Related provisions for CONC 8.7.7
361 - 380 of 591 items.
A UK firm17 or an AIFM exercising an EEA right to market an AIF under AIFMD13,9 cannot start providing cross border services into another EEA State under an EEA right unless it satisfies the conditions in paragraphs 20(1) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act and, if it derives its EEA right from17AIFMD, MiFID or the UCITS Directive,13paragraph 20(4B) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act. If a UK firm derives its EEA right from the MCD, it cannot start providing cross border services
10A UK firm seeking to provide collective portfolio management services in another EEA State under the freedom to provide cross border services, is advised that it will need to refer to the rules of the competent authority of the UCITS Home State implementing article 20 of the UCITS Directive which will require it to submit to that competent authority information relating to its depositary agreement and certain delegation arrangements.
The rules and guidance relating to training and competence in SYSC 3 and SYSC 5 and 6 in TC for a firm carrying on retail business 6extend to any employee of the firm in respect of whom the relevant rules apply. For these purposes, an employee of a firm includes: (1) an individual who is an appointed representative of a firm; and(2) an individual who is employed or appointed by an appointed representative of a firm (whether under a contract of service or for services) in connection
(1) The diagram in COLL 4.3.3 G explains how an authorised fund manager should treat changes it is proposing to a scheme and provides an overview of the rules and guidance in this section.(2) Regulation 21 of the OEIC Regulations (The Authority's approval for certain changes in respect of a company), section 261Q of the Act (Alteration of contractual schemes and changes of operator or depositary)5 and section 251 of the Act (Alteration of schemes and changes of manager or trustee)
3Where the authorised fund manager of either a feeder UCITS or a feeder NURS4 is notified of any change in respect of its master UCITS or qualifying master scheme4which has the effect of a change to the feeder UCITS or feeder NURS4, the authorised fund manager must:4(1) classify it as a fundamental change, significant change or a notifiable change to the feeder UCITS or feeder NURS4 in accordance with the rules in this section; and(2) (a) for a fundamental change, obtain approval
(1) 6An authorised fund may only enter into a stock lending arrangement or repo contract in accordance with the rules in this section if the arrangement or contract is: (a) for the account of and for the benefit of the scheme; and(b) in the interests of its unitholders. (2) An arrangement or contract in (1) is not in the interests of unitholders unless it reasonably appears to the ICVC or authorised fund manager of an authorised fund to be appropriate with a view to generating
(1) Collateral is adequate for the purposes of this section only if it is:(a) transferred to the depositary or its agent;(aa) 6for a UCITS scheme, received under a title transfer arrangement;(ab) 6for a UCITS scheme, at all times equal in value to the market value of the securities transferred by the depositary plus a premium;(b) for a non-UCITS retail scheme, at all times 6at least equal in value 6to the value of the securities transferred by the depositary; and(c) for a non-UCITS
Where a firm understands, or reasonably suspects, a customer has or may have a mental capacity limitation the firm should take particular care that the customer is not provided with credit which the firm knows, or reasonably believes, to be unsuitable to the customer's needs, even where the credit would be affordable.[Note: paragraph 4.43 of MCG]
(1) A firm should achieve full roll-out of the IRB approach to all its exposures, subject to the exemptions outlined in BIPRU 4.2.26 R, within the period specified in its IRB permission. A firm should not retain a permanent mix of portfolios on the standardised approach and the IRB approach, on the foundation IRB approach and the advanced IRB approach or on a mixture of all approaches with the exception of portfolios covered by those exemptions.(2) This applies to a move:(a) from
(1) This rule sets out what must be treated as being non-significant business or immaterial for the purposes of BIPRU 4.2.26 R (4), for exposures that do not fall within the equity exposureIRB exposure class.(2) A firm may elect permanently to exclude exposures from the IRB approach and apply the standardised approach. However a firm may only make use of this exemption to the extent that:(a) the consolidated credit risk requirement (adjusted under (6)) so far as it is attributable
(1) A firm'sCCR internal model method model must meet the validation requirements in (2) to (8).(2) The qualitative validation requirements set out in BIPRU 7.10 must be met.(3) Interest rates, foreign currency rates, equity prices, commodities, and other market risk factors must be forecast over long time horizons for measuring CCRexposure. The performance of the forecasting model for market risk factors must be validated over a long time horizon.(4) The pricing models used to
(1) This rule defines some of the terms used in the overall Pillar 2 rule. (2) Residual risk means the risk that credit risk mitigation techniques used by the firm prove less effective than expected.(3) Securitisation risk includes the risk that the own funds held by a firm for assets which it has securitised are inadequate having regard to the economic substance of the transaction, including the degree of risk transfer achieved.(4) Business risk means any risk to a firm arising
(1) All information to be provided to a customer in accordance with this chapter must be communicated:(a) on paper or on any other durable medium available and accessible to the customer;(b) in a clear and accurate manner, comprehensible to the customer; and(c) in an official language of the State of the commitment or in any other language agreed by the parties.(2) The information may be provided orally where the customer requests it, or where immediate cover is necessary. (3)
(1) [deleted]88(2) Relevant matters to which the FCA may have regard when assessing whether a firm will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, this threshold condition8may include but are not limited to:(a) (in relation to a firm other than a firm carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity),8 whether there are any indications that the firm may have difficulties if the application is granted, at the time of the grant or in the future, in complying with any of the
(1) 6This rule applies to a firm which intends to appoint:6636(a) an appointed representative to carry on insurance mediation activities; 46611(b) a tied agent; or1166(c) an appointed representative to carry on MCD credit intermediation activity.114(2) This rule also applies to a firm which has appointed an appointed representative.63(3) A firm in (1) must complete and submit the form in SUP 12 Annex 3 before the appointment.6(4) A firm in (2) must complete and submit the form
The reference to financial promotions which are permitted to be communicated relates, in the FCA's opinion, to something which is expressly permitted rather than simply not expressly prohibited. Article 67 itself does not specify any particular medium for communicating required or permitted material. So, it will be enough for the financial promotion to be part of a document which is itself required or permitted to be communicated (such as reports or financial statements). Market
In relation to an ICVC, ACS2 or an AUT which is a qualified investor scheme, the provisions in COLL 7.6 (Schemes of arrangement) will apply as appropriate to the authorised fund manager, any other directors of the ICVC and the depositary as if COLL 7.6 applied to a qualified investor scheme and did not exclude unitholders becoming unitholders in another qualified investor scheme.
A rejection of a consumerpolicyholder's claim is unreasonable, except where there is evidence of fraud, if it is :22(1) in relation to contracts entered into or variations agreed on or before 5 April 2013, for:2(a) non-disclosure of a fact material to the risk which the policyholder could not reasonably be expected to have disclosed; or2(b) non-negligent misrepresentation of a fact material to the risk; or2(2) in relation to contracts entered into or variations agreed on or after
Examples of when the FCA may cancel the listing of securities include (but are not limited to) situations where it appears to the FCA that:(1) the securities are no longer admitted to trading as required by these rules; or(2) the issuer no longer satisfies its continuing obligations for listing, for example if the percentage of shares in public hands falls below 25% or such lower percentage as the FCA may permit (the FCA may however allow a reasonable time to restore the percentage,
(1) Paragraph 9 of Schedule 4 of FSBRA and the 2015 Interchange Regulations applying FSBRA in a modified form allow3 the FCA to make rules requiring participants2 in regulated payment systems to pay the FCA specified amounts or amounts calculated in a specified way to:(a) meet the relevant costs referred to in (2) below; and (b) enable the PSR to maintain adequate reserves.(1A) The specified amount or amounts calculated in a specific way in (1) are PSR fees which are levied for
3Under the 2000 Act the FCA has powers to investigate concerns including: • regulatory concerns about authorised firms and individuals employed by them;suspected contraventions of the Market Abuse Regulation or any directly applicable EU regulation made under the Market Abuse Regulation or for contraventions of the auction regulation2;2[Note: see Regulation 6 and Schedule 1 to the RAP Regulations for powers in relation to contraventions of the auction regulation]• suspected