Related provisions for MCOB 4A.1.3

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CONC 4.1.3RRP
(1) When a firm provides a quotation to a customer in connection with a prospective credit agreement which would or might be secured on the customer's home, the firm must include (or cause to be included) in the quotation a statement that such security would or might be required. [Note: regulation 3a of SI 1999/2725](2) When a firm provides a quotation to a customer (C) in connection with a prospective credit agreement which would or might be secured on C’s home under which, while
CONC 4.1.4RRP
(1) When a firm provides a quotation to a customer in connection with a prospective credit agreement which would or might be secured on the customer's home, the firm must include (or cause to be included) in the quotation a statement that such security would or might be required.[Note: regulation 6 of SI 1999/2725](2) When a firm provides a quotation to a customer (C) in connection with a prospective credit agreement which would or might be secured on C’s home under which, while
BIPRU 11.2.6GRP
A firm which is included within comparable disclosures provided on a consolidated basis by a parent undertaking whose head office is not in an EEA State may apply for a waiver from the relevant disclosure requirements in BIPRU 11.2.2 R - BIPRU 11.2.5 R. The appropriate regulator's approach to granting waivers is set out in the Supervision manual (see SUP 8).[Note: BCD Article 72(3)]
BIPRU 11.2.7GRP
A firm applying for a waiver from one or more of the disclosure requirements in BIPRU 11.2.2 R - BIPRU 11.2.5 R will need to:(1) satisfy the appropriate regulator that it is included within comparable disclosures provided on a consolidated basis by a parent undertaking whose head office is not in an EEA State; and(2) notify the appropriate regulator of the location where the comparable disclosures are provided.
APER 4.1.6GRP
3Deliberately failing to inform, without reasonable cause:(1) a customer; or(2) his firm (or its auditors or an actuary appointed by his firm under SUP 4 (Actuaries)1); or1(3) the FCA or the PRA;66of the fact that their understanding of a material issue is incorrect, despite being aware of their misunderstanding, falls within APER 4.1.2G.
APER 4.1.13GRP
3Deliberately failing to disclose the existence of a conflict of interest in connection with dealings with a client falls within APER 4.1.2 G.
COCON 4.2.16GRP
The following is a non-exhaustive list of examples of conduct that would be in breach of rule SC2.(1) Failing to take reasonable steps to implement (either personally or through a compliance department or other departments) adequate and appropriate systems of control to comply with the relevant requirements and standards of the regulatory system for the activities of the firm.(2) Failing to take reasonable steps to monitor (either personally or through a compliance department
COCON 4.2.26GRP
SC4 applies to senior conduct rules staff members in addition to rule 3 in COCON 2.1.3R. Although, the rules have some overlap, they are different. Rule 3 normally relates to responses from individuals to requests from the regulator, whereas rule SC4 imposes a duty on a senior conduct rules staff member to disclose appropriately any information of which the appropriate regulator would reasonably expect, including making a disclosure in the absence of any request or enquiry from
COCON 4.2.28GRP
(1) If a senior conduct rules staff member comes across a piece of information that is something of3 which they think the FCA or PRA could reasonably expect notice, they should determine whether that information falls within the scope of their responsibilities:2(a) (for an SMF manager)2 by virtue of that person’sstatement of responsibilities; or2(b) (for an approved person performing a significant influence function in a Solvency II firm or a small non-directive insurer3) including
SUP 10A.15.4GRP
The obligations to supply information to:(1) the FCA under either SUP 10A.14.8 R or SUP 10A.14.10 R;(2) another firm under SUP 10A.15.1 R;apply notwithstanding any agreement (for example a 'COT 3' Agreement settled by the Advisory, Conciliation and Arbitration Service (ACAS)) or any other arrangements entered into by a firm and an employee upon termination of the employee's employment. A firm should not enter into any such arrangements or agreements that could conflict with its
SUP 10A.15.5GRP
Failing to disclose relevant information to the FCA may be a criminal offence under section 398 of the Act.
GEN 4.5.6AGRP
4As well as potentially breaching the requirements in this section, misleading statements by a firm may involve a breach of Principle 7 (Communications with clients) or section Part 7 (Offences relating to financial services) of the Financial Services Act 2012, as well as giving rise to private law actions for misrepresentation.
SUP 18.3.2GRP
Under cooperation agreements between EEA regulators, if it has serious concerns about the proposed transferee, the appropriate regulator3 should inform the regulatory body of the transferor within 3 months of the original request from that regulatory body. The appropriate regulator3 is not obliged to reply, but if it does not, its opinion is taken to be favourable3. Although the protocol does not apply to Switzerland, the appropriate regulator3 is required to cooperate with the
SUP 18.3.3GRP
The information that the regulatory body of the transferor is required to supply will normally be sufficient for the appropriate regulator3 to determine whether the transfer is likely to have a material effect on the transferee.3
COBS 4.9.5RRP
A financial promotion for an overseas long-term insurer, which has no establishment in the United Kingdom, must include:(1) the full name of the overseas long-term insurer, the country where it is registered, and, if different, the country where its head office is situated;(2) a prominent statement that 'holders of policies issued by the company will not be protected by the Financial Services Compensation Scheme if the company becomes unable to meet its liabilities to them'; and(3)
COBS 4.9.6RRP
A financial promotion for an overseas long-term insurer which is authorised to carry on long-term insurance business in any country or territory listed in paragraph (c) of the Glossary definition of overseas long-term insurer must also include:(1) the full name of any trustee of property of any description which is retained by the overseas long-term insurer in respect of the promoted contracts;(2) an indication whether the investment of such property (or any part of it) is managed
SUP 10C.16.5GRP
(1) The obligations to supply information to:(a) the FCA under this chapter;(b) another firm under SUP 10C.16.1R;apply notwithstanding any:(c) agreement (for example a 'COT 3' Agreement settled by the Advisory, Conciliation and Arbitration Service (ACAS)); or(d) any other arrangements entered into by a firm and an employee upon termination of the employee’s employment.(2) A firm should not enter into any such arrangements or agreements that could conflict with its obligations
SUP 10C.16.6GRP
Failing to disclose relevant information to the FCA may be a criminal offence under section 398 of the Act.
SUP 16.20.4RRP

A firm or qualifying parent undertaking must send the information required for a resolution plan to the FCA within three months of the reporting reference dates specified in the table below:

Type of firm or qualifying parent undertaking

First reporting reference date

Ongoing reporting reference date

firm or qualifying parent undertaking in an RRD group that includes an IFPRU 730k firm that is a significant IFPRU firm or does not include an IFPRU 730k firm

30 June 2015

Every two years on the same date as the first reporting reference date.

significant IFPRU firm

30 June 2015

Every two years on the same date as the first reporting reference date.

firm or qualifying parent undertaking in an RRD group that includes an IFPRU 730k firm that is not a significant IFPRU firm (but does not include an IFPRU 730k firm that is a significant IFPRU firm)

31 December 2015

Every three years on the same date as the first reporting reference date.

non-significant IFPRU firm

31 December 2015

Every three years on the same date as the first reporting reference date.

[Note:articles 4(1)(b), 11(1) and 13(1) of RRD]

SUP 16.20.6RRP
2A firm must submit its recovery plan and the information required for its resolution plan to the FCA online through the appropriate systems accessible from the FCA’s website, using the forms specified in SUP 16 Annex 40R.
MCOB 5.6.52RRP
Where all or part of the regulated mortgage contract to which the illustration relates is an interest-only mortgage:(1) the illustration must include the sub-heading 'Cost of repaying the capital' with the following text under it:'You will still owe [insert amount of loan on an interest-only basis] at the end of the mortgage term. You will need to make separate arrangements to repay this. When comparing the payments on this mortgage with a repayment mortgage, remember to add any
MCOB 5.6.53GRP

An example of how the information required by MCOB 5.6.52 R (1), MCOB 5.6.52 R (3) and MCOB 5.6.52 R (5) may be presented is as follows:

Cost of repaying the capitalYou will still owe £Z at the end of the mortgage term. You will need to make separate arrangements to repay this. When comparing the payments on this mortgage with a repayment mortgage, remember to add any money that you may need to pay into a separate savings plan to build up a lump sum to repay this amount.

Savings plan that you do not have to take out through [insert name of mortgage lender or mortgage intermediary]

Monthly payments

XYZ savings plan (see separate product disclosure document)

£C

What you will need to pay each month including the cost of a savings plan to repay the capital

36 payments at a fixed rate currently x% followed by:

£(A+C)

264 payments at a variable rate currently y%.

£(B+C)
MCOB 5.6.82RRP
(1) If any quotations for insurance are included in the illustration in accordance with MCOB 5.6.74 R(3), MCOB 5.6.77 R(1) or MCOB 5.6.80 R, the illustration:(a) must include a brief description only of the type of insurance (full details of the insurance cover may however be provided separately); and(b) (i) must include the total price to be paid by the customer in a column on the right hand side of the illustration under the heading '[insert frequency of payments quoted] payments';
COLL 6.3.4RRP
(1) An authorised fund must not have fewer than two regular valuation points in any month and if there are only two valuation points in any month, the regular valuation points must be at least two weeks apart.(2) The prospectus of a scheme must contain information about its regular valuation points for the purposes of dealing in units in accordance with COLL 4.2.5R (16) (Table: contents of the prospectus).(3) Where a scheme operates limited redemption arrangements, (1) does not
COLL 6.3.6GRP

Table: This table belongs to COLL 6.3.2 G (2) (a) and COLL 6.3.3 R (Valuation)1.

Valuation and pricing

1

The valuation of scheme property

(1)

Where possible, investments should be valued using a reputable source. The reliability of the source of prices should be kept under regular review.

(2)

For some or all of the investments comprising the scheme property, different prices may quoted according to whether they are being bought (offer prices) or sold (bid prices). The valuation of a single-priced authorised fund should reflect the mid-market value of such investments. In the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, the issue basis of the valuation will be carried out by reference to the offer prices of investments and the cancellation basis by reference to the bid prices of those same investments. The prospectus should explain how investments will be valued for which a single price is quoted for both buying and selling.1

1

3(2A)

Schemes investing in approved money-market instruments5should value such instruments on an amortised cost basis on condition that:5

55

[Note:CESR's UCITS eligible assets guidelines with respect to article 4(2) of the UCITS eligible assets Directive]

(2B)

Short-term money market funds may value approved money-market instruments on an amortised cost basis.7

[Note: paragraph 21 of CESR's guidelines on a common definition of European money market funds]7

(3)

Any part of the scheme property of an authorised fund that is not an investment should be valued at a fair value, but for immovables this is subject to COLL 5.6.20 R (3) (f) (Standing independent valuer and valuation).

(4)

For the purposes of (2) and (3), any fiscal charges, commissions, professional fees or other charges that were paid, or would be payable on acquiring or disposing of the investment or other part of the scheme property should, in the case of a single-priced authorised fund,2 be excluded from the value of an investment or other part of the scheme property. In the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, any such payments should be added to the issue basis of the valuation, or subtracted from the cancellation basis of the valuation, as appropriate. Alternatively, the prospectus of a dual-priced authorised fund may prescribe any other method of calculating unitprices that ensures an equivalent treatment of the effect of these payments.2

(5)

Where the authorised fund manager has reasonable grounds to believe that:

it should value an investment at a price which, in its opinion, reflects a fair and reasonable price for that investment (the fair value price);

(6)

The circumstances which may give rise to a fair value price being used include:

  • no recent trade in the security concerned; or
  • the occurrence of a significant event since the most recent closure of the market where the price of the security is taken.
In (b), a significant event is one that means the most recent price of a security or a basket of securities is materially different to the price that it is reasonably believed would exist at the valuation point had the relevant market been open.

(7)

In determining whether to use such a fair value price , the authorised fund manager should include in his consideration:

4(7A)

Where the authorised fund manager, the depositary or the standing independent valuer have reasonable grounds to believe that the most recent valuation of an immovable does not reflect the current value of that immovable, the authorised fund manager should consult and agree with the standing independent valuer a fair and reasonable value for the immovable.

(8)

The authorised fund manager should document the basis of valuation (including any fair value pricing policy) and, where appropriate, the basis of any methodology and ensure that the procedures are applied consistently and fairly.

(9)

Where a unit price is determined using properly applied fair value prices in accordance with policies in (8), subsequent information that indicates the price should have been different from that calculated will not normally give rise to an instance of incorrect pricing.

2

The pricing controls of the authorised fund manager

(1)

An authorised fund manager needs to be able to demonstrate that it has effective controls over its calculations of unit prices.

(2)

The controls referred to in (1) should ensure that:

  • asset prices are accurate and up to date;
  • investment 1transactions are accurately and promptly reflected in valuations;
  • the components of the valuation (including stock, cash, and units in issue1), are regularly reconciled to their source or prime records and any reconciling items resolved promptly and debtors reviewed for recoverability;
  • the sources of prices not obtained from the main pricing source are recorded and regularly reviewed;
  • compliance with the investment and borrowing powers is regularly reviewed;
  • dividends are accounted for as soon as securities1 are quoted ex-dividend (unless it is prudent to account for them on receipt):
  • fixed interest dividends, interest and expenses are accrued at each valuation point1;
  • tax positions are regularly reviewed and adjusted, if necessary;
  • reasonable tolerances are set for movements in the key elements of a valuation and movements outside these tolerances are investigated;5
  • the fund manager regularly reviews the portfolio valuation for accuracy5; and5
  • the valuation of OTC derivatives is accurate and up to date and in compliance with the methods agreed with the depositary.5

(3)

In exercising its pricing controls, the authorised fund manager may exercise reasonable discretion in determining the appropriate frequency of the operation of the controls and may choose a longer interval, if appropriate, given the level of activity on the authorised fund1or the materiality of any effect on the price.

(4)

Evidence of the exercise of the pricing controls should be retained.

(5)

Evidence of persistent or repetitive errors in relation to these matters, and in particular any evidence of a pattern of errors working in an authorised fund manager's favour, will make demonstrating effective controls more difficult.

(6)

Where the pricing1function is delegated to a third party, COLL 6.6.15 R (1) (Committees and delegation) will apply.

3

The depositary's review of the authorised fund manager's systems and controls

(1)

This section provides details of the types of checks a depositary should carry out to be satisfied that the authorised fund manager adopts systems and controls which are appropriate to ensure that prices of units are calculated in accordance with this section and to ensure that the likelihood of incorrect prices will be minimised. These checks also apply where an authorised fund manager has delegated all or some of its pricing1 functions to one or more third parties5.

5

(2)

A depositary should thoroughly review an authorised fund manager's systems and controls to confirm that they are satisfactory. The depositary's review should include an analysis of the controls in place to determine the extent to which reliance can be placed on them.

(3)

A review should be performed when the depositary is appointed and thereafter as it feels appropriate given its knowledge of the robustness and the stability of the systems and controls and their operation.

(4)

A review should be carried out more frequently where a depositary knows or suspects that an authorised fund manager's systems and controls are weak or are otherwise unsatisfactory.

(5)

Additionally, a depositary should from time to time review other aspects of the valuation of the scheme property of each authorised fund for which it is responsible, verifying, on a sample basis, if necessary, the assets, liabilities, accruals, units in issue1, securities prices (and in particular the prices of OTC derivatives,5unapproved securities and the basis for the valuation of unquoted securities) and any other relevant matters, for example an accumulation factor or a currency conversion factor.

(6)

A depositary should ensure that any issues, which are identified in any such review, are properly followed up and resolved.

4

The recording and reporting of instances of incorrect pricing

(1)

An authorised fund manager should record each instance where the price of a unit is incorrect as soon as the error is discovered, and report the fact to the depositary together with details of the action taken, or to be taken, to avoid repetition as soon as practicable.

(2)

In accordance with COLL 6.6.11 G (Duty to inform the FCA), the depositary should report any breach of the rules in COLL 6.3 immediately to the FCA. However, notification should relate to instances which the depositary considers material only.

(3)

A depositary should also report to the FCA immediately any instance of incorrect pricing1where the error is 0.5% or more of the price of a unit, where a depositary believes that reimbursement or payment is inappropriate and should not be paid by an authorised fund manager.

(4)

In accordance with SUP 16.6.8 R, a depositary should also make a return to the FCA on a quarterly basis which summarises the number of instances of incorrect pricing1 during a particular period.

5

The rectification of pricing breaches

(1)

COLL 6.6.3 R (1) (Functions of the authorised fund manager) places a duty on the authorised fund manager to take action to reimburse affected unitholders, former unitholders, and the scheme itself, for instances of incorrect pricing1, except if it appears to the depositary that the breach is of minimal significance.

(2)

A depositary may consider that the instance of incorrect pricing1is of minimal significance if:

(3)

In determining (2), if the instance of incorrect pricing1 is due to one or more factors or exists over a period of time, each price should be considered separately.

(4)

If a depositary deems it appropriate, it may, in spite of the circumstances outlined in (2), require a payment from the authorised fund manager or from the authorised fund to the unitholders, former unitholders, the authorised fund or the authorised fund manager (where appropriate).

(5)

The depositary should satisfy itself that any payments required following an instance of incorrect pricing1 are accurately and promptly calculated and paid.

(6)

If a depositary considers that reimbursement or payment is inappropriate, it should report the matter to the FCA, together with its recommendation and justification. The depositary should take into account the need to avoid prejudice to the rights of unitholders, or the rights of unitholders in a class of units.

(7)

It may not be practicable, or in some cases legally permissible, for the authorised fund manager to obtain reimbursement from unitholders, where the unitholders have benefited from the incorrect price.

(8)

In all cases where reimbursement or payment is required, amounts due to be reimbursed to unitholders for individual sums which are reasonably considered by the authorised fund manager and depositary to be immaterial, need not normally be paid.
COLL 6.3.12GRP
(1) In determining the appropriate manner of making prices public, the authorised fund manager should ensure that:(a) a unitholder or potential unitholder can obtain the prices at a reasonable cost;(b) prices are available at reasonable times;(c) publication is consistent with the manner and frequency at which the units are dealt in1;(d) the manner of publication is disclosed in the prospectus; and(e) prices are published in a consistent manner.(2) Examples of what might be deemed
SUP 15.3.7GRP
Principle 11 requires a firm to deal with its regulators in an open and cooperative way and to disclose to the FCA11 appropriately anything relating to the firm of which the FCA11 would reasonably expect notice. Principle 11 applies to unregulated activities as well as regulated activities and takes into account the activities of other members of a group35353535
SUP 15.3.14GRP
A notification under SUP 15.3.11 R should include:(1) information about any circumstances relevant to the breach or offence;(2) identification of the rule or requirement or offence; and(3) information about any steps which a firm or other person has taken or intends to take to rectify or remedy the breach or prevent any future potential occurrence.
SUP 15.3.19GRP
The notifications under SUP 15.3.17 R are required as the FCA11 needs to be aware of the types of fraudulent and irregular activity which are being attempted or undertaken, and to act, if necessary, to prevent effects on consumers or other firms. A notification under SUP 15.7.3 G should provide all relevant and significant details of the incident or suspected incident of which the firm is aware.3535
COBS 4.8.3RRP
A firm must not communicate a solicited or unsolicited financial promotion that is not in writing, to a client3 outside the firm's premises, unless the personcommunicating it:(1) only does so at an appropriate time of the day;(2) identifies himself and the firm he represents at the outset and makes clear the purpose of the communication;(3) clarifies if the client would like to continue with or terminate the communication, and terminates the communication at any time that the
MCOB 13.8.1RRP
If a customer falls into arrears, a firm must provide the customer with adequate information about the arrears in a durable medium:(1) as soon as practicable after becoming aware of that fact;(2) at quarterly intervals; and(3) before commencing action for repossession.
SUP 16.2.1GRP
(1) In order to discharge its functions under the Act, the FCA1 needs timely and accurate information about firms. The provision of this information on a regular basis enables the FCA1 to build up over time a picture of firms' circumstances and behaviour.777(2) Principle 11 requires a firm to deal with its regulators in an open and cooperative way, and to disclose to the FCA1 appropriately anything relating to the firm of which the FCA1 would reasonably expect notice. The reporting
DTR 1.5.3GRP
(1) If the FCA considers that an issuer, a person discharging managerial responsibilities or a connected person has breached any of the disclosure requirements2 it may, subject to the provisions of the Act, impose on that person a financial penalty or publish a statement censuring that person.(2) If the FCA considers that a former director was knowingly concerned in a breach by an issuer it may, subject to the provisions of the Act, impose on that person a financial penalty
MCOB 5A.1.2GRP
(1) MCOB 5A amplifies Principle 6 and Principle 7.(2) The purpose of MCOB 5A is to ensure that, before a consumer submits an application for a particular MCD regulated mortgage contract, they are supplied with information that makes clear: (a) its features, any linked deposits, any linked borrowing and any tied products; and (b) the price that the consumer will be required to pay under that contract, to enable the consumer to make a well-informed purchasing decision.(3) MCOB 5A
CONC 8.4.3RRP
A firm must not include the following terms in a contract with a customer:(1) a term requiring the customer to sign a declaration stating in any way that the customer understands the requirements of the contract; [Note: paragraph 3.41a of DMG](2) a term restricting or prohibiting the customer from corresponding with or responding to a lender or with any person acting on behalf of a lender;[Note: paragraph 3.41b of DMG](3) a term which states or implies the firm has no liability
COBS 14.4.10RRP
If an intermediate Unitholder receives a reasonable request from an authorised fund manager for information relating to the beneficial owners of the units of a scheme that it operates which the authorised fund manager reasonably needs for the purposes of liquidity management, the intermediate Unitholder must provide that information to the authorised fund manager as soon as is reasonably practicable.