Related provisions for LR 10.1.5
641 - 660 of 1065 items.
A firm should keep a record of, and be ready to explain to its supervisory contacts in the FCA, the reasons for any difference between the deficit reduction amount and any commitment the firm has made in any public document to provide funding in respect of a defined benefit occupational pension scheme.
The conditions referred to in IPRU-INV 13.15.7R are:(1) the subordinated loan must have an original maturity of at least two years or, if it has no fixed term, it is subject to not less than two years' notice of repayment;(2) the agreement governing the subordinated loan must not permit payment of interest unless a firm has at least 120% of its capital resources requirement after that payment2;(3) the agreement governing the subordinated loan must only permit repayment, prepayment
If an unauthorised administrator makes arrangements for a mortgage administrator to administer its regulated mortgage contracts, the exclusion may cease to be available because the mortgage administrator ceases to have the required permission, or because the arrangement is terminated. The exclusion gives the unauthorised administrator a one-month grace period during which it may administer the contracts itself. If the period of administration exceeds one month, the unauthorised
Under article 63 of the Regulated Activities Order, a person who is not an authorised person does not administer a regulated mortgage contract if he administers the contract under an agreement with a firm with permission to administer a regulated mortgage contract. A firm with permission to administer a regulated mortgage contract may thus outsource or delegate the administration function to an unauthorised third party. A firm that proposes to do this should however note, as set
(1) The FCA takes the view that sections 77, 78 and 79 of the CCA should be read in a way that allows the borrower or hirer to obtain the information needed in order to be properly informed without imposing unnecessary burden on firms.(2) The statement referred to in the relevant section must be prepared according to the information to which it is 'practicable' for the firm to refer. In the FCA's view, this means practicable at the time of the request and includes information
(1) Failure to comply with the provisions means that the agreement becomes unenforceable while the failure to comply persists, and the courts have no discretion to allow enforcement.(2) In such cases, a firm should in no way, either by act or omission, mislead a customer as to the enforceability of the agreement.(3) In particular, a firm should not in such cases either threaten court action or other enforcement of the debt or imply that the debt is enforceable when it is not.(4)
A firm must arrange for orderly records to
be kept of its business and internal organisation, including all services
and transactions undertaken by it, which must be sufficient to enable the appropriate
regulator or any other
relevant competent authority under MiFID or the UCITS Directive4 to monitor the firm's compliance
with the requirements under the regulatory
system, and in particular to ascertain that the firm has complied with all obligations with
respect to clients.[Note:
article
An issuer whose registered office is in a non-EEA State2 is exempted from DTR 5.5.1R, DTR 5.6.1R and DTR 5.8.12R(2) if:2(1) the law of the non-EEA State in question lays down equivalent requirements; or2(2) the issuer complies with requirements of the law of a non-EEA State that the FCA considers as equivalent.2[Note: article 23(1) of the TD]2
The FCA maintains a published list of non-EEA States2, for the purpose of article 23.1 of the TD, whose laws2 lay down requirements equivalent to those imposed upon issuers by this chapter, or where the requirements of the law of that non-EEA State are considered to be equivalent by the FCA2. Such issuers remain subject to the following requirements of DTR 6:(1) the filing of information with the FCA;(2) the language provisions; and(3) the dissemination of information provisi
Section 137C of the Act (FCA general rules: cost of credit and duration of credit agreements) as amended by the Financial Services (Banking Reform) Act 2013, places a duty on the FCA to make general rules with a view to securing an appropriate degree of protection for borrowers against excessive charges.
In accordance with that duty, the purpose of this chapter is:(1) to specify the descriptions of regulated credit agreement appearing to the FCA to involve the provision of high-cost short-term credit to which this chapter applies by using the definition of high-cost short-term credit set out in the Glossary;(2) to secure an appropriate degree of protection for borrowers against excessive charges; and (3) as a result, to restrict the charges for such high-cost short-term credi
The purpose of this section is to give directions to the electronic money issuers referred to in SUP 16.1.1B D under regulation 49 (Reporting requirements) of the Electronic Money Regulations in relation to:(1) the information in respect of their issuance of electronic money and provision of payment services and their compliance with requirements imposed by or under Parts 2 to 5 of the Electronic Money Regulations that they must provide to the FCA6; and 6(2) the time at which
An electronic money issuer that is not a credit institution must submit to the FCA:66(1) the duly completed return applicable to it as set out in column (2) of the table in SUP 16.15.8 D; and(2) the return referred to in (1):(a) in the format specified as applicable in column (3) of the table in SUP 16.15.8 D; (b) at the frequency and in respect of the periods specified in column (4) of that table;(c) by the due date specified in column (5) of that table; and (d) by electronic
(1) The authorised fund manager may, with the prior agreement of the depositary, and must without delay, if the depositary so requires, temporarily1 suspend the issue, cancellation, sale and redemption of units in an authorised fund (referred to in this chapter as "dealings in units"), where due to exceptional circumstances it is in the interest of all the unitholders in the authorised fund. (1A) The authorised fund manager and the depositary must ensure that the suspension is
2Where:(1) an authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme which is a master UCITS or a qualifying master scheme3temporarily suspends the issue, cancellation, sale and redemption of its units, whether at its own initiative or at the request of the FCA; or(2) an operator of an EEA UCITS scheme which is a master UCITS or a qualifying master scheme3temporarily suspends the issue, cancellation, sale or redemption of its units, whether at its own initiative or at the request of its Home
(1) The FCA1 considers it reasonable for a firm's policy to exclude cover for:(a) specific business lines if that type of business has not been carried out by the firm in the past and will not be carried out by the firm during the life of the policy; or (b) specific claims that have been previously notified to the firm'sinsurer and claimed for under another policy.
(2) The FCA1 does not consider it reasonable for a firm's policy to treat legal defence
A firm must notify the FCA1 immediately if it becomes aware, or has information which reasonably suggests, that any of the following matters in relation to its professional indemnity insurance has occurred, may have occurred or may occur in the foreseeable future:
(1) professional indemnity insurance cannot be obtained within 28 days of the inception or renewal date; (2) professional indemnity insurance is cancelled; (3) the amount of aggregate cover is exhausted;
(1) 1For the purposes of the provisions relating to professional indemnity
insurance, “additional capital resources” means readily realisable own
funds or capital resources under IPRU-INV 13.15.3R, depending on
the type of firm1.(2) 1The FCA1 expects items included in own funds or capital
resources under IPRU-INV 13.15.3R, depending on the type of firm,1
to be regarded as “readily realisable” only if they can be realised, at
any given time, within 90 days.
Cases (a) to (h) in DTR 5.2.1 R identify situations where a person may be able to control the manner in which voting rights are exercised and where, (taking account of any aggregation with other holdings) a notification to the issuer may need to be made. In the FCA's view:(1) Case (e) produces the result that it is always necessary for the parent undertaking of a controlled undertaking to aggregate its holding with any holding of the controlled undertaking (subject to the exemptions
A person falling within Cases (a) to (h) is an indirect holder of shares for the purpose of the definition of shareholder. These indirect holdings have to be aggregated, but also separately identified in a notification to the issuer. Apart from those identified in the Cases (a) to (h), the FCA does not expect any other significant category "indirect shareholder" to be identified. Cases (a) to (h) are also relevant in determining whether a person is an indirect holder of financial
(1) A firm must pay the pensions guidance levy applicable to it within 30 days of the date of the invoice to which that sum relates, unless any of (2) to (5) apply.(2) If the firm has applied to cancel its Part 4A permission under SUP 6.4.5D (Cancellation of permission), the firm must pay the pensions guidance levy applicable to it on the date of its application.(3) If the FCA has exercised its own-initiative powers to cancel a firm'sPart 4A permission, the firm must pay the
For FEES 10.2.4 R, a firm may apply the relevant tariff bases and rates to its non-UK business, as well as to its UK business, if:(1) it has reasonable grounds for believing that the cost of identifying the firm'sUK business separately from its non-UK business is disproportionate to the difference in the pensions guidance levy payable by it; and(2) it notifies the FCA in writing: (a) at the same time as it provides the information concerned under FEES 4.4 (Information on which
1Statements of Principle issued under section 64A(1)(a) of the Act
Statement of Principle 1 An approved person must act with integrity in carrying out his accountable functions. |
Statement of Principle 2 An approved person must act with due skill, care and diligence in carrying out his accountable functions. |
Statement of Principle 3 An approved person must observe proper standards of market conduct in carrying out his accountable functions. |
Statement of Principle 4 An approved person must deal with the FCA, the PRA and other regulators in an open and cooperative way and must disclose appropriately any information of which the FCA or the PRA would reasonably expect notice. |
Statement of Principle 5 An approved person performing an accountable higher management function1 must take reasonable steps to ensure that the business of the firm for which they are 1responsible in their 1accountable function is organised so that it can be controlled effectively. |
Statement of Principle 6 An approved person performing an accountable higher management function1 must exercise due skill, care and diligence in managing the business of the firm for which they are1 responsible in their 1accountable function. |
Statement of Principle 7 An approved person performing an accountable higher management function1 must take reasonable steps to ensure that the business of the firm for which they are 1responsible in their 1accountable function complies with the relevant requirements and standards of the regulatory system. |
(1) COBS 11.8.8R (2) includes conversations and communications relating to specific transactions which are intended to lead to the conclusion of an agreement by the firm to deal with or on behalf of the client as principal or agent, even if those conversations or communications do not lead to the conclusion of such an agreement. It does not include conversations or communications which are not intended to lead to the conclusion of such an agreement, such as general conversations
A firm must take reasonable steps to retain all records made by it under COBS 11.8.5 R:(1) for a period of at least 6 months from the date the record was created;(2) in a medium that allows the storage of the information in a way accessible for future reference by the FCA, and so that the following conditions are met:(a) the FCA must be able to access the records readily;(b) it must be possible for any corrections or other amendments, and the contents of the records prior to such
4An issuer whose registered office is in a non-EEA State5is exempted from the rules on:(1) annual financial reports in DTR 4.1 (other than DTR 4.1.7R (4) which continues to apply); (2) half-yearly financial reports (DTR 4.2); and(3) reports on payments to governments (DTR 4.3A);5if the law of the non-EEA State in question lays down equivalent requirements or the issuer complies with requirements of the law of a non-EEA State that the FCA considers as equivalent.5[Note: article
The FCA maintains a published list of non-EEA States,5 for the purpose of article 23.1 of the TD, whose laws5 lay down requirements equivalent to those imposed upon issuers by this chapter, or where the requirements of the law of that non-EEA State are considered to be equivalent by the FCA5.Such issuers remain subject to the following requirements of DTR 6:(1) the filing of information with the FCA;(2) the language provisions; and(3) the dissemination of information provisio
2(1) The purpose of these rules is to set out the requirements for registered societies and sponsoring bodies to pay periodic and application fees which, together, will provide the funding for the FCA's functions in respect of the registrant-only fee block (Category F). 2(2) This set of rules is in respect of the registration functions relating to registered societies transferred to the FCA by section 50 of the Financial Services Act 2012, other than friendly societies authorised
(1) 2The issuer must file the report on payments to governments with the FCA.(2) The report in (1) must be filed by uploading it to the system identified by the FCA on its website as the national storage mechanism for regulatory announcements and certain documents published by issuers.(3) A report filed under (2) must be in XML (extensible markup language) format and must use the XML data schema developed for the purposes of facilitating software filing to be used for the purpose
1However, there may be circumstances in which the FCA will choose to use the powers under section 382 or section 383 of the Act to apply to the court for an order for restitution against a firm. Those circumstances may include, for example, where: (1) the FCA wishes to combine an application for an order for restitution with other court action against the firm, for example, where it wishes to apply to the court for an injunction to prevent the firm breaching a relevant requirement11;
(1) The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (the Act) is the UK legislation under which bodies corporate, partnerships, individuals and unincorporated associations are permitted by the FCA or PRA to carry on various financial activities which are subject to regulation (referred to as regulated activities).(2) The activities which are regulated activities are specified in the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) Order 2001 (the Regulated Activities
PERG 1.4.1 G (General guidance to be found in PERG) summarises the general guidance contained in PERG. Readers should note that in a cross-reference, as explained in paragraph 40 of the Readers' Guide, the code letters of the manual or sourcebook immediately precede the chapter number. For example, PERG 1 is the first chapter of the Perimeter Guidance manual. PERG 1.5 provides details of and links to other general guidance on perimeter issues that is available on the FCA webs
The FCA considers that the 4following documents together 4determine the effect of the Prospectus Directive6: 4(1) Part 6 of the Act;(2) the PD Regulation;(3) these rules; 4(4) the ESMA Prospectus Recommendations434(5) the ESMA Prospectus Questions and Answers;4(6) the ESMA Prospectus Opinions6; and4(7) the Prospectus RTS Regulations5. 4
In determining whether Part 6 of the Act, these rules ,4the PD Regulation and the Prospectus RTS Regulations5have2 been complied with, the FCA will consider whether a person has acted in accordance with the4ESMA Prospectus Recommendations, the ESMA Prospectus Questions and Answers and the ESMA Prospectus Opinions6. 4424244
An issuer whose registered office is in a non-EEA State3 is exempted from DTR 6.1.3 R to DTR 6.1.15 R if:3(1) the law of the non-EEA State in question lays down equivalent requirements; or3(2) the issuer complies with requirements of the law of a non-EEA State that the FCA considers as equivalent.3[Note: article 23(1) of the TD]3
The FCA maintains a published list of non-EEA States,3 for the purpose of article 23.1 of the TD, whose laws3 lay down requirements equivalent to those imposed upon issuers by this chapter, or where the requirements of the law of that non-EEA State are considered to be equivalent by the FCA3. Such issuers remain subject to the following requirements of DTR 6:(1) the filing of information with the FCA;(2) the language provisions; and(3) the dissemination of information provisi