Related provisions for BIPRU 7.10.55O
121 - 140 of 258 items.
For any electronic communication with a customer, a firm should:(1) have in place appropriate arrangements, including contingency plans, to ensure the secure transmission and receipt of the communication; it should also be able to verify the authenticity and integrity of the communication; the arrangements should be proportionate and take into account the different levels of risk in a firm's business;(2) be able to demonstrate that the customer wishes to communicate using this
If a firm intends either (a) to remedy a fall in capital resources, or (b) to prevent such a fall, for example, by taking management action to reduce the risks to which a with-profits fund is exposed or by reducing non-contractual benefits for policyholders, it should explain to the FCA how such proposed actions are consistent with the firm's obligations under Principle 6 (Customers' interests).
The Principles
1 Integrity |
A firm must conduct its business with integrity. |
2 Skill, care and diligence |
A firm must conduct its business with due skill, care and diligence. |
3 Management and control |
A firm must take reasonable care to organise and control its affairs responsibly and effectively, with adequate risk management systems. |
4 Financial prudence |
A firm must maintain adequate financial resources. |
5 Market conduct |
A firm must observe proper standards of market conduct. |
6 Customers' interests |
A firm must pay due regard to the interests of its customers and treat them fairly. |
7 Communications with clients |
A firm must pay due regard to the information needs of its clients, and communicate information to them in a way which is clear, fair and not misleading. |
8 Conflicts of interest |
A firm must manage conflicts of interest fairly, both between itself and its customers and between a customer and another client. |
9 Customers: relationships of trust |
A firm must take reasonable care to ensure the suitability of its advice and discretionary decisions for any customer who is entitled to rely upon its judgment. |
10 Clients' assets |
A firm must arrange adequate protection for clients' assets when it is responsible for them. |
11 Relations with regulators |
A firm must deal with its regulators in an open and cooperative way, and must disclose to the appropriate regulator appropriately anything relating to the firm of which that regulator would reasonably expect notice. |
The purposes of SYSC are:(1) to encourage firms' directors and senior managers to take appropriate practical responsibility for their firms' arrangements on matters likely to be of interest to the FCA3 because they impinge on the FCA’s3 functions under the Act;(2) to increase certainty by amplifying Principle 3, under which a firm must take reasonable care to organise and control its affairs responsibly and effectively, with adequate risk management systems;1(3) to encourage
Where a person intends to rely on article 11(6), (7), (8), 9) or (10) for an exemption from the obligation to implement risk management procedures set out in article 11(3) of EMIR, the person should make their application or notification to the FCA in accordance with EMIR requirements, including (where relevant) those set out in the EMIR technical standards on OTC derivatives2.
(1) Where a firm uses the standardised approach set out in BIPRU 3 (Standardised approach to credit risk) for the calculation of risk weighted exposure amount for the standardised credit risk exposure class to which the securitised exposures would otherwise be assigned under BIPRU 3, then it must calculate the risk weighted exposure amount for a securitisation position in accordance with the standardised approach to securitisations set out in BIPRU 9.9, BIPRU 9.10, BIPRU 9.11
1Examples of situations where the FCA may use the own-initiative variation of approval power include where:(1) it has concerns about an SMF manager’s fitness to remain approved in relation to the performance of a designated senior management function but, in all the circumstances, it considers it appropriate to vary their approval by imposing one or more conditions or a time limitation, rather than making a prohibition order or withdrawing approval;(2) the nature or scope of the
(1) [deleted]88(2) In this context, the FCA will interpret the term 'appropriate88' as meaning sufficient in terms of quantity, quality and availability, and 'resources' as including all financial resources (though only in the case of firms not carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity)8, non-financial resources and means of managing its resources; for example, capital, provisions against liabilities, holdings of or access to cash and other liquid assets, human
(1) [deleted]88(2) Relevant matters to which the FCA may have regard when assessing whether a firm will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, this threshold condition8may include but are not limited to:(a) (in relation to a firm other than a firm carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity),8 whether there are any indications that the firm may have difficulties if the application is granted, at the time of the grant or in the future, in complying with any of the
A firm's run-off plan should describe how the firm proposes to manage the run-off of the with-profits fund. That description should include:(1) details of the expected duration and costs of fully running off the fund's liabilities;(2) an explanation as to how a solvent run-off will be funded; and(3) details of the firm's future strategy for managing the risks associated with the run-off of the fund.
A firm's run-off plan should explain how it will use and manage reinsurance (if it will), including:(1) any new inwards or outwards reinsurance it proposes to enter into as a result of the closure of the with-profits fund identifying, in each case, the proposed counterparty and the counterparty's relationship to the firm's group (if any); and(2) how it will manage the risk that the reinsurance in (1) will not perform as expected.
(1) If arrangements made by a firm under SYSC 10.1.7 R to manage conflicts of interest are not sufficient to ensure, with reasonable confidence, that risks of damage to the interests of a client will be prevented, the firm must clearly disclose the general nature and/or sources of conflicts of interest to the client before undertaking business for the client.3(2) The disclosure must:(a) be made in a durable medium; and(b) include sufficient detail, taking into account the nature
5A management company must be structured and organised in such a way as to minimise the risk of a UCITS scheme's, EEA UCITS scheme's or client's interests being prejudiced by conflicts of interest between the management company and its clients, between two of its clients, between one of its clients and a UCITS scheme or an EEA UCITS scheme, or between two such schemes.[Note: articles 12(1)(b) and 14(1)(d) of the UCITS Directive]
The rates of mortality or morbidity should contain prudent margins for adverse deviation7. In setting those rates, a firm should take account of:(1) the systems and controls applied in underwriting long-term insurance contracts and whether they provide adequate protection against anti-selection (that is, selection against the firm) including:(a) adequately defining and identifying non-standard risks; and(b) where such risks are underwritten, allocating to them an appropriate weighting;(2)
An additional provision for diseases covered by INSPRU 1.2.60G (5)(c) may be needed, in particular for unit-linked policies. In determining whether such a provision is needed a firm may take into consideration any ability to increase product charges commensurately (provided that such increase does not infringe on its regulatory duty to treat its customers fairly), but a provision would still be required for the period until such an increase could be brought into effect.
(1) If a firm wishes to use the rolling stock method to perform a physical asset reconciliation it must first establish and document in writing its reasons for concluding that the way in which it will carry out its physical asset reconciliations is adequately designed to mitigate the risk of the firm's records being manipulated or falsified.(2) A firm must retain any documents created under (1) for a period of at least five years after the date it ceases to use the rolling stock
(1) The authorised fund manager of an AUT, ACS21 or an ICVC16 must:16(a) provide16 a copy of the scheme's most recent prospectus drawn up and published in accordance with COLL 4.2.2 R (Publishing the prospectus) free of charge to any person on request; and16(b) file a copy of the scheme's original prospectus, together with all revisions thereto, with the
FCA
and, where a UCITS scheme is managed by an EEA UCITS management company, with that company's Home State regulator on request.1616(1A)
(1) The risk management process should take account of the investment objectives and policy of the non-UCITS retail scheme as stated in its most recent prospectus.(2) The depositary should take reasonable care to review the appropriateness of the risk management process in line with its duties under COLL 6.6.4 R (General duties of the depositary) and COLL 6.6.14 R (Duties of the depositary and authorised fund manager: investment and borrowing powers)2, as appropriate.2(3) An authorised
(1) 7A UCITS scheme may invest in a transferable security only to the extent that the transferable security fulfils the following criteria:(a) the potential loss which the UCITS scheme may incur with respect to holding the transferable security is limited to the amount paid for it;(b) its liquidity does not compromise the ability of the authorised fund manager to comply with its obligation to redeemunits at the request of any qualifying unitholder (see COLL 6.2.16 R (3) );(c)
(1) A transaction in a derivative must:(a) be in an approved derivative; or(b) be one which complies with COLL 5.2.23 R (OTC transactions in derivatives).(2) The underlying of a transaction in a derivative must consist of any one or more of the following to which the scheme is dedicated:(a) transferable securities permitted under COLL 5.2.8 R (3)(a) to (c) and COLL 5.2.8 R (3)(e)7;(b) approved money-market instruments7 permitted underCOLL 5.2.8 R (3)(a) to COLL 5.2.8 R (3)(d)7;77(c)
The regulated activity of dealing in investments as principal applies to specified transactions relating to any security or to any contractually based investment (apart from rights under funeral plan contracts or rights to or interests in such contracts). The activity is cut back by exclusions as follows.(1) Of particular significance is the exclusion in article 15 of the Regulated Activities Order (Absence of holding out etc). This applies where dealing in investments as principal
The regulated activity of dealing in investments as agent applies to specified transactions relating to any security or to any relevant investment (apart from rights under funeral plan contracts or rights to or interests in such rights). In addition, the activity is cut back by exclusions as follows.(1) An exclusion applies to certain transactions entered into by an agent who is not an authorised person which depend on him dealing with (or through) an authorised person. It does
In assessing its wholesale funding risk, a firm must:(1) identify its wholesale liabilities;(2) determine how those liabilities behave under normal financial conditions;(3) assess how they will behave under the stresses required by BIPRU 12.5.6R; and(4) divide its wholesale liabilities into funding which the firm assesses as having a higher than average likelihood of withdrawal in response to actual or perceived changes in the firm's credit-worthiness (Type A wholesale funding)
In assessing how its liabilities behave under stress, the firm should categorise its liabilities according to value, maturity and estimated speed of outflow. The firm should bear in mind that wholesale funding risk may crystallise as an acute loss of funds in the short term, or as a longer-term gradual leakage of funds, or as both.
The transferor will need to provide the appropriate regulator8 with the information that the Home State regulator requires from the appropriate regulator8. This information includes:88(1) the transfer agreement or a draft, with:(a) the names and addresses of the transferor and transferee; and(b) the classes of insurance business and details of the nature of the risks or commitments to be transferred;(2) for the business to be transferred (both before and after reinsurance):(a)
The assessment is a continuing process, starting when the scheme promoters first approach the appropriate regulator8 about a proposed scheme. Each regulator will have an interest in assessing the scheme.8Among the considerations that may be relevant to both the depth of consideration each gives to, and each regulator's8 opinion on, a scheme are:88(1) the potential risk posed by the transfer to its statutory objectives8;8(2) the purpose of the scheme;(3) how the security of policyholders'