Related provisions for INSPRU 3.1.59

PR App 1.1.129/07/2016

1Note: The following definitions relevant to the prospectus rules are extracted from the Glossary.

Act	the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000.
admission to trading	admission to trading on a regulated market.
advertisement	(as defined in the PD Regulation) announcements:
	(1)	relating to a specific offer to the public of securities or to an admission to trading on a regulated market; and
	(2)	aiming to specifically promote the potential subscription or acquisition of securities.4
applicant	an applicant for approval of a prospectus or supplementary prospectus relating to transferable securities.
asset backed security	(as defined in the PD Regulation) securities which:
	(1)	represent an interest in assets, including any rights intended to assure servicing, or the receipt or timeliness of receipts by holders of assets of amounts payable thereunder; or
	(2)	are secured by assets and the terms of which provide for payments which relate to payments or reasonable projections of payments calculated by reference to identified or identifiable assets.
base prospectus	a base prospectus referred to in PR 2.2.7 R.
body corporate	(in accordance with section 417(1) of the Act (Definitions) any body corporate, including a body corporate constituted under the law of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom;
building block	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a list of additional information requirements, not included in one of the schedules, to be added to one or more schedules, as the case may be, depending on the type of instrument and/or transaction for which a prospectus or base prospectus is drawn up.4
collective investment undertaking other than the closed-end type	(in PR) (as defined in Article 2.1(o) of the prospectus directive) unit trusts and investment companies:
	(1)	the object of which is the collective investment of capital provided by the public, and which operate on the principle of risk-spreading;
	(2)	the units of which are, at the holder's request, repurchased or redeemed, directly or indirectly, out of the assets of these undertakings.4
4 company	any body corporate.
Consolidated Admissions and Reporting Directive	Directive 2001/34/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council on the admission of securities to official stock exchange listing and on information to be published on those securities.
credit institution	as defined in article 4(1)(1) of the 7 EU CRR.7 7 7
director	(in accordance with section 417(1)(a) of the Act) a person occupying in relation to it the position of a director (by whatever name called) and, in relation to an issuer which is not a body corporate, a person with corresponding powers and duties.
EEA State	(in accordance with paragraph 8 of Schedule 3 to the Act (EEA Passport Rights)) a State which is a contracting party to the agreement on the European Economic Area signed at Oporto on 2 May 1992, as it has effect for the time being; as at 1 May 2004, the following are the EEA States: Austria, Belgium, Cyprus, the Czech Republic, Denmark, Estonia, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Hungary, Iceland, Ireland, Italy, Latvia, Liechtenstein, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Malta, the Netherlands, Norway, Poland, Portugal, the Slovak Republic, Slovenia, Spain, Sweden and the United Kingdom.
equity security	(as defined in Article 2.1(b) of the prospectus directive) shares and other transferable securities equivalent to shares in companies, as well as any other type of transferable securities giving the right to acquire any of the aforementioned securities as a consequence of their being converted or the rights conferred by them being exercised, provided that securities of the latter type are issued by the issuer of the underlying shares or by an entity belonging to the group of the said issuer.
equity share	shares comprised in a company's equity share capital.
equity share capital	(for a company), its issued share capital excluding any part of that capital which, neither as respects dividends nor as respects capital, carries any right to participate beyond a specified amount in a distribution.
ESMA Prospectus Opinions 10 8	the following opinions published by ESMA:10
	(1)	Format of the base prospectus and consistent application of article 26(4) of the Prospectus Regulation (ESMA/2013/1944);10
	(2)	Framework for the assessment of third country prospectuses under article 20 of the Prospectus Directive (ESMA/2013/317);10
	(3)	Assessment of Israeli laws and regulations on prospectuses (ESMA/2015/1015); and10
	(4)	Assessment of Turkish laws and regulations on prospectuses (ESMA/2016/268). 10
8ESMA Prospectus Questions and Answers	the Questions and Answers for prospectuses published by ESMA (ESMA/2016/576)10.
ESMA Prospectus Recommendations8 8	the ESMA update of the CESR8recommendations: The consistent implementation of Commission Regulation (EC) No 809/2004 implementing the Prospectus Directive (ESMA/2013/319).8 8
executive procedures	the procedures relating to the giving of warning notices, decision notices and supervisory notices that are described in DEPP 4 (Decision by FCA staff under executive procedures)2. 2 2
FCA	the Financial Conduct Authority.
guarantee	(as defined in the PD Regulation) any arrangement intended to ensure that any obligation material to the issue will be duly serviced, whether in the form of guarantee, surety, keep well agreement, mono-line insurance policy or other equivalent commitment.
guarantor	a person that provides a guarantee.
Home State or Home Member State	(as defined in section 102C of the Act) in relation to an issuer of transferable securities, the EEA State which is the "home Member State" for the purposes of the prospectus directive (which is to be determined in accordance with Article 2.1(m) of that directive).
Host State or Host Member State	(as defined in Article 2.1(n) of the prospectus directive) the EEA State where an offer to the public is made or admission to trading is sought, when different from the home State.
issuer	(as defined in section 102A of the Act) a legal person who issues or proposes to issue the transferable securities in question.4
4 key information	(in PR) (as defined in section 87A(9) and (10) of the Act) the information which is essential to enable investors to understand the transferable securities to which the prospectus relates and decide whether to consider the offer further. The key information must include:
	(a)	the essential characteristics of, and risks associated with, the issuer and any guarantor, including their assets, liabilities and financial positions;
	(b)	the essential characteristics of, and risks associated with, investment in the transferable securities, including any rights attaching to the securities;
	(c)	the general terms of the offer, including an estimate of the expenses charged to an investor by the issuer and the offeror, if not the issuer;
	(d)	details of the admission to trading; and
	(e)	the reasons for the offer and proposed use of the proceeds.
5 limited liability partnership	(a)	a body corporate incorporated under the Limited Liability Partnerships Act 2000;
	(b)	a body corporate incorporated under legislation having the equivalent effect to the Limited Liability Partnerships Act 2000.
MiFID 3	The European Parliament and Council Directive on markets in financial instruments (No. 2004/39/EC). See also MiFID Regulation and MiFID implementing Directive.3
non-equity transferable securities	(as defined in section 102A of the Act) all transferable securities that are not equity securities.
	Note: In the prospectus directive and the PD Regulation, the Commission uses the term "non-equity securities" rather than "non-equity transferable securities".
offer	an offer of transferable securities to the public.
offer of transferable securities to the public	(as defined in section 102B of the Act), in summary:
	(a)	a communication to any person which presents sufficient information on: (i) the transferable securities to be offered, and (ii) the terms on which they are offered, to enable an investor to decide to buy or subscribe for the securities in question;
	(b)	which is made in any form or by any means;
	(c)	including the placing of securities through a financial intermediary;
	(d)	but not including a communication in connection with trading on: (i) a regulated market; (ii) a multilateral trading facility; or (iii) any market prescribed by an order under section 130A of the Act.
	Note: This is only a summary, to see the full text of the definition, readers should consult section 102B of the Act.
offering programme	(as defined in Article 2.1(k) of the prospectus directive) a plan which would permit the issuance of non-equity securities, including warrants in any form, having a similar type and/or class, in a continuous or repeated manner during a specified issuing period.
offeror	a person who makes an offer of transferable securities to the public.
5 officer	(in relation to a body corporate) (as defined in section 400(5) of the Act (Offences by bodies corporate etc)) a director, member of the committee of management, chief executive, manager, secretary, or other similar officer of the body, or a person purporting to act in that capacity or a controller of the body.
overseas company	a company incorporated outside the United Kingdom.
Part 6 rules	(in accordance with section 73A(1) of the Act), rules made for the purposes of Part 6 of the Act.
5partnership	(in accordance with section 417(1) of the Act (Definitions)) any partnership, including a partnership constituted under the law of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom, but not including a limited liability partnership.
PD	prospectus directive.
PD Regulation	Regulation number 809/2004 of the European Commission.
person	(in accordance with the Interpretation Act 1978) any person, including a body of persons corporate or unincorporated that is, a natural person, a legal person and, for example, a partnership).
PR	the Prospectus Rules sourcebook.
profit estimate	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a profit forecast for a financial period which has expired and for which results have not yet been published.
profit forecast	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a form of words which expressly states or by implication indicates a figure or a minimum or maximum figure for the likely level of profits or losses for the current financial period and/or financial periods subsequent to that period, or contains data from which a calculation of such a figure for future profits or losses may be made, even if no particular figure is mentioned and the word "profit" is not used.
property collective investment undertaking	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a collective investment undertaking whose investment objective is the participation in the holding of property in the long term.
prospectus	a prospectus required under the prospectus directive.
prospectus directive	the Directive of the European Parliament and of the Council of 4 November 2003 on the prospectus to be published when securities are offered to the public or admitted to trading (No 2003/71/EC).
Prospectus RTS Regulations 9 8	9(1)	9Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) No 382/2014 supplementing Directive 2003/71/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council with regard to regulatory technical standards for publication of supplements to the prospectus9; and
	9(2)	9Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2016/301 supplementing Directive 2003/71/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council with regard to regulatory technical standards for approval and publication of the prospectus and dissemination of advertisements and amending Commission Regulation (EC) No 809/2004.
Prospectus Rules	(as defined in section 73A(4) of the Act) rules expressed to relate to transferable securities.
Public international body	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a legal entity of public nature established by an international treaty between sovereign States and of which one or more Member States are members.
qualified investor	(as defined in section 86(7) of the Act) in relation to an offer of transferable securities:4
	(a)	a person or entity described in points (1) to (4) of Section I of Annex II to MiFID, other than a person who, before the making of the offer, has agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with MiFID; or4 4
	(b)	a person who has made a request to one or more relevant firms to be treated as a professional client in accordance with Section II of Annex II to MiFID and has not subsequently, but before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II of MiFID; or4 4
	(c)	a person who is recognised as an eligible counterparty in accordance with article 24 of MiFID and has not, before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II of MiFID; or4 4
	(d)	a person whom any relevant firm is authorised to continue to treat as a professional client in accordance with article 71(6) of MiFID.4
registration document	a registration document referred to in PR 2.2.2 R.
regulated information	(as defined in the PD Regulation) all information which the issuer, or any person who has applied for the admission of securities to trading on a regulated market without the issuer’s consent, is required to disclose under Directive 2001/34/EC or under Article 6 of Directive 2003/6/EC.3
regulated market	a multilateral system operated and/or managed by a market operator, which brings together or facilitates the bringing together of multiple third-party buying and selling interests in financial instruments in the system and in accordance with its non-discretionary rules in a way that results in a contract, in respect of the financial instruments admitted to trading under its rules and/or systems, and which is authorised and functions regularly and in accordance with the provisions of Title III of MiFID.3
RIS	Regulatory Information Service.
risk factors	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a list of risks which are specific to the situation of the issuer and/or the securities and which are material for taking investment decisions.
rule	(in accordance with section 417(1) of the Act (Definitions)) a rule made by the FCA under the Act.
schedule	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a list of minimum information requirements adapted to the particular nature of the different types of issuers and/or the different securities involved.
securities issued in a continuous and repeated manner	(as defined in Article 2.1(l) of the prospectus directive) issues on tap or at least two separate issues of securities of a similar type and/or class over a period of 12 months.
securities note	a securities note referred to in PR 2.2.2 R.
small and medium-sized enterprise	(as defined in Article 2.1(f) of the prospectus directive) companies, which, according to their last annual or consolidated accounts, meet at least two of the following three criteria: an average number of employees during the financial year of less than 250, a total balance sheet not exceeding €43,000,000 and an annual net turnover not exceeding €50,000,000.
special purpose vehicle	(as defined in the PD Regulation) an issuer whose objects and purposes are primarily the issue of securities.
statutory notice associated decision	a decision which is made by the FCA and which is associated with a decision to give a statutory notice, including a decision:
statutory notice decision	a decision by the FCA on whether or not to give a statutory notice.
	(a)	to determine or extend the period for making representations;
	(b)	to determine whether a copy of the statutory notice needs to be given to any third party and the period for him to make representations;
	(c)	to refuse access to FCA material;
	(d)	as to the information which it is appropriate to publish about the matter to which a final notice or an effective supervisory notice relates.
summary	(in relation to a prospectus) the summary included in the prospectus.
supplementary prospectus	a supplementary prospectus containing details of a new factor, mistake or inaccuracy.
transferable security	(as defined in section 102A of the Act) anything which is a transferable security for the purposes of MiFID 3, other than money-market instruments for the purposes of that directive which have a maturity of less than 12 months. 3
	Note: In the prospectus directive and PD regulation, the Commission uses the term "security" rather than "transferable security".
umbrella collective investment scheme	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a collective investment undertaking invested in one or more collective investment undertakings, the asset of which is composed of separate class(es) or designation(s) of securities.
United Kingdom	England and Wales, Scotland and Northern Ireland (but not the Channel Islands or the Isle of Man).
units of a collective investment scheme	(as defined in Article 2.1(p) of the prospectus directive) securities issued by a collective investment undertaking as representing the rights of the participants in such an undertaking over its assets.
working day	(as defined in section 103 of the Act) any day other than a Saturday, a Sunday, Christmas Day, Good Friday or a day which is a bank holiday under the Banking and Financial Dealings Act 1971 in any part of the United Kingdom.

BIPRU 9.11.10R31/12/2010

When the conditions in this paragraph have been met, and in order to determine its exposure value, a conversion figure of 50% may be applied to the nominal amount of a liquidity facility. The risk weight to be applied is the highest risk weight that would be applied to any of the securitised exposures under the standardised approach by a firm holding the exposures. Those conditions are as follows:11(1) the liquidity facility documentation must clearly identify and limit the circumstances

PERG 9.3.3G01/07/2005

An open-ended investment company may be described, in general terms, as a body corporate, most or all of the shares in, or securities of, which can be realised within a reasonable period. Realisation will typically involve the redemption or repurchase of shares in, or securities of, the body corporate. This realisation must be on the basis of the value of the property that the body corporate holds (that is, the net asset value).

BIPRU 5.7.3R01/01/2007

Where a firm buys credit protection through a total return swap and records the net payments received on the swap as net income, but does not record offsetting deterioration in the value of the asset that is protected (either through reductions in fair value or by an addition to reserves), the credit protection must not be recognised as eligible.[Note: BCD Annex VIII Part 1 point 31]

DTR 2.2.6G03/07/2016

It is not possible to prescribe how the reasonable investor test will apply in all possible situations. Any assessment may need to1 take into consideration the anticipated impact of the information in light of the totality of the issuer's activities, the reliability of the source of the information and other market variables likely to affect the relevant financial instrument in the given circumstances. However, information which is likely to be considered relevant to a reasonable

APER 4.1.10G07/03/2016

3Deliberately misusing the assets or confidential information of a client or of their firm falls within APER 4.1.2 G.

COLL 3.2.6R01/10/2016

This table belongs to COLL 3.2.4 R (Matters which must be included in the instrument constituting the fund14)

14

	Name of scheme
1	A statement of:
	(1)	the name of the authorised fund; and
	(2)	whether the authorised fund is a UCITS scheme or a non-UCITS retail scheme.
	Investment powers in eligible markets
2	A statement that, subject to any restriction in the rules in this sourcebook or the instrument constituting the fund 14, the scheme has the power to invest in any eligible securities market or deal on any eligible derivatives market to the extent that power to do so is conferred by COLL 5 (Investment and borrowing powers). 14
	Unitholder's liability to pay
3	A provision that a unitholder in an AUT, ICVC or co-ownership scheme 12 is not liable to make any further payment after he has paid the price of his units and that no further liability can be imposed on him in respect of the units which he holds.
3A	A provision that a unitholder in a limited partnership scheme is not liable for the debts or obligations of the limited partnership scheme beyond the amount of the scheme property which is available to the authorised contractual scheme manager to meet such debts or obligations, provided that the unitholder does not take part in the management of the partnership business.12
3B	A provision that the exercise of rights conferred on limited partners by FCA rules does not constitute taking part in the management of the partnership business.12
	Base currency
4	A statement of the base currency of the scheme.
	Valuation and pricing
5	A statement setting out the basis for the valuation and pricing of the scheme.
	Duration of the scheme
6	If the scheme is to be wound up after a particular period expires, a statement to that effect.
	Object of the scheme
7	A statement:
	(1)	as to the object of the scheme, in particular the types of investments and assets in which it and each sub-fund (where applicable) may invest; and
	(2)	that the object of the scheme is to invest in property of that kind with the aim of spreading investment risk and giving unitholders the benefits of the results of the management of that property.
27A	Where the authorised fund is a qualifying money market fund, a statement to that effect and a statement that the authorised fund's investment objectives and policies will meet the conditions specified in the definition of qualifying money market fund.
	[deleted]13 13
	Government and public securities: investment in one issuer
8	Where relevant, for a UCITS scheme, a statement in accordance with COLL 5.2.12 R (Spread: government and public securities) with the names of 15the individual states, local authorities 15or public international bodies issuing or guaranteeing the transferable securities or approved money-market instruments 15in which more than 35% in value of the scheme property may be invested15.
	Classes of unit
9	A statement:
	(1)	specifying the classes of unit that may be issued, and for a scheme which is an umbrella, the classes that may be issued in respect of each sub-fund; and
	(2)	if the rights of any class of unit differ, a statement describing those differences in relation to the differing classes.
	Authorised fund manager's charges and expenses
10	A statement setting out the basis on which the authorised fund manager may make a charge and recover expenses out of the scheme property.
	Issue or cancellation directly through the ICVC or depositary of an AUT or ACS12
11	Where relevant, a statement authorising the issue or cancellation of units to take place through the ICVC or depositary of an AUT or ACS directly.12 12
	In specie issue and cancellation
12	Where relevant, a statement authorising payment for the issue or cancellation of units to be made by the transfer of assets other than cash.
	Restrictions on sale and redemption
13	Where relevant, the restrictions which will apply in relation to the sale and redemption of units under COLL 6.2.16 R (Sale and redemption).
	Voting at meetings
14	The manner in which votes may be given at a meeting of unitholders under COLL 4.4.8 R (Voting rights).
	Certificates
15	A statement:
	(1)	for ICVCs 15, authorising the issue of bearer certificates if any, and how such holders are to identify themselves; and 12
	(2)	authorising the person responsible for the register to charge for issuing any document recording, or for amending, an entry on the register, other than on the issue or sale of units.
	Income
16	A statement setting out the basis for the distribution or re-investment of income.
	Income equalisation
17	Where relevant, a provision for income equalisation.
	Redemption or cancellation of units on breach of law or rules
18	A statement that where any holding of units by a unitholder is (or is reasonably considered by the authorised fund manager to be) an infringement of any law, governmental regulation or rule, those units must be redeemed or cancelled.
	ICVCs: larger and smaller denomination shares
19	A statement of the proportion of a larger denomination share represented by a smaller denomination share for any relevant unit class.
	ICVCs: resolution to remove a director
20	A statement that the ICVC may (without prejudice to the requirements of regulation 21 of the OEIC Regulations (The Authority's approval for certain changes in respect of a company), by a resolution passed by a simple majority of the votes validly cast for and against the resolution at a general meeting of unitholders, remove a director before his period of office expires, despite anything else in the ICVC's instrument of incorporation or in any agreement between the ICVC and that director.
	ICVCs: unit transfers
21	A statement that the person designated for the purposes of paragraph 4 of Schedule 4 to the OEIC Regulations (Share transfers) is the person who, for the time being, is the ACD of the ICVC.1 7
	ICVCs and ACSs: Charges and expenses12
22	A statement that charges or expenses of the ICVCor ACS 12 may be taken out of the scheme property.10
	10ICVCs: Umbrella schemes - principle of limited recourse
1022A	For an ICVC which is an umbrella, a statement that the assets of a sub-fund belong exclusively to that sub-fund and shall not be used to discharge directly or indirectly the liabilities of, or claims against, any other person or body, including the umbrella, or any other sub-fund, and shall not be available for any such purpose.
	Co-ownership schemes: umbrella schemes - principle of limited recourse
22B	For a co-ownership scheme which is an umbrella, a statement that the property subject to a sub-fund is beneficially owned by the participants in that sub-fund as tenants in common (or, in Scotland, is the common property of the participants in that sub-fund) and must not be used to discharge any liabilities of, or meet any claims against, any person other than the participants in that sub-fund.12
	AUTs: governing law for a trust deed
23	A statement that the trust deed is made under and governed by the law of England and Wales, Wales or Scotland or Northern Ireland.
	AUTs: trust deed to be binding and authoritative
24	A statement that the trust deed:
	(1)	is binding on each unitholder as if it had been a party to it and that it is bound by its provisions; and
	(2)	authorises and requires the trustee and the manager to do the things required or permitted of them by its terms.
	AUTs: declaration of trust
25	A declaration that, subject to the provisions of the trust deed and all rules made under section 247 of the Act (Trust scheme rules) and for the time being in force:
	(1)	the scheme property (other than sums standing to the credit of the distribution account) is held by the trustee on trust for the unitholders according to the number of units held by each unitholder or, where relevant, according to the number of undivided shares in the scheme property represented by the units held by each unitholder; and
	(2)	the sums standing to the credit of the distribution account are held by the trustee on trust to distribute or apply them in accordance with COLL 6.8 (Income: accounting, allocation and distribution).
	AUTs: trustee's remuneration
26	Where relevant, a statement authorising payments to the trustee by way of remuneration for its services to be paid (in whole or in part) out of the scheme property.
	AUTs: responsibility for the register
27	A statement identifying the person responsible under the rules for the maintenance of the register.
	ACSs: governing law for a contractual scheme deed
1227A	A statement that the contractual scheme deed is made under and governed by the law of England and Wales, or Scotland or Northern Ireland.
	ACSs: contractual scheme deed to be binding and authoritative
1227B	A statement that the contractual scheme deed:
	(1)	is binding on each unitholder as if it had been a party to it and that it is bound by its provisions; and
	(2)	authorises and requires the depositary and the authorised contractual manager to do the things required or permitted of them by its terms.
	ACSs: ownership of scheme property
1227C	A statement that, subject to the provisions of the contractual scheme deed and all rules made under section 261I of the Act (Contractual scheme rules) and for the time being in force:
	(1)	the scheme property (other than sums standing to the credit of the distribution account) is held by, or to the order of, the depositary for and on behalf of the unitholders according to the number of units held by each unitholder or, where relevant, according to the number of undivided shares in the scheme property represented by the units held by each unitholder;
	(2)	the sums standing to the credit of the distribution account are held by the depositary to distribute or apply them in accordance with COLL 6.8 (Income: accounting, allocation and distribution); and
	(3)	the scheme property of a co-ownership scheme is beneficially owned by the participants as tenants in common (or, in Scotland, is the common property of the participants).
	ACSs: responsibility for the register
1227D	A statement identifying the person responsible under the rules for the maintenance of the register.
	ACSs: UCITS and NURS eligible investors
1227E	For an ACS which is a UCITS scheme or a non-UCITS retail scheme, a statement that units may not be issued to a person other than a:
	(1)	professional ACS investor;
	(2)	large ACS investor; or
	(3)	person who already holds units in the scheme.
1227F	A statement that the authorised contractual scheme manager must redeem units as soon as practicable after becoming aware that those units are vested in anyone (whether as a result of subscription or transfer of units) other than a person meeting the criteria in paragraph 27E.
	ACSs: UCITS and NURS transfer of units
1227G	(1)	A statement whether the transfer of units in the ACS scheme is either:
		(a) prohibited; or
		(b) allowed
	(2)	Where transfer of units is allowed in accordance with (1)(b), a statement that units may only be transferred in accordance with the conditions specified by FCA rules, including that units may not be transferred to a person other than a:
		(a) professional ACS investor;
		(b) large ACS investor; or
		(c) person who already holds units in the scheme.
	(3)	For a co-ownership scheme which is an umbrella, a statement in accordance with (1)(a) or (1)(b) and, where appropriate, a statement in accordance with (2), must also be made for the sub-funds. Where individual sub-funds have differing policies in relation to transfer of units, separate statements are required.
	Co-ownership schemes: constitution
1227H	For a co-ownership scheme, a statement that the arrangements constituting the scheme are intended to constitute a co-ownership scheme as defined in section 235A(2) of the Act.
	Co-ownership schemes: operator's powers
1227I	A statement that the operator of a co-ownership scheme is authorised to:
	(1)	acquire, manage and dispose of the scheme property; and
	(2)	enter into contracts which are binding on unitholders for the purposes of, or in connection with, the acquisition, management or disposal of scheme property.
	Co-ownership schemes: winding-up
1227J	A statement that the operator and depositary of a co-ownership scheme are required to wind up the scheme if directed to do so by the FCA in exercise of its power under section 261X (Directions) or section 261Z (Winding up or merger of master UCITS) of the Act.
	Limited partnership schemes: participants
1227K	A statement that the limited partners, other than the nominated partner, are to be the participants in the scheme.
	Limited partnership schemes: resignation of limited partners
1227L	A statement that the scheme is not dissolved on any person ceasing to be a limited partner or nominated partner provided that there remains at least one limited partner.
	Limited partnership schemes: inability to operate as an umbrella
1227M	A statement that the limited partnership scheme prohibits pooling as is mentioned in section 235(3)(a) of the Act in relation to separate parts of the scheme property, with the effect that the scheme cannot be an umbrella.
	3Investment in overseas4 property through an intermediate holding vehicle
328	3If investment in an overseas4 immovable is to be made through an intermediate holding vehicle or a series of intermediate holding vehicles, a statement that the purpose of that intermediate holding vehicle or series of intermediate holding vehicles will be to enable the holding of overseas4 immovables by the scheme.

EG 13.10.201/03/2016

1Exceptionally, the FCA will consider making such a challenge using its powers in sections 356 and 357 of the Act after considering, in particular, the following matters: (1) The composition of the creditors of the company including the ratio of consumer to non-consumer creditors or the nature of their claims; (2) whether the FCA has concerns, or is aware of concerns of creditors, about the regularity of the meeting or the identification of connected or associated

CONC 5.3.1G01/04/2014

(1) In making the creditworthiness assessment or the assessment required by CONC 5.2.2R (1), a firm should take into account more than assessing the customer's ability to repay the credit. [Note: paragraph 4.2 of ILG](2) The creditworthiness assessment and the assessment required by CONC 5.2.2R (1) should include the firm taking reasonable steps to assess the customer's ability to meet repayments under a regulated credit agreement in a sustainable manner without the customer incurring

REC 2.9.3G01/04/2013

In determining whether a UK recognised body has satisfactory arrangements for recording the transactions effected on its facilities,3 or cleared or to be cleared by another person3 by means of, its facilities, the FCA3 may have regard to:3(1) whether the UK recognised body has arrangements for creating, maintaining and safeguarding an audit trail of transactions for at least three years (five years in respect of transactions carried out by members who are not incorporated in the

FEES 3.2.7R01/10/2016

Table of application, notification, vetting and other fees payable to the FCA32

31

31Part 1: Application, notification and vetting fees
31(1) Fee payer	(2) Fee payable (£)37	Due date
(a) Any applicant for Part 4A permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission) whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (ga) of this table26	(1) Unless (2),41 (3) or (4)41 applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 which apply to that application. When both (A) and (B) apply, 50% of the tariff payable under (1):34 (2) 50% of the tariff payable under (1) is payable when either (a) or (b) apply: (a) the application is one referred to in paragraph p; or (b) the application is a limited permission case under . (A) the application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 6; and34 (B) the application is:34 (i) a straightforward case under paragraph 2(d) or 3(g) of FEES 3 Annex 1; (ii) a moderately complex case under paragraph 2(e) or 3(h) of FEES 3 Annex 1; or (iii) a limited permission case under paragraph 3(i) of FEES 3 Annex 1. (3) If the applicant applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order at the same time as applying for a Part 4A permission, the fee payable is the higher of: 78 (i) the fee otherwise payable in (1) or (2); and 78 (ii) the fee payable in FEES 3 Annex 10AR. 78 (4) No fee is payable if the applicant satisfies the criteria set out in FEES 4 Annex 2BR(5)(a).41 1 78 34 34 34 34	On or before the application is made
(aa) A person who makes an application under section 24A of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 31 (Applications for a standard licence where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant application”)30	As (a) above less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant application.	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
(b) Any Treaty firm that wishes to exercise a Treaty right to qualify for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act (Treaty rights) in respect of regulated activities for which it does not have an EEA right, except for a firm providing cross border services only4	(1) Where no certificate has been issued under paragraph 3(4) of Schedule 4 to the Act the fee payable is, in respect of a particular exercise, set out in FEES 3 Annex 1, part 4 (2) Where a certificate in (i) has been issued no fee is payable	On or before the notice of exercise is given
(c) Any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order	2,000	On or before the application is made
(d) Applicants for an authorisation order for, or recognition under section 272 of the Act 27 of, a collective investment scheme	FEES 3 Annex 2R, part 227 27	On or before the application is made
(da) Applicants for the authorisation of an AIF as a UK ELTIF 36	FEES 3 Annex 2R, part 2A36	On or before the date the application is made36
(e) The management company 27 of a scheme making a notification under section 264 of the Act 27 27	FEES 3 Annex 2R, part 327 27	On or before the date the application is made28
28(ea) (i) An AIFM (other than a UK AIFM or an EEA AIFM with a branch in the UK) notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 57 of the AIFMD UK regulation (ii) An AIFM notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 58 or 59 of the AIFMD UK regulation	FEES 3 Annex 2 R, part 4	On or before the date the notification is made
28(eb) An applicant for registration on the register of small registered UK AIFM which the FCA is required to maintain under regulation 10 of the AIFMD UK regulation	£750	On or before the date the application is made
(f) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body.	10,000	30 days after the order is granted
(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body:17 (i) under section 287 of the Act; or17 (ii) under regulation 2(1) of the RAP regulations 17 76	FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1	On or before the date the application is made26
26(ga) Any applicant for: (i) a Part 4A permission to carry out the regulated activity of administering a specified benchmark; or35 administering a specified benchmark for one or more specified benchmarks or;35 (ii) varying its Part 4A permission to carry out the regulated activity of administering a specified benchmark for one or more specified benchmarks 35	FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1	On or before the date the application is made
(h) Any applicant for recognition as an ROIE 76 under section 287 or section 292 of the Act 76 76	FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2	On or before the date the application is made
(i) [deleted]35 35	35	35
(j) [deleted]38	38	38
(k) [deleted]35 35	35	35
(l) [deleted]38	38 7 2	38
(m) [deleted]38	38 7 2	38
(n) Applicants to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges	50,000	On or before the date the application is made
2(o) In relation to a BIPRU firm, either:29 (i) a firm applying to the FCA 29 for permission to use one of the advanced prudential calculation approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6 R (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches or (in the case of any application being made for such permission to the FCA 29 as EEA consolidated supervisor under the (transposing parts of the BCD and CAD, as applicable under article 95(2) of the EU CRR 29)) any firm making such an application ;5 or (ii) in the case of an application to 5a Home State regulator other than the FCA 29 5for the use of the Internal Ratings Based approach and the Home State regulator requesting the FCA's 29 assistance in accordance with the Capital Requirements Regulations 2006 (transposing parts of the BCD and CAD, as applicable under article 95(2) of the EU CRR 29), any firm to which the FCA 29 would have to apply any decision to permit the use of that approach.5 1 1 2 29 5 76 29 5 76 29 5 76 29 76 29 76 29	(1) Unless5 (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6.5 (2) (a) Unless5 (b) applies a1 firm submitting a second application for the permission or5 guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6, but only in respect of that second application (b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission5 based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.1 (c) No fee is payable where the Home State regulator has requested the assistance described in paragraph (o)(ii) of column 1 except in the cases specified in 5FEES 3 Annex 6.2 5 2 5 1 2 5 5 5 76 5 76 5	Where the firm has made an application directly to the FCA 29, on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the FCA 29 notifies the firm that its EEA parent's Home State regulator has requested assistance.2 29 2 76 29 76 29 76
29(oa) Either: (i) a firm applying to the 37 FCA for permission to use one of the internal approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6A (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches or (in the case of any application being made for such permission to the 37 FCA as consolidating supervisor under the EU CRR) any firm making such an application; or (ii) in the case of an application to the consolidating supervisor other than the 37 FCA for the use of the IRB approach and the consolidating supervisor requesting the 37 FCA's assistance in accordance with the EU CRR, any firm to which the 37 FCA would have to apply any decision to permit the use of that approach. 37 37 37 37 37	(1) Unless (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6A. (2) (a) Unless (b) applies a firm submitting a second application for the permission or guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6A, but only in respect of that second application. (b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements. (c) No fee is payable where the consolidating supervisor has requested the assistance described in paragraph (oa)(ii) of column 1. 37	Where the firm has made an application directly to the 37 FCA , on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the 37 FCA notifies the firm that its EEA parent's consolidating supervisor has requested assistance. 37 37
(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part 4A permission whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (ga) of this table26	(1) Unless (2), (2A), (3), (3A), (3B), (3C) or (3D)41 applies, if the proposed new1 business of the firm would1 fall within one or more activity groups specified in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 1AR not applicable before the application1, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37 which apply to that application. (2) Subject to (2A) below, if the firm's application includes an application for a Part 4A permission to carry on a new credit-related regulated activity, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37 that would be payable under (1) above or, if higher, 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37 that would be payable in relation to the new credit-related regulated activity 30.37 (2A) If an applicant which already has a Part 4A permission to carry on a credit-related regulated activity exclusively applies for a Part 4A permission to carry on a new credit-related regulated activity, that is specified in Part 3 of FEES 3 Annex 1R37 in the straightforward category (or if it exclusively applies for a number of such permissions), the fee is £25030.37 (3) If the firm is in the A.1 fee-block at the date of the application and the variation involves adding any of the regulated activities of meeting of repayment claims or managing dormant account funds (including the investment of such funds), the fee is 50% of the fee in FEES 3 Annex 1 R that applies to that application11 (3A) If the applicant had a limited permission prior to the application to vary its Part 4A permission, 100% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37 which apply to that application30.37 (3B) If the applicant has a limited permission and its application exclusively relates to another limited permission, the fee is 030 (3C) If the applicant applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order at the same time as it applies for a variation of its Part 4A permission, the fee is the highest of the fees set out in FEES 3 Annex 10AR and the amount otherwise payable in (1), (2), (2A), (3), (3A) or (3B), or (4).78 (3D) No fee is payable if the applicant satisfies the criteria set out in FEES 4 Annex 2BR(5)(a).41 (4) 11 In all other cases, other than applications by credit unions, the fee payable is 250 for firms which are not, or are not seeking to become, a PRA-authorised person, and 125 for firms which are, or are seeking to become, a PRA-authorised person,76 unless the variation involves only the reduction (and no other increases) in the scope of a Part 4A permission in which case no fee is payable.1 30 78 30 78 78 1 76 76 37 76 37 78 78 37 1 37 30 30 23 37 37 37 11 37	On or before the date the application is made
30(pa) A person who makes an application under section 30(1) of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 33 (Variations at request of licensee where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant variation application”)	As (a) or 31(p) above, less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant variation application.	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
2(q) [deleted]38 7 7 13 77 13 77 7 7 22 22 7	38	38 3 3 3
2(r) Providers of reporting or trade matching systems applying for recognition under MiFID as an Approved Reporting Mechanism.	100,0006 6	Having received its application, within 30 days after the FCA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.6 5 6
5(s) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme, a transferor. Note - for the purpose of this paragraph an insurance business transfer scheme consists of a single transferor and a single transferee. Where however such a scheme is part of a single larger scheme, that larger scheme is treated as a single insurance business transfer scheme. If an insurance business transfer scheme includes more than one transferor in accordance with this paragraph, the transferors are liable to pay the fee under column (2) jointly.	Either (1) or (2) as set out below: (1) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme involving long term insurance business, 9,25037; or (2) in the case of an insurance business transfer scheme not involving long term insurance business, 5,000. 75 75 37 75 75 37 75 37	On or before any application is made for the appointment of a person as an independent expert. 37
6(t) A firm, a third party acting on a firm's behalf, an operator of a regulated market or an operator of an MTF applying to the FCA to report transaction reports directly to the FCA. 20	100,000	Having received its application, within 30 days after the FCA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.
(u) [deleted]34 34	34	34
(v) [deleted]38 22 22	38	38
[deleted]35 35	35	35
(x)[deleted]38	38	38 8
8(y) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised payment institution under regulation 5 of the Payment Services Regulations	The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8 which apply to that application. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 8R	On or before the date the application is made.

(z) An application by a small payment institution for authorisation as an authorised payment institution because regulation 15 of the Payment Services Regulations applies	The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application.	On or before the date the application is made.
(za) An applicant for registration as a small payment institution under regulation 12 of the Payment Services Regulations	FEES 3 Annex 8R, paragraph (1). Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 8R.	On or before the date the application is made.
(zb) An authorised payment institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Payment Services Regulations.	(1) If the payment services carried on by the authorised payment institution prior to the variation only fall within paragraph (f) or (g) or (h) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and any of the payment services in paragraphs (a) to (e) of that Schedule will apply after variation, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application. (2) Where the authorised payment institution:(i) already has authorisation to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other services in (a) to (g); or (ii) has authorisation to provide payment services in either paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to extend its authorisation to include the other paragraph ((f) or (g)); the fee payable is 250 irrespective of the number of agents it has. (3) In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable.	On or before the date the application is made.
(zc) A small payment institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Payment Services Regulations	(1) If the payment services carried on by the small payment institution prior to the variation only fall within paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and any of the payment services in paragraphs (a) to (e) of that Schedule will apply after variation, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8Rwhich apply to that application. (2) Where the small payment institution: (i) is already registered to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other of the services in (a) to (g); or (ii) is registered to provide payment services in either paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to extend its registration to include the other paragraph ((f) or (g));the fee payable is 250 irrespective of the number of agents it has. (2) (3) In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable.	On or before the date the application is made.
A financial institution notifying the FSA FCA in accordance with regulation 121(2)(a) of the Payment Services Regulations.	50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3Annex 8R, paragraphs (2) to (5) which apply to that application.	On or before the date the application is made.
(ze) Any person to which the Special Project Fee for restructuring applies under FEES 3 Annex 9.12 12	Special Project Fee for restructuring in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 9 .	30 days of the date of the invoice.9
(zf) [deleted]76 76	76	9 16 76
16(zg) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution under regulation 5 of the Electronic Money Regulations.	The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.	On or before the date the application is made.
16(zh) An applicant for registration as a small electronic money institution under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations.	The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.	On or before the date the application is made.
16(zi) An application by a small electronic money institution for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution 14because regulation 16 of the Electronic Money Regulations applies.	The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.	On or before the date the application is made.
16(zj) An authorised electronic money institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Electronic Money Regulations.	The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.	On or before the date the application is made.
16(zk) A small electronic money institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations.	The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.	On or before the date the application is made.
15(zl) An applicant for recognition as an accredited body.	2,500	On or before the date the application is made.18
18(zm) An issuer applying for registration of a regulated covered bond.	(1) Unless (2) or (3)41 applies, 45,000. (2) In the case of a proposed covered bond or programme where the assets in the asset pool will consist primarily of UK residential mortgages, 25,000. (3) No fee is payable if the issuer satisfies the criteria set out in FEES 4 Annex 2BR(5)(b).41	On or before the date the application is made.
18(zn) An issuer who proposes to make a material change to the contractual terms of a regulated covered bond under RCB 3.5.4 D.	(1) Unless (2) applies 6,500.41 (2) No fee is payable if the issuer satisfies the criteria set out in FEES 4 Annex 2BR(5)(c).41	On or before the date the notification under RCB 3.5.4 D is made.21
21(zo) In the case of persons in respect of which the FCA has given notice of its intention to take, or appoint a competent person to take, any steps under CONRED 2.5.12R, either: (i) a Firm (as defined in CONRED 2.1.1R(1); or (ii) a person falling within CONRED 2.1.2R(1).	An amount equal to: (1) a sum determined by the number of hours, or part of an hour, taken by the FCA in relation to work conducted in taking steps under recorded on the FCA's systems, multiplied by the rate in FEES 3 Annex 9 (11)R; or (2) any amount invoiced to the FCA by a competent person in relation to any work carried out by that competent person in connection with its appointment by the FCA under CONRED 2.5.12R.	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
76(zp) A person in respect of which the FCA 37 has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to provide it with a report pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act and SUP 5.2. 37	Any amount invoiced to the FCA 37 by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the FCA 37 pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act. 37	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
76(zq) A person in respect of which the FCA 37 has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to collect or update information pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act. 37	Any amount invoiced to the FCA 37 by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the FCA 37 pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act. 37 37	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.33
33(zr) [deleted]38	38	38
30(zs) Applicant for FCA permission for an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) and/or money paid or property transferred under and agreement to be retained under 3128A(3)(b) of the Act	(1) If the application is for permission for an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) of the Act and for permission for money paid or property transferred under an agreement to be retained under section 28A(3)(b) of the Act, the fee is 31£3,500 per type of agreement specified in the application.30 (2) If the application is for permission for an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) of the Act only, the fee is £3,500 per type of agreement specified in the application.31 (3) If the application is for permission for money paid or property transferred under an agreement to be retained under section 28A(3)(b) of the Act only, the fee is £3,500 per type of agreement specified in the application.31 Where there are a number of agreements of the same type, only one fee is payable in respect of those agreements. A number of agreements are of the same type when those agreements are entered into on the same terms and conditions.	On or before the date the application is made.
(zt) An applicant for registration in the Financial Services Register under article 8(1) of the MCD Order. 78	Unless (1), or (2) applies, the fee as set out in FEES 3 Annex 10A. 78 (1) If the applicant is applying for a Part 4A permission at the same time as it applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, the fee payable in row (a), column (2) paragraph (3) of this Table. 78 (2) If the applicant is applying for a variation of a Part 4A permission at the same time as it applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, the fee payable in row (p), column 2 paragraph (3)(c) of this Table. 78	On or before the application is made.78
(zu)40 Any person to which the Designated Credit Reference Agencies and Finance Platform42 Fee applies under FEES 3 Annex 10B. 39	Designated Credit Reference Agencies and Finance Platform42 Fee in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 10B.	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
32Part 2: UKLA38 fees
(1) Fee payer	(2) Fee payable	(3) Due date
(a) (i) An issuer which has not made public its annual financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.1.3 R. (ii) An issuer which has not made public its half-yearly financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.2.2 R (2).	FEES 3 Annex 12R38	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
38(b) An applicant for approval as a sponsor.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date the application is made.
38(c) Under the listing rules, an issuer requesting approval of a document arising in relation to a specific event or transaction, which is not a significant transaction or a super transaction.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.
38(d) Under the prospectus rules, Prospectus Rules or the Prospectus Regulation, an issuer or a person requesting approval or review of a document arising in relation to a specific event or transaction, which is not a significant transaction or a super transaction.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.
38(e) An issuer requesting the approval or review of a document in connection with a super transaction.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.
38(f) An issuer requesting the approval or review of a document in connection with a significant transaction.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.
38(g) A person who requests the FCA’s approval of a document that includes a mineral expert’s report and who is a fee payer under one or more of the categories (c), (d), (e), and (f) above must additionally pay a fee under this category.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.
38(h) An applicant for approval as a primary information provider.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date the application is made.

[Note:Guidance on how a firm liable to pay a fee under both rows (s) and (ze) of this table for the same transaction should expect to be treated is set out in FEES 3 Annex 11 G.]19

BIPRU 13.6.60R01/01/2007

A firm must ensure that:(1) the model reflects transaction terms and specifications in a timely, complete, and conservative fashion;(2) such terms include at least:(a) contract notional amounts;(b) maturity;(c) reference assets;(d) margining arrangements; and(e) netting arrangements;(3) the terms and specifications are maintained in a database that is subject to formal and periodic audit;(4) the process for recognising netting arrangements requires:(a) signoff by legal staff

CASS 6.1.23G01/01/2009

The rules in this chapter are designed primarily to restrict the commingling of client and the firm's assets and minimise the risk of the client'ssafe custody assets2 being used by the firm without the client's agreement or contrary to the client's wishes, or being treated as the firm's assets in the event of its insolvency.2

SYSC 19A.3.54R01/07/2015

(1) Subject to (1A) to (3), the rules1 in SYSC 19A Annex 1.1R to 1.4R1 apply in relation to the prohibitions on Remuneration Code staff being remunerated in the ways specified in:11(a) SYSC 19A.3.40 R (guaranteed variable remuneration);(b) SYSC 19A.3.49 R (non-deferred variable remuneration); and(c) (replacing payments recovered or property transferred).(1A) Paragraph (1) applies only to those prohibitions as they apply in relation to a firm that satisfies at least one of the

BIPRU 7.6.18R01/04/2013

Table: Option PRR: methods for different types of option

This table belongs to BIPRU 7.6.16R

Option	Description	Method
American option	An option that may be exercised at any time over an extended period up to its expiry date.	Option standard method or option hedging method if appropriate
European option	An option that can only be exercised at expiry.
Bermudan option	A cross between an American option and European option. The Bermudan option can only be exercised at specific dates during its life.
Asian option	The buyer has the right to exercise at the average rate or price of the underlying over the period (or part of the period) of the option. One variant is where the payout is based on the average of the underlying against a fixed strike price; another variant is where the payout gives at expiry the price of the underlying against the average price over the option period.	Option standard method or option hedging method if appropriate
Barrier option	An option which is either cancelled or activated if the price of the underlying reaches a pre-set level regardless of the price at which the underlying may be trading at the expiry of the option. The knock-out type is cancelled if the underlying price or rate trades through the trigger; while the knock-in becomes activated if the price moves through the trigger.
Corridor option	Provides the holder with a pay-out for each day that the underlying stays within a defined range chosen by the investor.
Ladder option	Provides the holder with guaranteed pay-outs if the underlying trades through a pre-agreed price(s) or rate(s) at a certain point(s) in time, regardless of future performance.
Lock-in option	An option where the pay-out to the holder is locked in at the maximum (or minimum) value of the underlying that occurred during the life of the option.
Look-back option	A European style option where the strike price is fixed in retrospect, that is at the most favourable price (i.e. the lowest (highest) price of the underlying in the case of a call (put)) during the life of the option.
Forward starting option	An option that starts at a future date.
Compound option	An option where the underlying is itself an option (i.e. an option on an option).	Option standard method or option hedging method if appropriate
Interest rate cap	An interest rate option or series of options under which a counterparty contracts to pay any interest costs arising as a result of an increase in rates above an agreed rate: the effect being to provide protection to the holder against a rise above that agreed interest rate.	Option standard method, but no reduction for the amount the option is out of the money is permitted
Interest rate floor	An interest rate option or series of options under which a counterparty contracts to pay any lost income arising as a result of a fall in rates below an agreed rate: the effect being to provide protection to the holder against a fall below that agreed interest rate.
Performance option	An option based on a reference basket comprising any number of assets, where the pay-out to the holder could be one of the following: the maximum of the worst performing asset, or 0; the maximum of the best performing asset, or 0; the maximum of the spreads between several pairs of the assets, or 0.	Option standard method or option hedging method - using the highest position risk adjustment of the individual assets in the basket
Quanto	Quanto stands for "Quantity Adjusted Option". A quanto is an instrument where two currencies are involved. The payoff is dependent on a variable that is measured in one of the currencies and the payoff is made in the other currency.	Subject to BIPRU 7.6.31R, the option standard method
Cliquet option	A cliquet option consists of a series of forward starting options where the strike price for the next exercise date is set equal to a positive constant times the underlying price as of the previous exercise date. It initially acts like a vanilla option with a fixed price but as time moves on, the strike is reset and the intrinsic value automatically locked in at pre-set dates. If the underlying price is below the previous level at the reset date no intrinsic value is locked in but the strike price will be reset to the current price attained by the underlying. If the underlying price exceeds the current level at the next reset the intrinsic value will again be locked in.	Option standard method for a purchased cliquet, or the method specified in BIPRU 7.6.30R for a written cliquet
Digital option	A type of option where the pay-out to the holder is fixed. The most common types are all-or-nothing and one-touch options. All-or-nothing will pay out the fixed amount if the underlying is above (call) or below (put) a set value at expiry. The one-touch will pay the fixed amount if the underlying reaches a fixed point any time before expiry.	The method specified in BIPRU 7.6.29 R
Any other option or warrant		The method specified for the type of instrument whose description it most closely resembles.

SYSC 19D.3.67R01/07/2015

(1) Subject to (2) to (7), the rules in SYSC 19D Annex 1.1R to 1.6R apply in relation to the prohibitions on dual-regulated firms Remuneration Code staff being remunerated in the ways specified in:(a) SYSC 19D.3.44R (guaranteed variable remuneration);(b) SYSC 19D.3.59R (non-deferred variable remuneration);(c) SYSC 19D.3.61R(2) (performance adjustment – clawback); and(d) SYSC 19D Annex 1.10R (replacing payments recovered or property transferred).(2) Paragraph (1) applies only to

COLL 8.3.4R01/10/2016

This table belongs to COLL 8.3.2 R.

1	Document status
	A statement that this document is the prospectus of the authorised fund valid as at a particular date which shall be the date of the document.
2	Description of the authorised fund
	Information detailing:
	(1)	the name of the authorised fund;
	16(1A)	its FCA product reference number (PRN);
	(2)	that the authorised fund is either an ICVC, ACS 11 or an AUT;
	(3)	that the scheme is a qualified investor scheme;
	(4)	where relevant, that the unitholders in an ICVC are not liable for the debts of the authorised fund;
	(5)	where relevant, the address of the ICVC's head office and the address in the United Kingdom for service on the ICVC of documents required or authorised to be served on it;
	(6)	the effective date of the authorisation order made by the FCA and, if the duration of the authorised fund is not unlimited, when it will or may terminate;
	(7)	the base currency for the authorised fund;
	(8)	where relevant, the maximum and minimum sizes of the ICVC's capital; 11
	(9)	the circumstances in which the authorised fund may be wound up under the rules in COLL and a summary of the procedure for, and the rights of unitholders under, such a winding up; and11 11
	(10)11	for an ACS that is a limited partnership scheme, the address of the proposed principal place of business of the limited partnership scheme.
3	Investment objectives and policy
	(1)	Sufficient information to enable a unitholder to ascertain:
		(a)	the investment objectives of the authorised fund;
		(b)	the authorised fund's investment policy for achieving those investment objectives, including:
			(i)	the general nature of the portfolio and any intended specialisation;
			(ii)	the policy for the spreading of risk in the scheme property; and
			(iii)	the policy in relation to the exercise of borrowing powers;
		(c)	a description of any restrictions in the assets in which investment may be made; and
		(d)	the extent (if any) to which that investment policy does not envisage remaining fully invested at all times.
	(2)	For investment in immovables :
		(a)	the countries or territories of immovables in which the authorised fund may invest;
		(b)	the policy of the authorised fund manager in relation to insurance of immovables forming part of the scheme property; and
		(c)	the policy of the authorised fund manager in relation to the granting of options over immovables in the scheme property and the purchase of options on immovables.
	(3)	If intended, whether the scheme property may consist of units in collective investment schemes ("second schemes") which are managed by or operated by the authorised fund manager or by one of its associates and a statement as:
		(a)	to the basis of the maximum amount of the charges in respect of transactions in a second scheme; and
		(b)	the extent to which any such charges will be reimbursed to the scheme.
	(4)	If intended, whether the scheme may enter into stock lending transactions and, if so, what procedures will operate and what collateral will be required.
	(5)	Where a scheme is a feeder scheme which (in respect of investment in units in a single collective investment scheme) is dedicated to units in a collective investment scheme, details of the master scheme and the minimum (and, if relevant, maximum) investment that the feeder scheme may make in it;8
	(6)	Where the scheme is a money market fund or a short-term money market fund, a statement identifying it as such a fund and a statement that the scheme's investment objectives and policies will meet the conditions in the definition of money market fund or short-term money market fund, as appropriate.9
4	Distributions and accounting dates
	Relevant details of accounting and distribution dates and a description of the procedures:
	(1)	for determining and applying income (including how any distributable income is paid); and
	(2)	relating to unclaimed distributions.
5	The characteristics of units in the authorised fund
	Information as to:
	(1)	the names of the classes of units in issue or available for issue and the rights attached to them in so far as they vary from the rights attached to other classes;
	(2)	how unitholders may exercise their voting rights and what these are; and
	(3)	the circumstances where a mandatory redemption, cancellation or conversion of units from one class to another may be required.11
115A	Issue of units in ACSs: eligible investors
	(1)	A statement that units may not be issued to a person other than to a person : 12
		(a)	who 12is a:
			(i)	professional ACS investor; or
			(ii)	large ACS investor; or
			(iii)	person who already holds units in the scheme; and
		(b)	to whom units in a qualified investor scheme may be promoted under COBS 4.12.4 R.12 12
	(2)	A statement that the authorised contractual scheme manager of an ACS must redeem units as soon as practicable after becoming aware that those units are vested in anyone (whether as a result of subscription or transfer of units) other than a person meeting the criteria in (1).
115B	Transfer of units in ACSs
	(1)	A statement whether the transfer of units in the ACS scheme is either:
		(a)	prohibited; or
		(b)	allowed;
		by the instrument constituting the fund 13 and prospectus. 13
	(2)	A statement that where transfer of units is allowed by the instrument constituting the fund 13 and prospectus in accordance with (1)(b), units may only be transferred in accordance with the conditions specified by FCA rules, including that units may not be transferred to a person other than a person : 13 12
		(a)	who 12is a:
			(i)	professional ACS investor; or
			(ii)	large ACS investor; or
			(iii)	person who already holds units in the scheme; and
		(b)	to whom units in a qualified investor scheme may be promoted under COBS 4.12.4 R.12 12
	(3)	For a co-ownership scheme which is an umbrella, a statement in accordance with (1)(a) or (1)(b) and, where appropriate, a statement in accordance with (2), must also be made for the sub-funds. Where individual sub-funds have differing policies in relation to transfer of units, separate statements are required.
6	The authorised fund manager
	The following particulars of the authorised fund manager:
	(1)	its name and the nature of its corporate form;
	(2)	the country or territory of its incorporation;
	(3)	the date of its incorporation and if the duration of its corporate status is limited, when that status will or may cease;
	(4)	if it is a subsidiary, the name of its ultimate holding company and the country or territory in which that holding company is incorporated;
	(5)	the address of its registered office, its head office, and, if different, the address of its principal place of business in the United Kingdom;
	(6)	the amount of its issued share capital and how much of it is paid up;
	(7)	for an ICVC, a summary of the material provisions of the contract between the ICVC and the authorised fund manager which may be relevant to unitholders including provisions (if any) relating to termination, compensation on termination and indemnity; and
	(8)	for an AUT, the names of the directors of the authorised fund manager.11 11
7	Directors of an ICVC, other than the ACD
	Other than for the ACD:
	(1)	the names and positions in the ICVC of the directors; and
	(2)	the manner, amount and calculation of the remuneration of the directors.
8	The depositary
	The following particulars of the depositary:
	(1)	its name and the nature of its corporate form;
	(2)	the country or territory of its incorporation;
	(3)	the address of its registered office and the address of its head office if that is different from the address of its registered office; and
	(4)	if neither its registered office nor its head office is in the United Kingdom, the address of its principal place of business in the United Kingdom.
9	The investment adviser
	If an investment adviser is retained in connection with the business of the authorised fund, its name and whether or not it is authorised by the FCA.
10	The auditor
	The name of the auditor of the authorised fund.
11	The register of Unitholders
	Details of the address in the United Kingdom where the register of unitholders is kept and can be inspected by unitholders.
12	Payments out of the scheme property
	The payments that may be made out of the scheme property to any person whether by way of remuneration for services, or reimbursement of expense and for each category of remuneration or expense, the following should be specified:
	(1)	the current rates or amounts of such remuneration;
	(2)	how the remuneration will be calculated and accrue and when it will be paid;
	(3)	if notice has been given to unitholders of the authorised fund manager's intention to:
		(a)	introduce a new category of remuneration for its services; or
		(b)	increase the basis of any current charge; or
		(c)	change the basis of the treatment of a payment from the capital property set out in COLL 8.5.13 R (2) (Payments);
		particulars of that introduction or increase and when it will take place;
	(4)	the types of any other charges and expenses that may be taken out of the scheme property; and
	(5)	if, in accordance with COLL 8.5.13 R (2), all or part of the remuneration or expense are to be treated as a capital charge:
		(a)	that fact; and
		(b)	the basis of the charge which may be so treated
13	Dealing
	Details of:
	(1)	the dealing days and times in the dealing day on which the authorised fund manager will receive requests for the sale and redemption of units;
	(2)	the procedures for effecting:
		(a)	the issue and cancellation of units;
		(b)	the sale and redemption of units; and
		(c)	the settlement of transactions;
	(3)	the steps required to be taken by a unitholder in redeeming units before he can receive the proceeds including any relevant notice periods and the circumstances and periods where a deferral of payment as provided in COLL 8.5.11 R (3) (Sale and redemption) may be applied;
	(4)	the circumstances in which the redemption of units may be suspended;
	(5)	the days and times in the day on which recalculation of the price will commence;
	(6)	details of the minimum number or value of each type of unit in the authorised fund which:
		(a)	any one person may hold; and
		(b)	may be the subject of any one transaction of sale or redemption;
	(7)	the circumstances in which the authorised fund manager may arrange for, and the procedure for, a redemption of units in specie;
	(8)	the circumstances in which the further issue of units in any particular class may be limited and the procedures relating to this:6 6
	(9)	the circumstances in which direct issue or cancellation of units by the ICVC or the depositary of an AUT or ACS 11 (as appropriate) may occur and the relevant procedures for such issues and cancellations; and6 6 11
	(10)	6whether a unitholder may effect transfer of title to units on the authority of an electronic communication and if so the conditions that must be satisfied in order to effect a transfer.6
14	Valuation of scheme property
	Details as to:
	(1)	how frequently and at what times of the day the scheme property will be regularly valued to determine the price at which units in the scheme may be purchased from or redeemed by the authorised fund manager and a description of any circumstance where the scheme property may be specially valued;
	(2)	in relation to each purpose for which the scheme property must be valued, the basis on which it will be valued; and
	(3)	how the price of units of each class will be determined, including a statement that 16a forward price 16 basis is to be applied.
15	Sale and redemption charges
	If the authorised fund manager makes any charges on sale or redemption of units, details of the charging structure and how notice will be provided to unitholders of any increase.
15A5	Property Authorised Investment Funds
	For a property authorised investment fund, a statement that:
	(1)	it is a property authorised investment fund;
	(2)	no body corporate may seek to obtain or intentionally maintain a holding of more than 10% of the net asset value of the fund; and
	(3)	in the event that the authorised fund manager reasonably considers that a body corporate holds more than 10% of the net asset value of the fund, the authorised fund manager is entitled to delay any redemption or cancellation of units if the authorised fund manager reasonably considers such action to be:
		(a)	necessary in order to enable an orderly reduction of the holding to below 10%; and
		(b)	in the interests of the unitholders as a whole.
16	General information
	Details as to:
	(1)	when annual and half- yearly reports will be published; and
	(2)	the address at which copies of the instrument constituting the fund,13 any amending instrument and the most recent annual reports may be inspected and from which copies may be obtained. 13
17	Information on the umbrella
	In the case of a scheme which is an umbrella, the following information:
	(1)	that a unitholder may exchange units in one sub-fund for units in another sub-fund and that such an exchange is treated as a redemption and sale;
	(2)	what charges may be made on exchanging units in one sub-fund for units in other sub-funds;
	(3)	the policy for allocating between sub-funds any assets of, or costs, charges and expenses payable out of, the scheme property which are not attributable to any particular sub-fund;
	(4)	in respect of each sub-fund, the currency in which the scheme property allocated to it will be valued and the price of units calculated and payments made, if this currency is not the base currency of the umbrella; 16
	(5)	for an ICVC or a co-ownership scheme,11 that:10 10
		10(a)	for an ICVC,11 its sub-funds are segregated portfolios of assets and, accordingly, the assets of a sub-fund belong exclusively to that sub-fund and shall not be used to discharge directly or indirectly the liabilities of, or claims against, any other person or body, including the umbrella, or any other sub-fund, and shall not be available for any such purpose; 11
		11(aa)	for a co-ownership scheme, the property subject to a sub-fund is beneficially owned by the participants in that sub-fund as tenants in common (or, in Scotland, is the common property of the participants in that sub-fund) and must not be used to discharge any liabilities of, or meet any claims against, any person other than the participants in that sub-fund; and
		10(b)	for an ICVC or a co-ownership scheme,11 while the provisions of the OEIC Regulations, and section 261P (Segregated liability in relation to umbrella co-ownership schemes) of the Act in the case of co-ownership schemes,11 provide for segregated liability between sub-funds, the concept of segregated liability is relatively new. Accordingly, where claims are brought by local creditors in foreign courts or under foreign law contracts, it is not yet known how those foreign courts will react to regulations 11A and 11B of the OEIC Regulations or, as the case may be, section 261P of the Act; and16 11 11
	16(6)	the FCA product reference number (PRN) of each sub-fund.
18	Application of the prospectus contents to an umbrella
	For a scheme which is an umbrella, information required must be stated:
	(1)	in relation to each sub-fund where the information for any sub-fund differs from that for any other; and
	(2)	for the umbrella as a whole, but only where the information is relevant to the umbrella as a whole.
318A	Investment in overseas4 property through an intermediate holding vehicle3
	If investment in an overseas4 immovable is to be made through an intermediate holding vehicle or a series of intermediate holding vehicles a statement disclosing the existence of that intermediate holding vehicle or series of intermediate holding vehicles and confirming that the purpose of that intermediate holding vehicle or series of intermediate holding vehicles is to enable the holding of overseas4 immovables by the scheme.3
1118B	Information on authorised contractual schemes
	A statement that:
	(1)	a unitholder in a co-ownership scheme is not liable to make any further payment after he has paid the price of his units and that no further liability can be imposed on him in respect of the units he holds;
	(2)	a unitholder in a limited partnership scheme is not liable for the debts or obligations of the limited partnership scheme beyond the amount of the scheme property which is available to the authorised contractual scheme manager to meet such debts or obligations, provided that the unitholder does not take part in the management of the partnership business;
	(3)	the exercise of rights conferred on limited partners by FCA rules does not constitute taking part in the management of the partnership business; and
	(4)	the scheme property of a co-ownership scheme is beneficially owned by the participants as tenants in common (or, in Scotland, is the common property of the participants).
19	Additional information
	Any other material information which is within the knowledge of the directors 11 of an ICVC or the authorised fund manager 11 of an AUT or ACS 11, or which the directors or authorised fund manager 11 would have obtained by the making of reasonable enquiries which investors and their professional advisers would reasonably require, and reasonably expect to find in the prospectus, for the purpose of making an informed judgement about the merits of investing in the authorised fund and the extent and characteristics of the risks accepted by so participating. 11 11 11

PERG 8.14.22G01/11/2007

A certified high net worth individual is an individual who has signed a statement in the form prescribed in Part I (Statement for certified high net worth individuals) of Schedule 5 to the Financial Promotion Order. This requires the individual to certify that he has earned at least £100,000 or have held net assets to the value of more than £250,000 throughout the financial year before the date of the certificate. Where the financial promotion is an outgoing electronic commerce

Related provisions for INSPRU 3.1.59

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Table of application, notification, vetting and other fees payable to the FCA32