Related provisions for IFPRU 4.12.21

201 - 220 of 314 items.
Results filter

Search Term(s)

Filter by Modules

Filter by Documents

Filter by Keywords

Effective Period

Similar To

To access the FCA Handbook Archive choose a date between 1 January 2001 and 31 December 2004 (From field only).

BIPRU 7.5.4RRP
(1) The following are excluded from a firm'sforeign currency PRR calculation:(a) foreign currency assets which have been deducted in full from the firm'scapital resources under the calculations under the capital resources table;(b) positions hedging (a);(c) positions that a firm has deliberately taken in order to hedge against the adverse effect of the exchange rate on the ratio of its capital resources to its capital resources requirement; and(d) transactions to the extent that
FEES 6.4.10ARRP
(1) 22This rule deals with the calculation of:(a) a participant firm'sspecific costs levy in the financial year of the FSCS following the FSCS financial year in which it became a participant firm; or(b) a participant firm'sspecific costs levy in the financial year of the FSCS in which it had its permission extended, and the following FSCS financial year; and(c) the tariff base for the classes3 that relate to the relevant permissions or extensions, as the case may be.3(2) Unless
SUP App 3.9.4GRP

1

Table 1: CRD activities6

6

Part II RAO Activities

Part III RAO Investments

1.

Taking6 deposits and other repayable funds from the public

6

Article 5

Article 74

2.

Lending

Article 61, 64

Article 88

3.

Financial leasing

4.

Money transmission services

5.

Issuing and administering means of payment (eg credit cards, travellers' cheques and bankers' drafts)

6.

Guarantees and commitments

7.

Trading for own account or for account of customers in:

(a) money market instruments

(b) foreign exchange

(c) financial futures and options

(d) exchange and interest rate instruments

(e) transferable securities

Article 14, 21, 25 (see Note 1), 64

Article 14, 21, 25, 64

Article 14, 21, 25, 64

Article 14, 21, 25, 64

Article 14, 21, 25, 64

Article 77, 78, 80, 83-85, 89

Article 83-85, 89

Article 83-85, 89

Article 83-85, 89

Article 76-81, 89

8.

Participation in share issues and the provision of services relating to such issues

Article 14, 21, 25, 53(1)10, 64

Article 76-81, 89

9.

Advice to undertakings on capital structure, industrial strategy and related questions and advice and services relating to mergers and the purchase of undertakings

Article 14, 21, 25, 53(1)10, 64

Article 76-80, 83-85, 89

10.

Money broking

Article 25, 64

Article 77, 78, 89

11.

Portfolio management and advice

Article 14, 21, 25, 37, 53(1)10, 64

Article 76-81, 83-85, 89

12.

Safekeeping and administration of securities

Article 40, 45, 64

Article 76-81, 83-85, 89

13.

Credit reference services

14.

Safe custody services

1 16

615.

Issuing electric money

Article 9B

Article 74A

3Note 12: The services and activities provided for in Sections A and B of Annex I of MiFID when referring to the financial instruments provided for in Section C of Annex I of that Directive are subject to mutual recognition according to the CRD from 1 January 2013.6See2 the table at SUP App 3.9.5 G below for mapping of MiFIDinvestment services and activities.For further details relating to this residual category, please see the "CRD"6section of the passporting forms entitled "Notification of intention to establish a branch in another EEA State" and "Notification of intention to provide cross border services in another EEA State".2

266
SUP 6.4.18GRP
(1) A firm which is applying for cancellation of Part 4A permission and which is not otherwise authorised by, or under, the Act should, at the same time:15(a) comply with:15(i) SUP 10A.14.8R (for a firm that is not a relevant authorised person);15(ii) SUP 10C.14.5R (for a relevant authorised person); or15(iii) the corresponding PRA requirements; and15(b) notify the appropriate regulator of persons ceasing to perform controlled functions specified by that regulator.15(2) These
BIPRU 3.5.2GRP
The approach in this section is only likely to be relevant for a limited licence firm or a limited activity firm that has only incidental credit exposures and for whom it would be prohibitively costly to establish the systems needed to include the credit assessments of ECAIs and export credit agencies in its regulatory capital calculations. However the approach may be used by other firms if appropriate. A firm should notify the appropriate regulator if it adopts the approach in
COLL 7.4.1GRP
(1) This section deals with the circumstances and manner in which an AUT is to be wound up or a sub-fund of an AUT is to be terminated. Under section 256 of the Act (Requests for revocation of authorisation order), the manager or trustee of an AUT may request the FCA to revoke the authorisation order in respect of that AUT. Section 257 of the Act (Directions) gives the FCA the power to make certain directions.(2) The termination of a sub-fund under this section will be subject
A firm must notify the FCA1 immediately if it becomes aware, or has information which reasonably suggests, that any of the following matters in relation to its professional indemnity insurance has occurred, may have occurred or may occur in the foreseeable future: (1) professional indemnity insurance cannot be obtained within 28 days of the inception or renewal date; (2) professional indemnity insurance is cancelled; (3) the amount of aggregate cover is exhausted;
SUP 16.9.2GRP
1The purpose of the rules and guidance in this section is to ensure that, in addition to the notifications made under SUP 12.7 (Appointed representatives; notification requirements), the FCA6 receives regular and comprehensive information about the appointed representatives engaged by a firm, so that the FCA6 is in a better position to pursue the statutory objective6 of the protection of consumers.3666
LR 8.3.5ARRP
1If, in connection with the provision of a3sponsor service, a sponsor becomes aware that it, or a company with or applying for a premium listing of its equity shares is failing or has failed to comply with its obligations under3 the listing rules3, the3disclosure requirements7 or the transparency rules, the sponsor must promptly notify the FCA2.323
FEES 9.2.4GRP
A direct payment service provider2 should pay its fees by electronic credit transfer and should notify the operator to whom it is paying the relevant PSR fee2 if it intends to pay in another way.
SYSC 8.1.12GRP
As SUP 15.3.8 G explains, a firm should notify the appropriate regulator when it intends to rely on a third party for the performance of operational functions which are critical or important for the performance of relevant services and activities on a continuous and satisfactory basis.[Note: recital 20 of theMiFID implementing Directive]2
CASS 7A.2.2RRP
A primary pooling event occurs:(1) on the failure of the firm;(2) on the vesting of assets in a trustee2 in accordance with an 'assets requirement' imposed under section 55P(1)(b) or (c) (as the case may be) of the Act;2(3) on the coming into force of a requirement for all client money held by the firm; or(4) when the firm notifies, or is in breach of its duty to notify, the FCA, in accordance with CASS 7.15.33 R4 (Notification requirements), that it is unable correctly to identify
RCB 2.3.2GRP
(1) The FCA's application form covers both issuer registration and covered bond registration as the FCA will not normally consider applications for issuer registration in isolation from the application for registration of the covered bond.(2) An issuer which has been admitted to the register of issuers should use the same form to apply for registration of subsequent covered bonds or programmes.(3) The issuer does not need to apply for registration of individual issuances from
COLL 12.1.3GRP
Where an authorised fund manager wishes to market the units of a UCITS scheme it operates in a Host State, without establishing a branch or pursuing any other activities in that State, a management company passport is not required for those marketing activities. A UCITS marketing notification should be made for the relevant UCITS scheme (see COLL 12.4 (UCITS product passport) in order to access the market of the Host State. The marketing must be carried on in conformity with the
LR 3.3.4RRP
If written confirmation of the number of shares 4to be allotted pursuant to a board resolution1 cannot be submitted to the FCA by the deadline set out in LR 3.3.2 R or the number of shares4to be admitted is lower than the number notified under LR 3.3.2 R,1 written confirmation of the number of shares4to be allotted or admitted must be provided to the FCA by 1the applicant or its sponsor at least one hour before the admission to listing is to become effective.14144141
SUP 13A.1.3GRP
(1) Under the Gibraltar Order2 made under section 409 of the Act, a Gibraltar firm is treated as an EEA firm under Schedule 3 to the Act if it is:22(a) [deleted]141212(aA) [deleted]1212(b) authorised in Gibraltar under the CRD8; or282(c) authorised in Gibraltar under the Insurance Mediation Directive; or2(d) authorised in Gibraltar under the MiFID4;9 or114(e) authorised in Gibraltar under the UCITS Directive9; or11(f) authorised in Gibraltar under AIFMD.11(g) authorised in Gibraltar
SUP 14.6.3ARRP
4An EEA firm that has exercised an EEA right under the auction regulation to establish a branch in the United Kingdom must notify the FCA7 by email to 7emissionstrading@fca.org.uk7 when it ceases to carry on regulated activities through a branch passport in the United Kingdom or whenever possible thereafter.
IPRU-INV 5.6.7RRP
A firm wishing to include a qualifying subordinated loan in its calculation of liquid capital must:(a) provide the FCA with a copy of the agreement not less than 10 business days before the loan is to be made; and(b) certify to the FCA that the loan agreement complies with the FCA'sprescribed subordinated loan agreement.
IPRU-INV 2.1.2RRP
(1) An authorised professional firm of a kind falling within (2) must comply with such of IPRU-INV 3, 5, 9 or 13 which in accordance with IPRU-INV 2.1.4R, most appropriately correlates to the type and scale of the business which it conducts. (2) The type of authorised professional firm to which (1) applies is one:(a) which is also an exempt CAD firm; (b) which acts as a market maker; (c) which acts as a stabilising manager;