Related provisions for SUP 16.12.3B
41 - 60 of 213 items.
(1) A firm must use Form E where an approved person is both ceasing to perform one or more controlled functions and needs to be approved in relation to one or more FCA controlled functions within the same firm or group.(2) A firm must not use Form E if: 2(a) the approved person has never before been approved to perform for any firm:2(i) an FCA controlled function that is2 a significant-influence function; or2(ii) an FCA-designated senior management function; or2(iii) a PRA controlled
If it is proposed that an FCA-approved person will no longer be performing an FCA controlled function under an arrangement entered into by one firm or one of its contractors, but will be performing the same or a different FCA controlled function under an arrangement entered into by a new firm or one of its contractors (whether or not the new firm is in the same group as the old firm), the new firm will be required to make a fresh application for the performance of the FCA controlled
(1) A firm must submit to the FCA a completed Form C, in the form set out in SUP 10A Annex 6R, no later than seven business days after an FCA-approved person ceases to perform an FCA controlled function.2(2) If:2(a) the firm is also making an application for approval for that approved person to perform a controlled function within the same firm or group; and2(b) ceasing to perform the FCA controlled function in (1) has triggered a requirement to make that application for approval:2(i)
(1) A firm must apply the requirements of this section at group, parent undertaking and subsidiary undertaking levels, including those subsidiaries established in a country or territory which is not an EEA State.(2) Paragraph (1) does not limit SYSC 12.1.13 R and SYSC 12.1.15 R (which relate to the application of the BIPRU Remuneration Code within UK consolidation groups and non-EEA sub-groups).
The effect of SYSC 12.1.13 R (2)(dA) and SYSC 12.1.15 R is that the firm is required to ensure that the risk management processes and internal control mechanisms at the level of any consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group of which a firm is a member comply with the obligations set out in this section on a consolidated (or sub-consolidated) basis.
- (1)
In the FCA's view:
- (a)
- (b)
a person who performs a significant influence function for, or is a senior manager of, a firm would normally be expected to be part of the firm'sBIPRU Remuneration Code staff;
- (c)
the table in (2) provides a non-exhaustive list of examples of key positions that should, subject to (d), be within a firm's definition of staff who are risk takers;
- (d)
firms should consider how the examples in the table in (2) apply to their own organisational structure;
1 - (e)
firms may find it useful to set their own metrics to identify their risk takers based, for example, on trading limits; and
- (f)
a firm should treat a person as being BIPRU Remuneration Code staff in relation to remuneration in respect of a given performance year if they were BIPRU Remuneration Code staff for any part of that year.
[Note: The FCA has published guidance on the application of particular rules on remuneration structures in relation to individuals who are BIPRU Remuneration Code staff for only part of a given performance year. This guidance is available at www.fca.org.uk/firms/remuneration
.]
- (2)
High-level category
Suggested business lines
Heads of significant business lines (including regional heads) and any individuals or groups within their control who have a material impact on the firm's risk profile
Fixed income
Foreign exchange
Commodities
Securitisation
Sales areas
Investment banking (including mergers and acquisitions advisory)
Commercial banking
Equities
Structured finance
Lending quality
Trading areas
Research
Heads of support and control functions and other individuals within their control who have a material impact on the firm's risk profile
Credit/market/operational risk
Legal
Treasury controls
Human resources
Compliance
Internal audit
(1) Deferred remuneration paid in shares or share-linked instruments should be made under a scheme which meets appropriate criteria, including risk adjustment of the performance measure used to determine the initial allocation of shares. Deferred remuneration paid in cash should also be subject to performance criteria.(2) The FCA generally expects a firm to have a firm-wide policy (and group-wide policy, where appropriate) on deferral. The proportion deferred should generally
Articles 12(3) and (4) of the Financial Promotion Order (subject to article 12(5) – see PERG 8.12.8 G) have the effect that, where a financial promotion is directed from a place outside the United Kingdom, it will be conclusive proof that it is not directed at persons in the United Kingdom even if it is received by a person in the United Kingdom, if:(1) the financial promotion is not referred to in or directly accessible from another communication (for example, an advertisement
There is no definition in the Financial Promotion Order of what ‘proper systems and procedures’ are, and the matter will ultimately be for the courts to determine. This is unsurprising as systems and procedures may take many different forms depending upon the precise circumstances in which financial promotions are made. But it is clear that persons seeking conclusive proof that the exemption applies must consciously make arrangements to prevent their dealing with certain recipients
This exemption applies to any financial promotion that is made with a view to or for the purposes of introducing the recipient to certain kinds of person. These are authorised persons who carry on the controlled activity to which the financial promotion relates, or exempt persons where the financial promotion relates to a controlled activity that is also a regulated activity in relation to which he is an exempt person. This is subject to the requirement that:11(1) the person making
The main purpose of the exemption appears to be to guard against the possibility that, during the course of a broadcast interview or a live website presentation, a financial promotion is made inadvertently by a director or employee of a company or other business undertaking when he is not acting in the capacity of a journalist (see PERG 8.12.25 G). The exemption applies if the financial promotion relates only to:(1) shares of the undertaking or of another undertaking in the same
In the FCA's view, a group of recipients who may be engaging in investment activity jointly could include:(1) a married couple;(2) two or more persons who will invest jointly in a product (for example, a cohabiting couple who are not married or members of a family);(3) the directors of a company or partners in a firm;(4) members of a group of companies;(5) the participants in a joint commercial enterprise;(6) the members of an investment club; and(7) the managers or prospective
Article 39 of the Financial Promotion Order exempts a financial promotion that:(1) is communicated by one participator or potential participator in a joint enterprise to another; and(2) is in connection with or for the purposes of that enterprise.A joint enterprise means, in general terms, arrangements entered into by two or more persons for commercial purposes related to a business that they carry on. The business must not involve a controlled activity. The term ‘participant’
The exemption in article 62 of the Financial Promotion Order applies to any financial promotioncommunicated by or on behalf of a body corporate, a partnership, an individual or a group of connected individuals. The financial promotion must relate to a transaction which is one to acquire or dispose of shares in a body corporate and either:(1) it is the case that:(a) the shares, in addition, where appropriate, to any shares already held by the buyer, amount to 50% or more of the
Several exemptions, including article 43 of the Financial Promotion Order (Members and creditors of certain bodies corporate), apply only in relation to relevant investments being shares or debentures or alternative debentures7 in the body corporate or a member of its group, or warrants or certificates representing certain securities relating to such shares or debentures or alternative debentures.7 In the FCA's view, an exchangeable debt security which is partly a debenture or
(1) 7In addition to instruments admitted to or dealt in on an eligible market, a UCITS scheme may also with the express consent of the FCA (which takes the form of a waiver under sections 138A and 138B of the Act as applied by section 250 of the Act or regulation 7 of the OEIC Regulations) invest in an approved money-market instrument provided:(a) the issue or issuer is itself regulated for the purpose of protecting investors and savings in accordance with COLL 5.2.10AR (2);(b)
(1) This rule does not apply in respect of a transferable security or an approved money-market instrument to which COLL 5.2.12R (Spread: government and public securities) applies21.(2) For the purposes of this rule companies included in the same group for the purposes of consolidated accounts as defined in accordance with the Seventh Council Directive 83/349/EEC of 13 June 1983 based on Article 54(3)(g) of the Treaty on consolidated accounts or, in the same group in accordance
(1) [deleted]13113(2) [deleted]1313(3) 5In applying the spread limit of 20% in value of scheme property which may consist of deposits with a single body, all uninvested cash comprising capital property that the depositary holds should be included in calculating the total sum of the deposits held by it and other companies in its group on behalf of the scheme.
(1) The indices referred to in COLL 5.2.31 R are those which satisfy the following criteria:7(a) the composition is sufficiently diversified;7(b) the index represents an adequate benchmark for the market to which it refers; and7(c) the index is published in an appropriate manner.7(2) The composition of an index is sufficiently diversified if its components adhere to the spread and concentration requirements in this section.77(3) An index represents an adequate benchmark if its
Where a firm is a member of a group, it should base its ICAAP on the consolidated financial position of the group. The group assessment should include information on diversification benefits and transferability of resources between members of the group and an apportionment of the capital required by the group as a whole to the firm (GENPRU 1.2.44 G to GENPRU 1.2.56 G (Application of GENPRU 1.2 on a solo and consolidated basis: Processes and tests)). A firm may, instead of preparing
(1) Individual capital guidance may also be given with respect to group capital resources. This paragraph explains how such guidance should be interpreted unless the individual capital guidance specifies another interpretation.(2) If BIPRU 8.2.1 R (General consolidation rule for a UK consolidation group) applies to the firm the guidance relates to its UK consolidation group. If BIPRU 8.3.1 R (General consolidation rule for a non-EEA sub-group) applies to the firm the guidance
If BIPRU 2.2.41 R applies to a firm on a consolidated basis the following adjustments are made to BIPRU 2.2.41 R in accordance with the general principles of BIPRU 8 (Group risk - consolidation):(1) references to capital resources are to the consolidated capital resources of the firm'sUK consolidation group or, as the case may be, its non-EEA sub-group; and(2) references to the capital requirements in GENPRU 2.1 (Calculation of capital resources requirements) are to the consolidated
If a firm adopts a top-down approach to developing its internal model, it should be able to allocate the outcome of the internal model to risks it has previously identified in relation to each separate legal entity, business unit or business activity, as appropriate. In relation to a firm which is a member of a group, GENPRU 1.2.53 R (Application of GENPRU 1.2 on a solo and consolidated basis: Processes and tests) sets out how internal capital identified as necessary by that firm'sICAAP
(1) Taking reasonable steps in CASS 7.11.50 R (3) includes following this course of conduct:(a) determining, as far as reasonably possible, the correct contact details for the relevant client;(b) writing to the client at the last known address either by post or by electronic mail to inform it of the firm's intention to no longer treat the client money balance as client money and to pay the sums concerned to charity if the firm does not receive instructions from the client within
(1) Where a firm wishes to release a balance allocated to an individual client under CASS 7.11.50 R it must comply with either (a) or (b) and, in either case, (2):(a) the firm must unconditionally undertake to pay to the client concerned a sum equal to the balance paid away to charity in the event of the client seeking to claim the balance in future; or(b) the firm must ensure that an unconditional undertaking in the terms set out in (a) is made by a member of its group and there
(1) If a firm pays away client money under CASS 7.11.50 R (4) it must make and retain, or where the firm already has such records, retain: (a) records of all balances released from client bank accounts under CASS 7.11.50 R (including details of the amounts and the identity of the client to whom the money was allocated); (b) all relevant documentation (including charity receipts); and(c) details of the communications the firm had or attempted to make with the client concerned pursuant
Any costs associated with the firm ceasing to treat unclaimed client money balances as client money pursuant to CASS 7.11.50 R to CASS 7.11.57 R should be paid for from the firm's own funds, including:(1) any costs associated with the firm carrying out the steps in CASS 7.11.50 R (3), CASS 7.11.51 G or CASS 7.11.57 R (3); and(2) the cost of any insurance purchased by a firm or the relevant member of its group to cover any legally enforceable claim in respect of the client money
Except where the purchases will
consist of individual transactions made in accordance with the terms of issue
of the relevant securities,
where1 a listed
company intends to purchase any of its securities convertible
into its equity shares2 with
a premium listing2 it must:1(1) ensure that no dealings in the
relevant securities are carried
out by or on behalf of the company or
any member of its group until
the proposal has either been notified to a RIS or
abandoned; and(2) notify
Any purchases, early redemptions or cancellations
of a company's own securities convertible
into equity shares with a premium listing,2 by or on behalf of the company or any other member of its group must be notified to a RIS when an aggregate of 10% of the initial
amount of the relevant class of securities has been purchased, redeemed
or cancelled, and for each 5% in aggregate of the initial amount of that class acquired thereafter.2
This section may be of relevance to a directive friendly society:(1) if it has 10 members or less; (2) if it has a delegate voting system and has 10 delegates or less; or (3) if it has 20 members or less and effects or carries out group insurance contracts where one person may exercise one vote on behalf of the members of a group and one vote in their private capacity; orwhere a member or delegate, whether alone or acting in concert8, is entitled to exercise, or control the exercise
If a group includes more than one firm, a single annual controllers report may be submitted, and so satisfy the requirements of all firms in the group. Such a report should contain the information required from all of them, meet all relevant due dates, indicate all the firms on whose behalf it is submitted and give their firm reference numbers. Nevertheless, the requirement to provide a report, and the responsibility for the report, remain with each firm in the group.115
For the purpose of this chapter, a firm will be treated as satisfying a rule in this chapter requiring it to include a document in its CASS resolution pack if a member of that firm'sgroup includes that document in its own CASS resolution pack, provided that:(1) that group member is subject to the same rule; and(2) the firm is still able to comply with CASS 10.1.7 R.
(1) A firm must at all times maintain liquidity resources which are adequate, both as to amount and quality, to ensure that there is no significant risk that its liabilities cannot be met as they fall due.(2) For the purpose of (1):(a) a firm may not include liquidity resources that can be made available by other members of its group;(b) an incoming EEA firm or a third country BIPRU firm may not, in relation to its UK branch, include liquidity resources other than those which
The starting point, therefore, is that each firm, or where relevant its UK branch, must be self-sufficient in terms of its own liquidity adequacy. The appropriate regulator does, however, recognise that there are circumstances in which it may be appropriate for a firm or branch to rely on liquidity support provided by other entities in its group or from elsewhere within the firm. A firm wishing to rely on support of this kind, whether for itself or for its UK branch, may only
The exclusions outlined in (1) to (7) were available to intermediaries (and in some cases insurance undertakings) acting in connection with life policies before 14 January 2005. In essence, however, the following exclusions do not apply if they concern transactions relating to contracts of insurance:(1) dealing in investments as agent with or through authorised persons (article 22 of the Regulated Activities Order (Deals with or through authorised persons));(2) arranging transactions
(1) The removal of the exclusion for groups and joint enterprises in article 69 of the Regulated Activities Order (Groups and joint enterprises) may have implications for a company providing services for:(a) other members of its group; or(b) other participants in a joint enterprise of which it is a participant.(2) Such companies might typically provide risk or treasury management or administration services which may include regulated activities relating to a contract of insurance.
(1) 2There are two types of travel risks covered by PERG 5.11.13G (4)(b). The first type covers damage to, or loss of, baggage and other risks linked to the travel booked with the provider where that travel relates to attendance at an event organised or managed by that provider and the party seeking insurance is not an individual (acting in his private capacity) or a small business.(2) "Small business" means a sole trader, body corporate, partnership or unincorporated association
If the firm or its group is subject to lead supervision arrangements by the FCA4 the firm or group may give or address a notice under SUP 15.7.4 R(1) to the supervisory contact at the FCA4 designated as lead supervisor, if the firm has chosen to make use of the lead supervisor as a central point of contact (see SUP 1.5).7777
If a firm is a member of a group which includes more than one firm, any one undertaking in the group may notify the FCA4 on behalf of all firms in the group to which the notification applies. In this way, that undertaking may satisfy the obligation of all relevant firms in the group to notify the FCA.4 Nevertheless, the obligation to make the notification remains the responsibility of the individual firm itself. See also SUP 15.7.3 G.7777
4The FCA must consult the PRA before publishing or deciding not to publish a waiver which relates to:(1) a PRA-authorised person; or(2) an authorised person who has as a member of its immediate group a PRA-authorised person;unless the waiver relates to rules made by the FCA under sections 247 or 248 of the Act.
When considering whether it is satisfied under section 138B(2)4, the appropriate regulator4 is required by section 138B(3)4 of the Act:444(1) to take into account whether the waiver relates to a rule contravention of which is actionable under section 138D4 of the Act (Actions for damages); Schedule 5 identifies such rules;4(2) to consider whether its publication would prejudice, to an unreasonable degree, the commercial interests of the firm concerned, or any other member of its
The scale, nature and complexity of the firm's business may be such that a firm apportions, under SUP 10A.9.1R (1), a significant responsibility to an individual who is not approved to perform the FCA governing functions, FCA required functions or, where appropriate, the systems and controls function or the equivalent PRA controlled functions. If so, the firm should consider whether the functions of that individual fall within the significant management function. For the purposes
Generally, in relation to a branch of a firm, or a firm which is part of an overseas group, where an overseas manager is responsible for strategy, he will not need to be approved for the significant management function. However, where he is responsible for implementing that strategy in the United Kingdom, and has not delegated that responsibility to a senior manager in the United Kingdom, he is likely to be performing that FCA controlled function.
(1) If an application is made for the admission of a class of shares, a sufficient number of shares of that class must, no later than the time of admission, be distributed to the public in one or more EEA States.(2) For the purposes of paragraph (1), account may also be taken of holders in one or more states that are not EEA States, if the shares are listed in the state or states.(3) For the purposes of paragraph (1), a sufficient number of shares will be taken to have been distributed
5When calculating the number of shares for the purposes of LR 14.2.2R (4)(a)(v), holdings of investment managers in the same group where investment decisions are made independently by the individual in control of the relevant fund and those decisions are unfettered by the group to which the investment manager belongs will be disregarded.
- (1)
A management responsibilities map for a branch maintained by a third-country relevant authorised person must include the matters listed in SYSC 4.5.7R, subject to the modifications in (2).
- (2)
Unless the context requires otherwise, the following terms in SYSC 4.5.7R are modified as follows:
Reference in SYSC 4.5.7R
Modification
treated as a reference to the branch
governing body, management body, senior management and senior personnel
(a) treated as a reference to the branch’sgoverning body, management body, senior management or senior personnel;
(b) the Glossary definitions of these terms are adjusted so as to refer to the branch rather than the firm as a whole
treated as including the rest of the firm
treated as a reference to PRA-prescribed UK branch senior management responsibilities
functions allocated under SYSC 4.7.8R (Allocation of overall responsibility for a firm’s activities, business areas and management functions)
treated as a reference to functions allocated under SYSC 4.8.10R (Local responsibility for a branch’s activities, business areas and management functions)
A management responsibilities map for a branch maintained by an EEA relevant authorised person must include: (1) (a) the names of all the branch’s:(i) approved persons;(ii) members of its governing body and (if different) management body who are not approved persons; (iii) senior management; and(iv) senior personnel; and(b) details of the responsibilities which they hold;(2) all responsibilities described in any current statement of responsibilities; (3) matters reserved to the
(1) The guidance in this paragraph applies to EEA relevant authorised persons and third-country relevant authorised persons.(2) The FCA expects that the management responsibilities map of a small and non-complex branch is likely to be simple and short. It may be no more than a single sheet of paper.(3) A branch is likely to be small and non-complex if it:(a) conducts a limited number of simple business lines; and(b) does not rely on group governance arrangements or on governance
The governance arrangements that apply to the governing body, the senior management and any designated committee of a firm in relation to the IRB approach also apply to the body or persons with equivalent powers with respect to the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group. Where the parent undertaking and its subsidiary undertakings use rating systems on a unified basis, the approval and reporting process described in BIPRU 4.3.12 G (Approval and reporting arrangements for