Related provisions for IFPRU 2.2.44

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COLL 6.9.9RRP
A UCITS management company must not engage in any activities other than:(1) [deleted]7(1A) managing a UCITS;7(1B) managing an AIF;7(1C) acting as a residual CIS operator;7(2) activities for the purposes of or in connection with those in (1A), (1B) or (1C);77(3) collective portfolio management, including without limitation:(a) investment management;(b) administration:(i) legal and fund management accounting services;(ii) customer enquiries;(iii) valuation and pricing (including
MAR 8.2.10RRP
A benchmark submitter must:(1) keep for at least five years: (a) records of its benchmark submissions, as well as all information used to enable it to make a benchmark submission; and(b) reports on the key sensitivities the benchmark submitter may have regarding the specified benchmark it is submitting to, including (but not limited to) the benchmark submitter's exposure to instruments which may be affected by changes in the specified benchmark;(2) provide to the relevant benchmark
SYSC 6.3.7GRP
A firm should ensure that the systems and controls include:1(1) appropriate training for its employees in relation to money laundering;(2) appropriate provision of information to its governing body and senior management, including a report at least annually by that firm'smoney laundering reporting officer (MLRO) on the operation and effectiveness of those systems and controls;(3) appropriate documentation of its risk management policies and risk profile in relation to money laundering,
DEPP 4.1.12GRP
The secretariat to the senior staff committee will record and document all disclosures of potential conflicts of interest and the steps taken to manage them.
COBS 19.2.3RRP
When a firm promotes a personal pension scheme, including a group personal pension scheme, to a group of employees it must:(1) be satisfied on reasonable grounds that the scheme is likely to be at least as suitable for the majority of the employees as a stakeholder pension scheme; and(2) record why it thinks the promotion is justified.
REC 2.1.4GRP

Location of recognition requirements and guidance

Recognition Requirements Regulations

Subject

Section in REC 2

Regulation 6

Method of satisfying recognition requirements

2.2

Part I of the Schedule

UK RIE recognition requirements

Paragraph 1

Financial resources

2.3

Paragraph 2

Suitability

2.4

Paragraph 3

Systems and controls

2.5

Paragraphs 4(1) and 4(2)(aa)2

2

General safeguards for investors

2.6

Paragraph 4(2)(a)

Access to facilities

2.7

Paragraph 4(2)(b)

Proper markets

2.12

Paragraph 4(2)(c)

Availability of relevant information

2.12

Paragraph 4(2)(d)

Settlement

2.8

Paragraph 4(2)(e)

Transaction recording

2.9

2Paragraph 4(2)(ea)

Conflicts

2.5

Paragraph 4(2)(f)

Financial crime and market abuse

2.10

Paragraph 4(2)(g)

Custody

2.11

Paragraph 4(3)

Definition of relevant information

2.12

2Paragraph 4A

Provision of pre-trade information about share trading

2.6

2Paragraph 4B

Provision of post-trade information about share trading

2.6

Paragraph 6

Promotion and maintenance of standards

2.13

Paragraph 7

Rules and consultation

2.14

2Paragraph 7A

Admission of financial instruments to trading

2.12

2Paragraph 7B and 7C

Access to facilities

2.7

2Paragraph 7D

Settlement

2.8

2Paragraph 7E

Suspension and removal of financial instruments from trading

2.6

Paragraph 8

Discipline

2.15

Paragraph 9

Complaints

2.16

2Paragraph 9A

Operation of a multilateral trading facility

2.16A

Part II of the Schedule

UK RIE default rules in respect of market contracts

2.174
COBS 16.3.11RRP
A firm must make, and retain, a copy of any periodic statement:(1) for MiFID or equivalent third country business, for a period of at least five years; or(2) for business that is not MiFID or, for a period of at least three years;from the date of despatch. [Note: see article 51(3) of the MiFID implementing Directive]
CASS 8.1.4GRP
The mandate rules require3firms to3 establish and maintain records and internal controls to prevent the misuse of a mandate.333
CONC 5A.4.9GRP
For the purposes of this chapter, where a lender allows a borrower to make a number of drawdowns of credit (which may be expressed to be possible up to a specified amount of credit) but only with the lender's consent to each respective drawdown, each drawdown is a separate agreement for high-cost short-term credit and, where applicable, each agreement needs to be documented as a separate regulated credit agreement in accordance with the CCA and with the rest of CONC. This chapter
COBS 9.2.9RRP
(1) When recommending a small friendly societylife policy, a firm, for the purpose of assessing suitability, need only obtain details of the net income and expenditure of the client and his dependants.(2) A friendly societylife policy is small if the premium:(a) does not exceed £50 a year; or(b) if payable weekly, £1 a week.(3) The firm must keep for five years a record of the reasons why the recommendation is considered suitable.
SYSC 7.1.12GRP
The documentation maintained by a BIPRUfirm under SYSC 4.1.3 R should include its policy for credit risk, including its risk appetite and provisioning policy and should describe how it measures, monitors and controls that risk. This should include descriptions of the systems used to ensure that the policy is correctly implemented.
TC App 5.1.1GRP

1Introduction

1.

TC Appendix 4E contains a list of appropriate qualifications for the purposes of TC 2.1.10 E.

2.

This Appendix sets out:

(1)

the criteria which the FCA may take into account when assessing a qualification provider; and

(2)

the information the FCA will expect the qualification provider to provide if it asks the FCA to add a qualification to the list of appropriate qualifications in TC Appendix 4 E.

Criteria for assessing a qualification provider

3.

The FCA will expect the qualification provider of an appropriate qualification to have, in the FCA's opinion:

(1)

assessors and qualification developers who are trained and qualified;

(2)

valid, reliable and robust assessment methods;

(3)

robust governance and a clear separation of function between its qualification services and any other services it performs, including effective procedures for managing any conflicts of interest;

(4)

procedures for reviewing and refreshing its syllabus and question banks to ensure that they are relevant and up to date;

(5)

robust and credible procedures for assessing a candidate's demonstration of the learning outcomes specified in the relevant examination standards;

(6)

robust arrangements for contingency and business continuity planning in relation to its qualification services;

(7)

appropriate records management procedures in relation to its qualification services;

(8)

procedures for dealing with inappropriate conduct by candidates, for example, attempting to obtain or obtaining qualifications dishonestly;

(9)

robust procedures for the setting of assessments and marking of results; and

(10)

adequate resources in order to be financially viable.

Information about the qualification to be provided to the FCA

4.

If a qualification provider asks the FCA to add a qualification to the list of appropriate qualifications in TC Appendix 4 E, the FCA will expect the qualification provider to:

(1)

where relevant, specify the qualifications framework within which the qualification is placed;

(2)

specify the activity in TC Appendix 1 to which the qualification relates;

(3)

set out the recommended prior knowledge, attainment or experience for candidates;

(4)

where relevant, set out the exemption policy for a candidate's prior learning or achievement;

(5)

provide the relevant learning materials to the FCA together with an explanation of how those learning materials correspond to the content of the most recent examination standards. Any content of the examination standards which has been excluded from the learning materials must be justified;

(6)

where applicable, explain how grading is applied;

(7)

where applicable, explain the provider's rules of combination;

(8)

provide details of expected learning hours or any other similar arrangements;

(9)

where applicable, specify the level of the overall qualification with reference to the relevant qualification framework or, if there is no relevant qualification framework, the European Qualifications Framework and the percentage of the qualification at that level, as well as the percentages and the levels for the remainder of the qualification;

(10)

provide details of any credit for prior learning included in the qualification together with an explanation of how it meets the most recent examination standards; and

(11)

provide an explanation of how the qualification compares in quality and standard to other similar qualifications.

Information about the qualification provider to be provided to the FCA

5.

When considering whether to include or retain a qualification in the list of appropriate qualifications, the FCA may consider, where relevant:

(1)

whether the qualification provider has in place suitable arrangements for:

(a)

meeting its statutory duties in relation to equality and diversity; and

(b)

reducing barriers to learning, for example, for candidates with learning difficulties;

(2)

any concerns, issues or investigations which have been raised by the qualification provider's qualifications regulator;

(3)

the annual pass rates of each of the relevant qualifications;

(4)

the quality of the service the qualification provider provides to candidates in relation to qualifications and its complaints procedures;

(5)

how the qualification provider maintains its qualifications to ensure they remain comparable to other qualifications in the same sector; and

(6)

whether the qualification provider gives candidates reasonable notice of any syllabus change, change in method of assessment or pass standards;

(7)

information supporting the criteria in TC Appendix 5G paragraph 3.
CONC 11.1.9RRP
The firm must make adequate records concerning the exercise of a right to cancel and retain them for at least three years.
LR 8.7.4GRP
The FCA will give reasonable notice to a sponsor of requests for meetings or requests for access to a sponsor's documents and records.
MCOB 8.5A.19RRP
(1) A firm must make and retain a record: (a) of the customer information, including that relating to the customer's needs and circumstances and the customer's apparent satisfaction of the equity release provider's known eligibility criteria, that it has obtained for the purposes of MCOB 8.5A; (b) that explains why the firm has concluded that any advice given to a customer complies with MCOB 8.5A.2 R and satisfies the suitability requirement in MCOB 8.5A.5R (1); (c) of any advice
COLL 11.3.13RRP
The authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme that operates, or intends to operate, as a master UCITS must:(1) not enter into a master-feeder agreement or, where applicable, internal conduct of business rules in accordance with COLL 11.3.2R (2) unless it is satisfied on reasonable grounds that the arrangements with the feeder UCITS will not unfairly prejudice the interests of any other unitholder or class of unitholders in the master UCITS;(2) consider, in relation to:(a) each
DEPP 3.2.6GRP
The RDC Office will record and document all disclosures of potential conflicts of interest and the steps taken to manage them.
PERG 8.17.16GRP
In the FCA's view, the information condition in PERG 8.17.12G (2)(b)(iii) requires the introducer to indicate to the borrower any other advantages accruing to him as a result of ongoing arrangements with N relating to the introduction of borrowers. This may include, for example, indirect benefits such as office space, travel expenses, subscription fees. This and other relevant information may, where appropriate, be provided on a standard form basis to the borrower. The FCA would
REC 2.15.4GRP
In assessing whether the procedures made by a UK recognised body to investigate complaints about the users of its facilities are satisfactory, the FCA3 may have regard to: 3(1) whether these procedures include arrangements which enable the UK recognised body to:(a) acknowledge complaints promptly;(b) consider and investigate these complaints objectively, promptly and thoroughly; (c) provide a timely reply to the complainant; and(d) keep adequate records of complaints and investigations;(2)