Related provisions for DISP 1.2.4
61 - 80 of 368 items.
Firms will need to consider the implications of the Data Protection Act 1998 under which personal data that a firm, as data controller, holds about its customer cannot be disclosed to a third party without his consent. In practice the firm is likely to need the SRB agreement seller's consent to disclosing the matters covered by MCOB 6.9.8 R to the relevant mortgage lender or home purchase provider.
The SRB agreement provider must keep a record of the written pre-offer document at Stage One and the written offer document for signing at Stage Two for a period of:(1) one year after the end of the fixed term of the tenancy under the regulated sale and rent back agreement; or(2) five years from the date of the disclosures and warnings, written offer documents and cooling-off period notices;whichever is the longer.
(1) An issuer'ssecurities must be admitted to trading on a RIE's market for listed securities at all times.(2) An issuer must inform the FCA in writing without delay if it has:(a) requested a RIE to admit or re-admit any of its listed securities to trading; or(b) requested a RIE to cancel or suspend trading of any of its listed securities; or(c) been informed by a RIE that the trading of any of its listed securities will be cancelled or suspended.
An issuer that is not already required to comply with the obligations under articles 17 and 18 of the Market Abuse Regulation4 must comply with those obligations4 as if it were an issuer for the purposes of articles 17 and 18 of the Market Abuse Regulation4 and the transparency rules, subject to article 22 of the Market Abuse Regulation4.1
1Where the approved person is, or is one of the approved persons who is, responsible within the firm for reporting matters to the regulator concerned (as defined in APER 4.4.4G), failing promptly to inform the regulator concerned of information of which they are aware and which it would be reasonable to assume would be of material significance to the regulator concerned, whether in response to questions or otherwise, falls within APER 4.4.3G.
1Failing
without good reason to:(1) inform
a regulator of information of which the approved
person was aware in response to questions from that regulator;(2) attend
an interview or answer questions put by a regulator, despite a request or
demand having been made;(3) supply
a regulator with appropriate documents or
information when requested or required to do so and within the time limits
attaching to that request or requirement;falls within APER 4.4.3 G.
(1) For the authorised fund manager's periodic charge or for payments out of scheme property to the investment adviser, the prospectus may permit a payment based on a comparison of one or more aspects of the scheme property or price in comparison with fluctuations in the value or price of property of any description or index or other factor designated for the purpose (a "performance fee").(2) Any performance fee should be specified in the appropriate manner in the prospectus and
(1) Any payment as a result of effecting transactions for the authorised fund should be made from the capital property of the scheme.(2) Other than the payments in (1), all other payments should be made from income property in the first instance but may be transferred to the capital account in accordance with COLL 6.7.10 R (1) (Allocation of payments to income or capital).(3) For payments transferred to the capital property of the scheme in accordance with (2), the prospectus
An affected person is not liable to account to another affected person or to the unitholders of any scheme for any profits or benefits it makes or receives that are made or derived from or in connection with:(1) dealings in the units of a scheme; or(2) any transaction in scheme property; or(3) the supply of services to the scheme;where disclosure of the non-accountability has been made in the prospectus of the scheme.
This section applies to a firm which produces, or arranges for the
production of, investment research that
is intended or likely to be subsequently disseminated to clients of
the firm or to the public, under
its own responsibility or that of a member of its group. [Note: article 25(1) of the MiFID
implementing Directive]
Knowledge by a financial
analyst or other relevant person that
the firm intends to produce
or disseminate investment research to
its clients or to the public
(including in circumstances where research material has not yet been written)
could constitute knowledge of the likely timing and content of investment research under COBS 12.2.5 R (1).
Upon request, an issuer or other person must be able to communicate to the FCA, in relation to any disclosure of regulated information:(1) the name of the person who communicated the regulated information to the RIS;(2) the security validation details;(3) the time and date on which the regulated information was communicated to the RIS;(4) the medium in which the regulated information was communicated; and(5) details of any embargo placed by the issuer on the regulated information,
(1) Information that is disclosed in a non-EEA State which may be of importance to the public in the EEA must be disclosed in accordance with the provisions set out in DTR 6.2 and DTR 6.3. (2) Paragraph (1) applies additionally to information that is not regulated information.[Note: article 23(3) of the TD]
If a firm is found to have provided support to a securitisation it will be required to: (1) hold capital resources against all of the securitised exposures associated with the securitisation transaction as if they had not been securitised; and(2) disclose publicly in a timely fashion: (a) where it has provided such support; and(b) the regulatory capital impact of doing so.
The ECAI rating of a securitisation position must, at a minimum, comply with the following:(1) there must be no mismatch between the types of payments reflected in the credit assessment and the types of payment to which the firm is entitled under the contract giving rise to the securitisation position in question;(2) the rating must be publicly available to the market; and(3) the rating must not be based, or partly based, on support provided by the firm itself.
Credit assessments may only be treated as publicly available under MIPRU 4.2BA.35R (2) if they have been published in a publicly accessible forum and they are included in the ECAI's transition matrix; a rating that is only made available to a limited number of entities may not be treated as publicly available.
The information that the introducer must disclose to the borrower prior to making the introduction is, where relevant:(1) that he is a member of the same group as the person (N) to whom the borrower is introduced;(2) details of any payment which he will receive from N, by way of fee or commission, for introducing the borrower to N; and(3) an indication of any other reward or advantage arising out of his introducing to N.
In the FCA's view, the information condition in PERG 4.5.14G (3) requires the introducer to indicate to the borrower any other advantages accruing to him as a result of ongoing arrangements with N relating to the introduction of borrowers. This may include, for example, indirect benefits such as office space, travel expenses, subscription fees and this and other relevant information may be provided on a standard form basis to the borrower, as appropriate.
If an originator or sponsor fails to comply with BIPRU 9.6.1 R or BIPRU 9.6.1A R1 in respect of a securitisation, it must:(1) hold capital against all of the securitised exposures associated with the securitisation transaction as if they had not been securitised; and(2) disclose publicly:(a) that it has provided non-contractual support;1 and(b) the regulatory capital impact of doing so.[Note: BCD Article 101(2)]
(1) Securitisation documentation should make clear, where applicable, that any repurchase of securitised exposures or securitisation positions by the originator or sponsor beyond its contractual obligations is not mandatory and may only be made at fair market value. In general, any such repurchase should be subject to a firm's credit review and approval process, which should be adequate to ensure that the repurchase complies with BIPRU 9.6.1 R.(2) If an originator or sponsor repurchases
4For the purposes of MCOB 4.4A.2R (1) there is one relevant market for equity release transactions. Accordingly, a firm offering a customer only lifetime mortgages or only home reversion plans must include in its disclosure under MCOB 4.4A.1R (1) that it is limited in that regard in the range of products that it can offer to the customer.
4In the light of MCOB 8.3.2B R, a firm may wish to consider using a sentence appropriate to the circumstances, along the following lines: •“We offer a comprehensive range of equity release products from across the market.” •“We sell home reversion plans only and not lifetime mortgages, though we will consider all home reversion plans available in the market.”
Table of modified cross-references to other rules: This table belongs to MCOB 8.3.1 R.
Subject |
Rule or guidance |
Reference in rule or guidance |
To be read as a reference to: |
Additional disclosure for distance mortgage mediation contracts |
MCOB 4.5 |
1(1) This sourcebook3 applies to every firm that:113(a) carries on a home finance activity3 (subject to 31the business loan and loans to high net worth mortgage customers7 application provisions3); or3(b) communicates or approves a financial promotion of qualifying credit, of a home purchase plan,6of a home reversion plan3or of a regulated sale and rent back agreement.636(2) Where a firm has outsourced activities to a third party processor, any rule in MCOB which requires the
In relation to a regulated mortgage contract for a business purpose or with a high net worth mortgage customer7, if a firm has opted for the tailored route, it must adopt the following modifications to the sourcebook:333(1) (except in relation to sections 5 and 8 of any combined initial disclosure document) substitute an alternative description of the facility provided under the regulated mortgage contract for 'mortgage' where that term is used in any disclosure;733337(2) substitute
The disclosure rules in MCOB place particular emphasis on the description of borrowing. Where the regulated mortgage contract is for a business purpose or with a high net worth mortgage customer7 who is not a consumer under an MCD regulated mortgage contract8, a firm should reflect this emphasis in any disclosure by first describing any borrowing before addressing the other facilities provided under the regulated mortgage contract.
(1) 10By virtue of amendments to articles 60B, 60C and 61 of the Regulated Activities Order which came into force on 21 March 2016, certain regulated credit agreements became regulated mortgage contracts (but see the transitional provisions described in (3) below). The provisions of MCOB that apply to these regulated mortgage contracts include:(a) MCOB 7 (Disclosure at start of contract and after sale);(b) MCOB 12 (Charges); and(c) MCOB 13 (Arrears, payment shortfalls and repossessions:
To comply with COBS 6.1D.11R, a firm's disclosure should be in cash terms (or convert non-cash terms into illustrative cash equivalents) and should:(1) include information as to the period over which the consultancy charge is payable;(2) provide information on the implications for the employee if the employee leaves the employer’s service or their contributions to the group personal pension scheme or group stakeholder pension scheme are cancelled before the consultancy charge
(1) FCA3staff
are required by their contract of employment to comply with a code of conduct
which imposes strict rules to cover the handling of conflicts of interest
which may arise from personal interests or associations. FCA3 staff subject to a conflict of interest must declare that interest
to the person to whom they are
immediately responsible for a decision.33(2) If a member of a senior
staff committee has a potential conflict of interest in any
matter in which he is asked
The procedure for taking decisions
under executive procedures will
generally be less formal and structured than that for decisions by the RDC. Broadly, however, FCA3 staff responsible for taking statutory
notice decisions under executive
procedures will follow a procedure similar to that described
at DEPP 3.2.7 G to DEPP 3.2.27 G for
the RDC except that:3(1) in a case where the decision will
be taken by a senior staff committee: (a) the chairman or deputy chairman
of the senior
The FCA will generally be satisfied that there is sufficient information in the market about the propos ed transaction if: (1) the target has shares or certificates representing equity securities admitted to a regulated market; and(2) the issuer makes an announcement stating that the target has complied with the disclosure requirements applicable on that regulated market and providing details of where information disclosed pursuant to those requirements can be obtained.
The FCA will generally be satisfied that there is sufficient publicly available information in the market about the proposed transaction if the target has securities admitted to an investment exchange or trading platform that is not a regulated market and the issuer:(1) confirms, in a form acceptable to the FCA, that the disclosure requirements in relation to financial information and inside information of the investment exchange or trading platform on which the target'ssecurities
Where the target in a reverse takeover is not subject to a public disclosure regime, or if the target has securities admitted on an investment exchange or trading platform that is not a regulated market but the issuer is not able to give the confirmation and make the announcement contemplated by LR 5.6.12 G, the FCA will generally be satisfied that there is sufficient publicly available information in the market about the proposed transaction such that a suspension is not required
The authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme that is a master UCITS must provide the management company of its feeder UCITS with all documents and information necessary for the latter to meet its regulatory obligations under the UCITS Directive.[Note: article 60(1) first paragraph first sentence of the UCITS Directive]
An authorised fund manager of a master UCITS must ensure the timely availability of all information that is required in accordance with its obligations under the regulatory system, the general law and the instrument constituting the fund,2 to:2(1) the feeder UCITS (or where applicable its management company);(2) the competent authority of the feeder UCITS;(3) the depositary of the feeder UCITS; and(4) the auditor of the feeder UCITS.[Note: article 66(3) of the UCITS Directive
The authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme that operates, or intends to operate, as a master UCITS must:(1) not enter into a master-feeder agreement or, where applicable, internal conduct of business rules in accordance with COLL 11.3.2R (2) unless it is satisfied on reasonable grounds that the arrangements with the feeder UCITS will not unfairly prejudice the interests of any other unitholder or class of unitholders in the master UCITS;(2) consider, in relation to:(a) each
The FCA3 may also have regard to the systems and controls intended to ensure that confidential information is only used for proper purposes. Where relevant, recognised bodies will have to comply with section 348 (Restrictions on disclosure of confidential information by the FCA3 etc.) and regulations made under section 349 (Exemptions from section 348) of the Act.33
The FCA3 may also have regard to the contracts of employment, staff rules, letters of appointment for members of the governing body, members of relevant committees and other key individuals and other guidance given to individuals on handling conflicts of interest. Guidance to individuals may need to cover:3(1) the need for prompt disclosure of a conflict of interest to enable others, who are not affected by the conflict, to assist in deciding how it should be managed;(2) the circumstances
(1) If a member of the RDC has a potential conflict of interest in any matter in which he is asked to participate he will disclose the conflict to the RDC Office, and disclose it:(a) in the case of the Chairman of the RDC, to the Chairman or Deputy Chairman of the FCA1; or1(b) in the case of a Deputy Chairman of the RDC, to the Chairman of the RDC, or if he is unavailable to the Chairman or Deputy Chairman of the FCA1; or1(c) in the case of any other member, to the Chairman or
If the RDC decides that the FCA1 should give a warning noticeor a first supervisory notice:1(1) the RDC will settle the wording of the warning notice or first supervisory notice, and will ensure that the notice complies with the relevant provisions of the Act;(2) the RDC will make any relevant statutory notice associated decisions;(3) the RDC staff will make appropriate arrangements for the notice to be given; and(4) the RDC staff will make appropriate arrangements for the disclosure
Subject to CASS 5.5.41 R,
a firm that holds or intends
to hold client money with a
bank which is in the same group as
the firm must:(1) undertake
a continuous review in relation to that bank which is at least as rigorous
as the review of any bank which is not in the same group,
in order to ensure that the decision to use a group bank
is appropriate for the client;(2) disclose
in writing to its client at
the outset of the client relationship
(whether by way of a client agreement,4terms
of
A firm must
not undertake any transaction for a consumer5 that involves client money being
passed to another broker or settlement agent located
in a jurisdiction outside the United Kingdom,
unless the firm has previously
disclosed to the consumer5 (whether in its terms of business, client agreement 4or otherwise in writing):554(1) that
his client money may be passed
to a person outside the United Kingdom but the client may
notify the firm that he does
not wish his money to be