Related provisions for LR 10.1.5
601 - 620 of 1065 items.
(1) 7A UCITS scheme may invest in an approved money-market instrument if it is:(a) issued or guaranteed by any one of the following:(i) a central authority of an EEA State or, if the EEA State is a federal state, one of the members making up the federation;(ii) a regional or local authority of an EEA State;(iii) the Bank of England, the European Central Bank or a central bank of an EEA State;(iv) the European Union or the European Investment Bank;(v) a non-EEA State or, in the
(1) 7In addition to instruments admitted to or dealt in on an eligible market, a UCITS scheme may also with the express consent of the FCA (which takes the form of a waiver under sections 138A and 138B of the Act as applied by section 250 of the Act or regulation 7 of the OEIC Regulations) invest in an approved money-market instrument provided:(a) the issue or issuer is itself regulated for the purpose of protecting investors and savings in accordance with COLL 5.2.10AR (2);(b)
[deleted]131(1) In the FCA's view the requirement in COLL 5.2.22R (1)(a) can be met where:(a) the risks of the underlying financial instrument of a derivative can be appropriately represented by another financial instrument and the underlying financial instrument is highly liquid; or(b) the authorised fund manager or the depositary has the right to settle the derivative in cash, and cover exists within the scheme property which falls within one of the following asset classes:(i)
(1) 15A syndicated loan for the purposes of this guidance means a form of loan where a group or syndicate of parties lend money to a third party and, in return, receive interest payments during the life of the debt and a return of principal either at the end of the loan period or amortised over the life of the loan. Such loans are usually arranged through agent banks which may, among other things, maintain a record of the lenders’ interest in the loan and arrange or act as a
11The RAO and the auction regulation together generate three broad categories of person in relation to bidding for emissions allowances on an auction platform:(1) The first category consists of an investment firm to which MiFID applies and a BCD credit institution where either firm is bidding on behalf of its clients for emissions auction products or bidding on its own account for emissions auction products that are financial instruments. This category also consists of a person
11Article 24A(2) of the RAO provides that bidding in emissions auctions does not form part of any other regulated activity and so, although in the FCA's view this activity broadly equates to the regulated activities of dealing in investments as principal, dealing in investments as agent, arranging (bringing about) deals in investments or making arrangements with a view to transactions in investments, a person seeking to carry on this activity will only require permission for bidding
8In the FCA's view, it is generally the case that providers of back office administration services do not carry out the regulated activity of making arrangements with a view to transactions in investments. This is based essentially on the fact that providers of back office administration services aim to assist a broker firm to deal with the aftermath of transactions it has entered into on behalf of its clients. The broker firm has assumed full responsibility to its clients for
(1) 8The scope of article 25(2) of the Regulated Activities Order (the subject of PERG 2.7.7B G) was considered by the High Court in the case of Watersheds Limited v. David Da Costa and Paul Gentlemen. The judgement suggests that the activity of introducing does not itself constitute a regulated activity for the purposes of article 25(2) of the Regulated Activities Order. The FCA has considered whether the judgement necessitates any change to the views expressed in PERG 2.7.7B
SUP 15.3 (General notification requirements) contains rules and guidance on matters that should be notified to the FCA. Such matters include, but are not limited to, any circumstance that the depositary becomes aware of whilst undertaking its functions or duties in COLL 6.6.4 R (1) (General duties of the depositary) that the FCA would reasonably view as significant.
(1) 8This rule applies to:(a) an authorised fund manager (other than an EEA UCITS management company) of an AUT, ACS10 or an ICVC where such AUT, ACS10 or ICVC is a UCITS scheme or a non-UCITS retail scheme; and(b) a UK UCITS management company providing collective portfolio management services for an EEA UCITS scheme from a branch in another EEA State or under the freedom to provide cross border services.(2) The authorised fund manager has the power to retain the services of
(1) Directors of an ICVC, authorised fund managers and depositaries should also have regard to SYSC 8 (Outsourcing).66SYSC 8.1.6 R4 states that a firm remains fully responsible for discharging 6all of its obligations under the regulatory system6 if it outsources crucial or important operational functions4 or any relevant services and activities.6646644(2) SUP 15.8.6 R (Delegation by UCITS management companies) requires the 8authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme to inform the
Section 234 of the Act (Industry Funding) enables the FCA to require the payment to it or to FOS Ltd, by firms or any class of firm, of specified amounts (or amounts calculated in a specified way) to cover the costs of: (1) the establishment of 1the Financial Ombudsman Service; and (2) its operation in relation to the Compulsory Jurisdiction.
Regulations 49 and 50 place restrictions on an AIFMmarketing an AIF. These regulations provide that the following types of AIFM may not market the following types of an AIF in the UK unless the conditions summarised below are met.(1) The conditions that need to be met vary depending on whether the AIF falls within regulation 57(1) or not. An AIF falls within this regulation if it is: (a) a feeder AIF that is a UK AIF or an EEA AIF, the master AIF of which is managed by a non-EEA
(1) The terms 'offering' or 'placement' are not defined in the AIFMD UK regulation but, in our view, an offering or placement takes place for the purposes of the AIFMD UK regulation when a person seeks to raise capital by making a unit of share of anAIF available for purchase by a potential investor. This includes situations which constitute a contractual offer that can be accepted by a potential investor in order to make the investment and form a binding contract, and situations
(1) Regulation 46 (Application of the financial promotion and scheme promotion restrictions) provides that where a person may market an AIF under regulation 49, 50 or 51:(a) to the extent that such marketing falls within section 21(1) (restrictions on financial promotion) or 238(1) (restrictions on promotion) of the Act, the person may market the AIF to a retail client only if the person does so without breaching the restriction in that section; and(b) to the extent that any activity
Situations where this exclusion might apply, in the FCA's view, are set out below:(1) Advice by solicitors: the provision of legal services may involve a solicitor advising his client on the legal effects and consequences of entering into a particular regulated mortgage contract. To the extent that this may involve advice on the merits of entering into the contract it is likely to be a necessary part of the legal advice. But it would not be necessary for the solicitor to go on
(1) If a firm'sremuneration policy is not aligned with effective risk management it is likely that employees will have incentives to act in ways that might undermine effective risk management.(2) The Remuneration Code covers all aspects of remuneration that could have a bearing on effective risk management including salaries, bonuses, long-term incentive plans, options, hiring bonuses, severance packages and pension arrangements. In applying the Remuneration Code, a firm should
(1) The specific remuneration requirements in this chapter may apply only in relation to certain categories of employee. But the appropriate regulator would expect firms, in complying with the Remuneration Code general requirement, to apply certain principles on a firm-wide basis.(2) In particular, the appropriate regulator considers that firms should apply the principle relating to guaranteed variable remuneration on a firm-wide basis (Remuneration Principle 12(c); SYSC 19A.3.40
(1) 4Unless required to do so under the regulatory system, a firm must ensure that neither it nor anyone acting on its behalf claims, in a public statement or to a client, expressly or by implication, that its affairs, or any aspect of them, have the approval or endorsement of the appropriate regulator or another competent authority.(2) Paragraph (1) does not apply to statements that explain, in a way that is fair, clear and not misleading, that:(a) the firm is an authorised person;(b)
Subject to3FEES 6.3.22 R, the FSCS must calculate a participant firm's share of a base costs levy by:33(1) identifying the base costs which the FSCS has incurred, or expects to incur, in the relevant financial year of the compensation scheme, but has not yet levied and:33(a) 3allocating 50% of those base costs as the sum to be levied on participants in activity groups A.1, A.3, A.4, A.5 and A.6 (as listed in FEES 4 Annex 1B R); and10(b) 3allocating 50% of those base costs as the
4The FSCS must allocate any specific costs levy:(1) first, amongst the relevant classes in proportion to the amount of relevant costs arising from the different activities for which firms in those classes have permission up to the levy limit of each relevant class. The FCA provider contribution classes are not relevant classes for this purpose; and(2) thereafter, where the levy limit has been reached (whether as a result of compensation costs or specific costs or both) for a class
In determining whether a UK recognised body has effective arrangements for the investigation and resolution of complaints arising in connection with the performance of, or failure to perform, any of its regulatory functions, the FCA3 may have regard to the extent to which the UK recognised body's resources and procedures enable it to:3(1) acknowledge complaints promptly;(2) make an objective, prompt and thorough initial investigation of complaints;(3) provide a timely reply to
In determining whether a UK recognised body's arrangements for the investigation of complaints include appropriate arrangements for the complaint to be fairly and impartially investigated by an independent person (a "complaints investigator"), the FCA3 may have regard to:3(1) the arrangements made for appointing (and removing) a complaints investigator, including the terms and conditions of such an appointment and the provision for remuneration of a complaints investigator; (2)
If a person established in the EEA: (1) does not have an EEA right; (2) does not have permission as a UCITS qualifier; and(3) does not have, or does not wish to exercise, a Treaty right (see SUP 13A.3.4 G to SUP 13A.3.11 G);to carry on a particular regulated activity in the United Kingdom, it must seek Part 4A permission from the appropriate UK regulator3 to do so (see the appropriate UK regulator's website: www.fca.org.uk/firms/authorisation/apply-authorisation for the FCA and
For guidance on how to apply for Part 4A permission3 under the Act, see the appropriate UK regulator's website: http://www.fca.org.uk/firms/about-authorisation/getting-authorised for the FCA and www.bankofengland.co.uk/pra/Pages/authorisations/newfirm/default.aspx for the PRA.31 If an EEA firm or Treaty firm wishes to make any subsequent changes to its top-up permission, it can make an application for variation of that permission (see SUP 6 (Applications to vary and cancel Part
As soon as a SRB agreement provider has provided the written pre-offer document at Stage One to a SRB agreement seller who is in arrears under his regulated mortgage contract or home purchase plan on the property to which the proposed regulated sale and rent back agreement relates, it must, in a durable medium, immediately notify the mortgage lender, home purchase provider or the providers of other loans that may be secured on the property:(1) explaining that the firm is proposing
The SRB agreement provider must keep a record of the written pre-offer document at Stage One and the written offer document for signing at Stage Two for a period of:(1) one year after the end of the fixed term of the tenancy under the regulated sale and rent back agreement; or(2) five years from the date of the disclosures and warnings, written offer documents and cooling-off period notices;whichever is the longer.
This chapter does not apply to: (1) a PRA authorised person; (2) an RRD group member that is: (a) a qualifying parent undertaking of a PRAauthorised person; and(b) subject to supervision on a consolidated basis by the PRA; and(3) a qualifying parent undertaking that is a mixed activity holding company of a PRA authorised person.
Sections 292(3) and 292(4) state:
2Section 292(3) |
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The requirements are that- |
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(a) |
investors are afforded protection equivalent to that which they would be afforded if the body concerned were required to comply withrecognition requirementsother than such requirements which are expressed in regulations under section 286 not to apply for the purposes of this paragraph3; |
(b) |
there are adequate procedures for dealing with a person who is unable, or likely to become unable, to meet his obligations in respect of one or more market contracts connected with the [ROIE] 3 |
(c) |
the applicant is able and willing to co-operate with the[FCA]3by the sharing of information and in other ways; and 3 |
(d) |
adequate arrangements exist for co-operation between the[FCA]3and those responsible for the supervision of the applicant in the country or territory in which the applicant's head office is situated. 3 |
Section 292(4) |
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In considering whether it is satisfied as to the requirements mentioned in subsections (3)(a) and (b), the[FCA]3is to have regard to- 3 |
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(a) |
the relevant law and practice of the country or territory in which the applicant's head office is situated; |
(b) |
the rules and practices of the applicant. |
(1) 2If a listed company becomes aware of a matter described in (2) after the publication of a circular that seeks shareholder approval for a transaction expressly requiring a vote by the listing rules, but before the date of a general meeting, it must, as soon as practicable:(a) advise the FCA of the matters of which it has become aware; and(b) send a supplementary circular to holders of its listedequity shares providing an explanation of the matters referred to in (2).(2) The
416These procedures should, taking into account the nature, scale and complexity of the respondent's business, ensure that lessons learned as a result of determinations by the Ombudsman are effectively applied in future complaint handling, for example by:(1) relaying a determination by the Ombudsman to the individuals in the respondent who handled the complaint and using it in their training and development;(2) analysing any patterns in determinations by the Ombudsman concerning
4Firms are not required to notify the name of the individual to the
FCA
or the Financial Ombudsman Service but would be expected to do so promptly on request. There is no bar on a firm appointing different individuals to have the responsibility at different times where this is to accommodate part-time or flexible working.