 Planned changes to the provision of services should be notified to the FCA3under REC 3.14.33(2) REC 3.15.6 R to REC 3.15.7 R provide for notification to the FCA3where a UK recognised body is unable to operate or provide its facilities
Where, because of the occurrence of any event or circumstances, a UK recognised body is unable to operate any of its facilities within its normal hours of operation, it must immediately give the FCA3notice of that inability and inform the FCA:333(1) which facility it is unable to operate; (2) what event or circumstance has caused it to become unable to operate that facility within those hours; and(3) what action, if any, it is taking or proposes to take to enable it to recommence
In assessing whether a matter should be notified to the appropriate regulator9 under SUP 11.8.1 R (1), SUP 11.8.1 R (2) or SUP 11.8.1 R (3), a firm should have regard to the guidance on satisfying the threshold conditions set out in paragraphs 2E and 3D of Schedule 6 to the Act9 contained in COND 2.5.99
The level of a firm's awareness of its controller's circumstances will depend on its relationship with that controller. The appropriate regulator9 does not expect firms to implement systems or procedures so as to be certain of any changes in its controllers' circumstances. However, the appropriate regulator9 does expect firms to notify it of such matters if the firm becomes aware of them, and it expects firms to make enquiries of its controllers if it becomes aware that one of
In aggregating VaR measures across risk or product categories, a firm must not use the square root of the sum of the squares approach unless the assumption of zero correlation between these categories is empirically justified. If correlations between risk categories are not empirically justified, the VaR measures for each category must simply be added in order to determine its aggregate VaR measure. But to the extent that a firm'sVaR model permission provides for a different way
3If the results of the stress tests carried out in accordance with BIPRU 7.10.55Z R indicate a material shortfall in the amount of capital required under the all price risk measure, a firm must notify the appropriate regulator of this circumstance by no later than two business days after the business day on which the material shortfall occurred.
If a backtesting exception occurs, the firm must notify its usual supervisory contact at the appropriate regulator orally by close of business two business days after the business day for which the backtesting exception occurred. Within five business days following the end of each Month, the firm must submit to the appropriate regulator a written account of the previous Month'sbacktesting exceptions (if any). This explanation must include the causes of the backtesting exceptions,
A VaR model permission will contain requirements for what the firm should report to the appropriate regulator and the procedures for reporting. The precise requirements will vary from VaR model permission to VaR model permission. BIPRU 7.10.129R-BIPRU 7.10.130R set out what the appropriate regulator regards as the standard requirements.
23If FEES 3.2.3AR (1)(a) applies to a fee payer, that fee payer would be expected to notify the FCA of these circumstances in advance of making its payment (and, in any event, no less than 7 days before the date on which the application for a Part 4A permission or the variation of a Part 4A permission is made) unless such notification is impossible in the circumstances, eg, there is a sudden technological failure.
(1) (a) 37The appropriate authorisation or registration 8fee is an integral part of an application for, or an application for a variation of, a Part 4A permission ,24 authorisation, registration or variation under the Payment Services Regulations or the Electronic Money Regulations, registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order80or notification or registration under the AIFMD UK regulation24.16248(b) 37 Any application or notification24 received by the37FCA without the accompanying
If a firm disagrees with the FCA's assessment as to the amount or quality of capital planning buffer that it should hold, it should, consistent with Principle 11 (Relations with regulators), notify the FCA of its disagreement. The FCA may reconsider its initial assessment if, after discussion with the firm, the FCA concludes that the amount or quality of capital that the firm should hold as capital planning buffer is different from the amount or quality initially suggested.
For the purposes of IFPRU 2.3.21 G, 1IFPRU 2.3.20 G1 applies as it applies to individual capital guidance. References in those provisions to individual capital guidance should be read as if they were references to capital planning buffer. In relation toIFPRU 2.2.62 R, where the general stress and scenario testing rule or SYSC 20 (Reverse stress testing), as part of the ICAAPrules, applies to a firm on a consolidated basis, the FCA may notify the firm that it should hold a group
Consistent with Principle 11 (Relations with regulators), a firm should notify the FCA as early as possible in advance where it has identified that it would need to use its capital planning buffer. The firm's notification should at least state: (1) what adverse circumstances are likely to force the firm to draw down its capital planning buffer; (2) how the capital planning buffer will be used up in line with the firm's capital planning projections; and(3) what plan is in place
A firm may
allow another person, such as
another broker to hold or control client money,
but only if:(1) the firm transfers the client
money for the purpose of a transaction for a client through
or with that person; and(2) in
the case of a consumer,5 that customer has been notified (whether through
a client agreement,4terms of business, or otherwise in writing)
that the client money may be
transferred to another person.54
On the failure of
a third party with which client money is
held, a firm must notify the FCA:(1) as
soon as it becomes aware, of the failure of
any bank, other broker or settlement agent or
other entity with which it has placed, or to which it has passed, client money; and(2) as
soon as reasonably practical, whether it intends to make good any shortfall that has arisen or may arise and
of the amounts involved.
If an issuer is required to notify information to a RIS at a time when a RIS is not open for business, it must distribute the information as soon as possible to:(1) not less than two national newspapers in the United Kingdom;(2) two newswire services operating in the United Kingdom; and(3) a RIS for release as soon as it opens.
(1) Regulation 7 to 9 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Services of Notices) Regulations 2001 (SI2001/1420) govern the manner in which notices may be submitted to the regulators3 under the EEA Passport Rights Regulations. In summary, they should be delivered or posted to the appropriate UK regulator's3 address (See (2) below) and will be treated as given when received by the appropriate UK regulator3. They should not be sent by fax or electronic mail. 333(2) [de
Under Principle 11 and SUP 15.3.1 R, a firm must notify the FCA1 immediately of any operational risk matter of which the FCA1 would reasonably expect notice. SUP 15.3.8 G provides guidance on the occurrences that this requirement covers, which include a significant failure in systems and controls and a significant operational loss.
Regarding operational risk, matters of which the FCA1 would expect notice under Principle 11 include:(1) any significant operational exposures that a firm has identified;(2) the firm's invocation of a business continuity plan; and(3) any other significant change to a firm's organisation, infrastructure or business operating environment.
If by virtue of its holding treasury shares, a listed
company is allotted shares as
part of a capitalisation issue, the company must
notify a RIS as soon as possible
and in any event by no later than 7:30 a.m. on the business
day following the calendar day on
which allotment occurred of the following information:(1) the date of the allotment;(2) the number of shares allotted;(3) a statement as to what number of shares allotted have been cancelled and
what number is being held
Any sale for cash, transfer for the purposes
of or pursuant to an employees' share scheme or
cancellation of treasury shares that represents over 0.5% of the listed company'sshare capital 2 must be notified to a RIS as
soon as possible and in any event by no later than 7:30 a.m. on the business day following the calendar day on
which the sale, transfer or cancellation occurred. The notification must include:2(1) the date of the sale, transfer
or cancellation;(2) the number of
An investment
firm, which is authorised by the
FCA
, must promptly notify the
FCA
in writing of its status as a
systematic internaliser in respect of shares admitted to trading on a regulated
market:(1) when it gains that status; or(2) if it ceases to have that status.[Note:Article
21(4) of the MiFID Regulation]