Related provisions for DISP 1.2.4
321 - 340 of 369 items.
In the absence of evidence to the contrary, the firm should presume that the complainant would not have bought the payment protection contract he bought if the sale was substantially flawed, for example where the firm:(1) pressured the complainant into purchasing the payment protection contract; or(2) did not disclose to the complainant, in good time before the sale was concluded, and in a way that was fair, clear and not misleading, that the policy was optional; or(3) made the
In assessing the threshold conditions set out in paragraphs 2C and 3B of Schedule 6 to the Act6, factors which the FCA6 will take into consideration include, among other things, whether: 6(1) it is likely that the FCA6 will receive adequate information from the firm, and those persons with whom the firm has close links, to enable it to determine whether the firm is complying with the requirements and standards under the regulatory system for which the FCA is responsible6 and to
1Where a transferable security, which has been admitted to trading on a regulated market, is also traded on an MTF without the consent of the issuer, the firm operating the MTF must not make the issuer subject to any obligation relating to initial, ongoing or ad hoc financial disclosure with regard to that MTF.[Note: Article 14(6) of MiFID]
1Under Part III RIPA the FCA is able to require a person who holds “protected” electronic information (that is, information which is encrypted) to put that information into an intelligible form and, where the person has a key to the encrypted information, to require the person to disclose the key so that the data may be put into an intelligible form. The FCA may impose such a requirement where it is necessary for the purpose of preventing or detecting crime or where it is necessary
(1) The rules in (2) do not apply to a firm with respect to a regulated mortgage activity or a home purchase activity2 exclusively concerning a distance contract if the following conditions are satisfied:2(a) the firm carries on the activity from an establishment maintained by the firm in an EEA State other than the United Kingdom; and(b) either the EEA State:(i) has implemented the Distance Marketing Directive3; or3(ii) has obligations in its domestic law corresponding to those
16Any arrangements made under SYSC 4.1.8A R must be notified to lenders under P2P agreements:(1) when such arrangements are made; or(2) if later, when the lender first becomes a lender under a P2P agreement with that operator; or(3) if the arrangements are changed, when that change is made; and(4) if the arrangement involves another firm taking over the management and administration of P2P agreements if the operator ceases to operate the electronic system in relation to lending,
Section 351A (Disclosure under the UCITS directive) of the Act provides that where a trustee of an AUT or the depositary of an ACS1 which is a master UCITS or a feeder UCITS, or any person acting on their behalf, makes a disclosure to comply with rules implementing Chapter VIII of the UCITS Directive, that disclosure is not to be taken as a contravention of any duty to which the person making the disclosure is subject. The OEIC Regulations (see regulation 83A) contain corresponding
A consumer's notice to cancel a distance contract may also operate to cancel any attached contract which is also a distance financial services contract. This is unless the consumer gives notice that cancellation of the contract is not to operate to cancel the attached contract. (See the Distance Marketing Regulations.) Where relevant, this should be disclosed to the consumer along with other information on cancellation.
When a consumer cancels a distance contract under this chapter, his notice may also operate to cancel any attached contract which is also a distance financial services contract unless the consumer gives notice that cancellation of the main contract is not to operate to cancel the attached contract (see regulation 12 of the Distance Marketing Regulations). Where relevant, this should be disclosed to the consumer along with other information on cancellation.
10A UK firm seeking to provide collective portfolio management services in another EEA State under the freedom to provide cross border services, is advised that it will need to refer to the rules of the competent authority of the UCITS Home State implementing article 20 of the UCITS Directive which will require it to submit to that competent authority information relating to its depositary agreement and certain delegation arrangements.
To comply with the requirements of COBS 21.2.4A R, a firm should:(1) disclose to policyholders the implications of any credit-risk exposure they may face in relation to the solvency of the reinsurer; and(2) suitably monitor the way the reinsurer manages the business in order to discharge its continuing responsibilities to policyholders.
The list of eligible ECAIs is published on the appropriate regulator website. When the appropriate regulator recognises an ECAI as an eligible ECAI, it publishes that decision by amending the list of eligible ECAIs on the appropriate regulator website to include the name of the eligible ECAI. When the appropriate regulator determines that the recognition of an ECAI should be revoked, it publishes that decision by deleting the name of the ECAI from the list on the appropriate regulator
In the main BIPRU only applies to a collective portfolio management investment firm7 in respect of designated investment business (excluding managing an AIF and managing a UCITS).7 However BIPRU 2.2 (Internal capital adequacy standards), BIPRU 2.3 (Interest rate risk in the non-trading book), BIPRU 8 (Group risk - consolidation) and BIPRU 11 (Disclosure) apply to the whole of its business.77
A firm must take reasonable steps, where it has agreed to accept sales leads from a lead generator for debt counselling or debt adjusting or providing credit information services, to ensure that the lead generator: (1) where it does not have a Part 4A permission for debt counselling and is not an appointed representative of a firm with such permission, does not carry on debt counselling in obtaining or passing on sales leads to the firm;(2) where it carries on debt counselling,
It is not possible to prescribe
how the reasonable investor test will apply in all possible situations. Any
assessment may need to1 take into consideration the anticipated impact of the information
in light of the totality of the issuer's activities,
the reliability of the source of the information and other market variables
likely to affect the relevant financial instrument in
the given circumstances. However, information which is likely to be considered
relevant to a reasonable