Related provisions for BIPRU 7.4.9

COCON 1.1.8G07/03/2016

(1) Both COCON 1.1.6R and COCON 1.1.7R may apply to the same individual performing several roles.(2) For example, say that an individual (A) is an approved person for firm X and is employed by firm Y in a role that does not involve a controlled function. Say that firm X is a Solvency II firm or a small non-directive insurer4 and that firm2Y is a relevant authorised person.(3) COCON 1.1.6R applies to A’s role with firm X and COCON 1.1.7R applies to A’s role with firm Y.

MCOB 9.5.4R01/04/2014

The illustration provided as part of the offer document in accordance with MCOB 6.4.1 R(1) must meet the requirements of MCOB 9.4, with the following modifications:(1) the illustration must be suitably adapted and revised to reflect the fact that the firm is making an offer to a customer and updated to reflect changes to, for example, for a lifetime mortgage3 the interest rate, charges, the exchange rate or the APR required by MCOB 10 (Annual Percentage Rate) at the date the illustration

BIPRU 3.7.2R01/01/2007

This table belongs to BIPRU 3.7.1 R

[Note: BCD Annex II]

Category	Item	Percentage
Full risk	Guarantees having the character of credit substitutes Credit derivatives Acceptances Endorsements on bills not bearing the name of another credit institution Transactions with recourse Irrevocable standby letters of credit having the character of credit substitutes Assets purchased under outright forward purchase agreements Forward deposits The unpaid portion of partly-paid shares and securities Asset sale and repurchase agreements as defined in Article 12(3) and (5) of the Bank Accounts Directive Other items also carrying full risk	100%
Medium risk	Documentary credits issued and confirmed (see also medium/low risk). Warranties and indemnities (including tender, performance, customs and tax bonds) and guarantees not having the character of credit substitutes. Irrevocable standby letters of credit not having the character of credit substitutes. Undrawn credit facilities (agreements to lend, purchase securities, provide guarantees or acceptance facilities) with an original maturity of more than one year. Note issuance facilities (NIFs) and revolving underwriting facilities (RUFs).	50%
Medium/low risk	Documentary credits in which underlying shipment acts as collateral and other self-liquidating transactions. Undrawn credit facilities (agreements to lend, purchase securities, provide guarantees or acceptance facilities) with an original maturity of up to and including one year which may not be cancelled unconditionally at any time without notice or that do not effectively provide for automatic cancellation due to deterioration in a borrower's creditworthiness.	20%
Low risk	Undrawn credit facilities (agreements to lend, purchase securities, provide guarantees or acceptance facilities) which may be cancelled unconditionally at any time without notice, or that do effectively provide for automatic cancellation due to deterioration in a borrower's creditworthiness. Retail credit lines may be considered as unconditionally cancellable if the terms permit the firm to cancel them to the full extent allowable under consumer protection and related legislation.	0%

CONC 10.3.6G01/04/2014

CONC 10.3.5 R can be illustrated by the examples set out below:

(1)

Share Capital	£20,000
Reserves	£30,000
Subordinated loans/debts	£10,000
Intangible assets	£10,000
As subordinated loans/debts (£10,000) are less than the total of share capital + reserves - intangible assets (£40,000) the firm need not exclude any of its subordinated loans/debts pursuant to CONC 10.3.5 R. Therefore total prudential resources will be £50,000.

(2)

Share Capital	£20,000
Reserves	£30,000
Subordinated loans/debts	£60,000
Intangible assets	£10,000
As subordinated loans/debts (£60,000) exceed the total of share capital + reserves - intangible assets (£40,000) by £20,000, the firm should exclude £20,000 of its subordinated loans/debts when calculating its prudential resources. Therefore total prudential resources will be £80,000.

[Note: Until 31 March 2017, transitional provisions apply to CONC 10.3.6 G: see CONC TP 5.3]

FEES 1.1.1G01/04/2016

(1) FEES applies to all persons required to pay a fee or levy under a provision of the Handbook. The purpose of this chapter is to set out to whom the rules and guidance in FEES apply. 30(2) FEES 2 (General Provisions) contains general provisions which may apply to any type of fee payer.30(3) FEES 3 (Application, Notification and Vetting Fees) covers one-off fees payable on a particular event for example various application fees (including those in relation to authorisation, variation

ICOBS 3.2.8R06/01/2008

The requirements relating to the placing and receipt of orders do not apply to contracts concluded exclusively by exchange of e-mail or by equivalent individual communications.[Note: article 10(4) and 11(3) of the E-Commerce Directive]

DEPP 1.2.2G01/04/2013

Table: Summary of statutory and related notices

Notice	Description	Act reference	Further information
Warning notice	Gives the recipient details about action that the FCA 2 proposes to take and about the right to make representations. 2	Section 387	DEPP 2.2
Decision notice	Gives the recipient details about action that the FCA 2 has decided to take. The FCA 2 may also give a further decision notice if the recipient of the original decision notice consents. 2 2	Section 388	DEPP 2.3
Notice of discontinuance	Identifies proceedings set out in a warning notice or decision notice and which are not being taken or are being discontinued.	Section 389	DEPP 1.2.4 G and DEPP 3.2.26 G
Final notice	Sets out the terms of the action that the FCA 2 is taking. 2	Section 390	DEPP 1.2.4 G
Supervisory notice	Gives the recipient details about action that the FCA 2 has taken or proposes to take, for example to vary a Part 4A permission.2 2 2	Section 395(13)	DEPP 2.2 and DEPP 2.3

MCOB 12.3.3G31/10/2004

A firm may calculate the same level of early repayment charge for all regulated mortgage contracts of a similar type (for example a tranche of regulated mortgage contracts offering a particular fixed rate of interest), rather than on the basis of the individual regulated mortgage contract with the particular customer.

LR 10.5.3G01/04/2013

1The FCA would (amongst other things) generally consider an increase of 10% or more in the consideration payable to be a material change to the terms of the transaction.

SUP 5.6.4G01/04/2013

2A firm may provide information that would otherwise be subject to a contractual or other requirement to keep it in confidence if it is provided for the purposes of anything required to be done in respect of the skilled person's collection or updating of information under section 166A (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information) of the Act.

MCOB 13.4.3G26/04/2014

(1) A firm may provide the information in MCOB 13.4.1 R (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) orally, for example by telephone, but must provide the information in a durable medium with a copy of the Money Advice Service3 information sheet “Problems3 paying your mortgage” 23within 15 business days of becoming aware of the customer's account falling into arrears.23(2) Where a firm provides the information in MCOB 13.4.1 R when a payment shortfall4 occurs but before the customer's account

SUP 10C.9.9G07/03/2016

Table: Examples of how the need for dual FCA and PRA approval in relation to PRA-authorised persons is reduced

1Example	Whether FCA approval required	Whether PRA approval required	Comments
(1) A is appointed as chief risk officer and an executive director.	No. He is not treated as performing the executive director function.	Yes	Chief risk officer is a PRA-designated senior management function. A’s functions as a director will be included in the PRA-designated senior management function. To avoid the need for FCA approval, A’s appointment as director should not take effect before PRA approval for the chief risk officer role.
(2) Same as example (1), except that A will take up the role as an executive director slightly later because the approval is needed from the firm's shareholders or governing body.	No	Yes	The answer for (1) applies. The arrangements in this section apply if the application to the PRA says that A will start to perform the potential FCA governing function around the time of the PRA approval as well as at that time.
(3) Same as example (1) but the application to the PRA does not mention that it is also intended that A is to be an executive director.	Yes, to perform the executive director function.	Yes	SUP 10C.9.8R does not apply if the application for PRA approval does not say that A will also be performing what would otherwise be an FCA governing function.
(4) A is to be appointed as chief executive and an executive director.	No. A is not treated as performing the executive director function.	Yes	Being a chief executive is a PRA-designated senior management function. A’s functions as a director will be included in the PRA controlled function.
(5) A is appointed as chief risk officer. Later, A is appointed as an executive director while carrying on as chief risk officer.	Yes, when A takes up the director role. The executive director function applies.	Yes, when A takes up the chief risk officer role.	SUP 10C.9.8R does not apply because, when the firm applied for approval for A to perform the PRA chief risk officer designated senior management function, there was no plan for A also to perform the executive director function.
(6) A is appointed as an executive director. Later, A takes on the chief risk officer function and remains as an executive director.	Yes, when A is appointed as director. The executive director function applies.	Yes, when A takes up the chief risk officer role.	When A is appointed as chief risk officer, A is still treated as carrying on the executive director function. A retains the status of an FCA-approved person.
(7) A is appointed as chief risk officer. A then stops performing that role and for a while does not perform any controlled function for that firm. Later, A is appointed as an executive director with the same firm.	Yes, when A is appointed as an executive director. The executive director function applies.	Yes, when A takes up the chief risk officer role.	SUP 10C.9.8R does not apply because there is no current PRA approval when A is being appointed as a director.
(8) A is appointed as an executive director and chief risk officer at the same time. Later, A gives up the role as chief risk officer but remains as an executive director.	No, on A’s first appointment (see example (1)). But when A gives up the role as chief risk officer, FCA approval is needed to perform the executive director function. Form E should be used. The application should state that it is being made as a result of A ceasing to perform a PRA-designated senior management function. Form A should be used if there have been changes in A’s fitness (SUP 10C.10.9D(4))	Yes, on A’s first appointment.	When A stops being a chief risk officer, A stops performing a PRA-designated senior management function. However, being an executive director requires FCA approval. A does not have that approval because A did not need it when A was first appointed. The combined effect of SUP 10C.9.8R and the relevant PRA rules is that the firm has three months to secure approval by the FCA. During that interim period, A keeps the status of a PRA approved person performing the director element of the PRA chief risk designated senior management function - which is included in that function under relevant PRA rules. The relevant PRA rules say that, during this transitional period, A is still treated as performing the PRA chief risk designated senior management function and SUP 10C.9.8R says that, for as long as A is performing a PRA-designated senior management function, A does not perform the executive director function.
(9) A is appointed as the chief finance officer and an executive director at the same time. Later, A switches to being chief risk officer while remaining as an executive director.	No	Yes	The arrangements in SUP 10C.9.8R continue to apply, even though A switches between PRA-designated senior management function after the PRA's first approval.
(10) A is appointed chief risk officer and an executive director. A goes on temporary sick leave. A takes up his old job when he comes back.	No, neither on A’s first appointment nor when A comes back from sick leave.	Yes	SUP 10C.9.8R still applies on A’s return because A does not stop performing either the PRA's chief risk function or what would otherwise have been the executive director function just because A goes on temporary sick leave.
(11) A is appointed to be chairman of the governing body and chairman of the nomination committee at the same time.	No. A does not need approval to perform the chair of the nomination committee function.	Yes, on first appointment.	Being chairman of the governing body is a PRA-designated senior management function. Therefore, the answer for example (1) applies.
2(12) ‘A’ is to be appointed to perform the Head of Overseas Branch PRA-designated senior management function (SMF19) for a third-country relevant authorised person. A is also an executive director of that firm’s UK branch.	No. A is not treated as performing the executive3 director function.	Yes	A’s functions as a director will be included in the PRA controlled function.
Note: The relevant PRA rules can be found in Chapter 2 of the part of the PRA rulebook called ‘Senior Management Functions’

CONC 7.12.3G01/04/2014

(1) CONC 1.2.2 R requires a firm to ensure its employees and agents comply with CONC and that it takes reasonable steps to ensure other persons who act on its behalf do so. This rule would apply where a debt collector acts as agent or on behalf of a lender.(2) Situations where it may be justified for a firm to refuse to deal with a person acting on behalf of a customer may include, for example, refusing to deal with that person where the firm is able to show that the person has

PR App 1.1.124/03/2016

1Note: The following definitions relevant to the prospectus rules are extracted from the Glossary.

Act	the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000.
admission to trading	admission to trading on a regulated market.
advertisement	(as defined in the PD Regulation) announcements:
	(1)	relating to a specific offer to the public of securities or to an admission to trading on a regulated market; and
	(2)	aiming to specifically promote the potential subscription or acquisition of securities.4
applicant	an applicant for approval of a prospectus or supplementary prospectus relating to transferable securities.
asset backed security	(as defined in the PD Regulation) securities which:
	(1)	represent an interest in assets, including any rights intended to assure servicing, or the receipt or timeliness of receipts by holders of assets of amounts payable thereunder; or
	(2)	are secured by assets and the terms of which provide for payments which relate to payments or reasonable projections of payments calculated by reference to identified or identifiable assets.
base prospectus	a base prospectus referred to in PR 2.2.7 R.
body corporate	(in accordance with section 417(1) of the Act (Definitions) any body corporate, including a body corporate constituted under the law of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom;
building block	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a list of additional information requirements, not included in one of the schedules, to be added to one or more schedules, as the case may be, depending on the type of instrument and/or transaction for which a prospectus or base prospectus is drawn up.4
collective investment undertaking other than the closed-end type	(in PR) (as defined in Article 2.1(o) of the prospectus directive) unit trusts and investment companies:
	(1)	the object of which is the collective investment of capital provided by the public, and which operate on the principle of risk-spreading;
	(2)	the units of which are, at the holder's request, repurchased or redeemed, directly or indirectly, out of the assets of these undertakings.4
4 company	any body corporate.
Consolidated Admissions and Reporting Directive	Directive 2001/34/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council on the admission of securities to official stock exchange listing and on information to be published on those securities.
credit institution	as defined in article 4(1)(1) of the 7 EU CRR.7 7 7
director	(in accordance with section 417(1)(a) of the Act) a person occupying in relation to it the position of a director (by whatever name called) and, in relation to an issuer which is not a body corporate, a person with corresponding powers and duties.
EEA State	(in accordance with paragraph 8 of Schedule 3 to the Act (EEA Passport Rights)) a State which is a contracting party to the agreement on the European Economic Area signed at Oporto on 2 May 1992, as it has effect for the time being; as at 1 May 2004, the following are the EEA States: Austria, Belgium, Cyprus, the Czech Republic, Denmark, Estonia, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Hungary, Iceland, Ireland, Italy, Latvia, Liechtenstein, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Malta, the Netherlands, Norway, Poland, Portugal, the Slovak Republic, Slovenia, Spain, Sweden and the United Kingdom.
equity security	(as defined in Article 2.1(b) of the prospectus directive) shares and other transferable securities equivalent to shares in companies, as well as any other type of transferable securities giving the right to acquire any of the aforementioned securities as a consequence of their being converted or the rights conferred by them being exercised, provided that securities of the latter type are issued by the issuer of the underlying shares or by an entity belonging to the group of the said issuer.
equity share	shares comprised in a company's equity share capital.
equity share capital	(for a company), its issued share capital excluding any part of that capital which, neither as respects dividends nor as respects capital, carries any right to participate beyond a specified amount in a distribution.
8ESMA Prospectus Opinion	the opinion published by ESMA on the ‘Format of the base prospectus and consistent application of Article 26(4) of the Prospectus Regulation’ (ESMA/2013/1944).
8ESMA Prospectus Questions and Answers	the Questions and Answers for prospectuses published by ESMA (ESMA/2014/1279).
ESMA Prospectus Recommendations8 8	the ESMA update of the CESR8recommendations: The consistent implementation of Commission Regulation (EC) No 809/2004 implementing the Prospectus Directive (ESMA/2013/319).8 8
executive procedures	the procedures relating to the giving of warning notices, decision notices and supervisory notices that are described in DEPP 4 (Decision by FCA staff under executive procedures)2. 2 2
FCA	the Financial Conduct Authority.
guarantee	(as defined in the PD Regulation) any arrangement intended to ensure that any obligation material to the issue will be duly serviced, whether in the form of guarantee, surety, keep well agreement, mono-line insurance policy or other equivalent commitment.
guarantor	a person that provides a guarantee.
Home State or Home Member State	(as defined in section 102C of the Act) in relation to an issuer of transferable securities, the EEA State which is the "home Member State" for the purposes of the prospectus directive (which is to be determined in accordance with Article 2.1(m) of that directive).
Host State or Host Member State	(as defined in Article 2.1(n) of the prospectus directive) the EEA State where an offer to the public is made or admission to trading is sought, when different from the home State.
issuer	(as defined in section 102A of the Act) a legal person who issues or proposes to issue the transferable securities in question.4
4 key information	(in PR) (as defined in section 87A(9) and (10) of the Act) the information which is essential to enable investors to understand the transferable securities to which the prospectus relates and decide whether to consider the offer further. The key information must include:
	(a)	the essential characteristics of, and risks associated with, the issuer and any guarantor, including their assets, liabilities and financial positions;
	(b)	the essential characteristics of, and risks associated with, investment in the transferable securities, including any rights attaching to the securities;
	(c)	the general terms of the offer, including an estimate of the expenses charged to an investor by the issuer and the offeror, if not the issuer;
	(d)	details of the admission to trading; and
	(e)	the reasons for the offer and proposed use of the proceeds.
5 limited liability partnership	(a)	a body corporate incorporated under the Limited Liability Partnerships Act 2000;
	(b)	a body corporate incorporated under legislation having the equivalent effect to the Limited Liability Partnerships Act 2000.
MiFID 3	The European Parliament and Council Directive on markets in financial instruments (No. 2004/39/EC). See also MiFID Regulation and MiFID implementing Directive.3
non-equity transferable securities	(as defined in section 102A of the Act) all transferable securities that are not equity securities.
	Note: In the prospectus directive and the PD Regulation, the Commission uses the term "non-equity securities" rather than "non-equity transferable securities".
offer	an offer of transferable securities to the public.
offer of transferable securities to the public	(as defined in section 102B of the Act), in summary:
	(a)	a communication to any person which presents sufficient information on: (i) the transferable securities to be offered, and (ii) the terms on which they are offered, to enable an investor to decide to buy or subscribe for the securities in question;
	(b)	which is made in any form or by any means;
	(c)	including the placing of securities through a financial intermediary;
	(d)	but not including a communication in connection with trading on: (i) a regulated market; (ii) a multilateral trading facility; or (iii) any market prescribed by an order under section 130A of the Act.
	Note: This is only a summary, to see the full text of the definition, readers should consult section 102B of the Act.
offering programme	(as defined in Article 2.1(k) of the prospectus directive) a plan which would permit the issuance of non-equity securities, including warrants in any form, having a similar type and/or class, in a continuous or repeated manner during a specified issuing period.
offeror	a person who makes an offer of transferable securities to the public.
5 officer	(in relation to a body corporate) (as defined in section 400(5) of the Act (Offences by bodies corporate etc)) a director, member of the committee of management, chief executive, manager, secretary, or other similar officer of the body, or a person purporting to act in that capacity or a controller of the body.
overseas company	a company incorporated outside the United Kingdom.
Part 6 rules	(in accordance with section 73A(1) of the Act), rules made for the purposes of Part 6 of the Act.
5partnership	(in accordance with section 417(1) of the Act (Definitions)) any partnership, including a partnership constituted under the law of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom, but not including a limited liability partnership.
PD	prospectus directive.
PD Regulation	Regulation number 809/2004 of the European Commission.
person	(in accordance with the Interpretation Act 1978) any person, including a body of persons corporate or unincorporated that is, a natural person, a legal person and, for example, a partnership).
PR	the Prospectus Rules sourcebook.
profit estimate	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a profit forecast for a financial period which has expired and for which results have not yet been published.
profit forecast	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a form of words which expressly states or by implication indicates a figure or a minimum or maximum figure for the likely level of profits or losses for the current financial period and/or financial periods subsequent to that period, or contains data from which a calculation of such a figure for future profits or losses may be made, even if no particular figure is mentioned and the word "profit" is not used.
property collective investment undertaking	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a collective investment undertaking whose investment objective is the participation in the holding of property in the long term.
prospectus	a prospectus required under the prospectus directive.
prospectus directive	the Directive of the European Parliament and of the Council of 4 November 2003 on the prospectus to be published when securities are offered to the public or admitted to trading (No 2003/71/EC).
Prospectus RTS Regulations 9 8	9(1)	9Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) No 382/2014 supplementing Directive 2003/71/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council with regard to regulatory technical standards for publication of supplements to the prospectus9; and
	9(2)	9Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2016/301 supplementing Directive 2003/71/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council with regard to regulatory technical standards for approval and publication of the prospectus and dissemination of advertisements and amending Commission Regulation (EC) No 809/2004.
Prospectus Rules	(as defined in section 73A(4) of the Act) rules expressed to relate to transferable securities.
Public international body	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a legal entity of public nature established by an international treaty between sovereign States and of which one or more Member States are members.
qualified investor	(as defined in section 86(7) of the Act) in relation to an offer of transferable securities:4
	(a)	a person or entity described in points (1) to (4) of Section I of Annex II to MiFID, other than a person who, before the making of the offer, has agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with MiFID; or4 4
	(b)	a person who has made a request to one or more relevant firms to be treated as a professional client in accordance with Section II of Annex II to MiFID and has not subsequently, but before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II of MiFID; or4 4
	(c)	a person who is recognised as an eligible counterparty in accordance with article 24 of MiFID and has not, before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II of MiFID; or4 4
	(d)	a person whom any relevant firm is authorised to continue to treat as a professional client in accordance with article 71(6) of MiFID.4
registration document	a registration document referred to in PR 2.2.2 R.
regulated information	(as defined in the PD Regulation) all information which the issuer, or any person who has applied for the admission of securities to trading on a regulated market without the issuer’s consent, is required to disclose under Directive 2001/34/EC or under Article 6 of Directive 2003/6/EC.3
regulated market	a multilateral system operated and/or managed by a market operator, which brings together or facilitates the bringing together of multiple third-party buying and selling interests in financial instruments in the system and in accordance with its non-discretionary rules in a way that results in a contract, in respect of the financial instruments admitted to trading under its rules and/or systems, and which is authorised and functions regularly and in accordance with the provisions of Title III of MiFID.3
RIS	Regulatory Information Service.
risk factors	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a list of risks which are specific to the situation of the issuer and/or the securities and which are material for taking investment decisions.
rule	(in accordance with section 417(1) of the Act (Definitions)) a rule made by the FCA under the Act.
schedule	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a list of minimum information requirements adapted to the particular nature of the different types of issuers and/or the different securities involved.
securities issued in a continuous and repeated manner	(as defined in Article 2.1(l) of the prospectus directive) issues on tap or at least two separate issues of securities of a similar type and/or class over a period of 12 months.
securities note	a securities note referred to in PR 2.2.2 R.
small and medium-sized enterprise	(as defined in Article 2.1(f) of the prospectus directive) companies, which, according to their last annual or consolidated accounts, meet at least two of the following three criteria: an average number of employees during the financial year of less than 250, a total balance sheet not exceeding €43,000,000 and an annual net turnover not exceeding €50,000,000.
special purpose vehicle	(as defined in the PD Regulation) an issuer whose objects and purposes are primarily the issue of securities.
statutory notice associated decision	a decision which is made by the FCA and which is associated with a decision to give a statutory notice, including a decision:
statutory notice decision	a decision by the FCA on whether or not to give a statutory notice.
	(a)	to determine or extend the period for making representations;
	(b)	to determine whether a copy of the statutory notice needs to be given to any third party and the period for him to make representations;
	(c)	to refuse access to FCA material;
	(d)	as to the information which it is appropriate to publish about the matter to which a final notice or an effective supervisory notice relates.
summary	(in relation to a prospectus) the summary included in the prospectus.
supplementary prospectus	a supplementary prospectus containing details of a new factor, mistake or inaccuracy.
transferable security	(as defined in section 102A of the Act) anything which is a transferable security for the purposes of MiFID 3, other than money-market instruments for the purposes of that directive which have a maturity of less than 12 months. 3
	Note: In the prospectus directive and PD regulation, the Commission uses the term "security" rather than "transferable security".
umbrella collective investment scheme	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a collective investment undertaking invested in one or more collective investment undertakings, the asset of which is composed of separate class(es) or designation(s) of securities.
United Kingdom	England and Wales, Scotland and Northern Ireland (but not the Channel Islands or the Isle of Man).
units of a collective investment scheme	(as defined in Article 2.1(p) of the prospectus directive) securities issued by a collective investment undertaking as representing the rights of the participants in such an undertaking over its assets.
working day	(as defined in section 103 of the Act) any day other than a Saturday, a Sunday, Christmas Day, Good Friday or a day which is a bank holiday under the Banking and Financial Dealings Act 1971 in any part of the United Kingdom.

FEES 9.2.1ER08/07/2016

4If:(1) there is a payment system allocation for a given fee year to a card payment system or to an IFR card payment system (in either Table A or Table C of FEES 9 Annex 1R respectively); and(2) the operator of that payment system is acting as an acquirer, as a card issuer or as both an acquirer and card issuer in that card payment system or IFR card system;that operator must pay the entire payment system allocation for that card payment system or IFR card payment system as PSR

SUP App 3.6.9G01/07/2003

In the case of a UK firm conducting portfolio management, for example, this would mean looking at where the investment decisions and management are actually carried on in order to determine where the service is undertaken. Similarly, a UK stockbroker that receives orders by telephone from a customer in France for execution on a UK exchange may be deemed to be dealing or receiving and transmitting orders within the territory of the United Kingdom. In such a case, whether the firm

COLL 7.7.15G01/07/2013

(1) An authorised fund manager may add other information to that which is required by COLL 7.7.10 R2 to COLL 7.7.14 R if it considers that it is relevant in the context of the proposed UCITS merger. For example, it may be appropriate for the information provided in accordance with COLL 7.7.13 R (3)(a) to contain a recommendation by the respective authorised fund manager3 of an AUT or ACS3 or the directors of an ICVC as to the course of action the unitholders should take.23(2)

CONC 7.13.5G01/04/2014

A firm should ensure (subject to any legal requirements) that adequate and accurate information it holds about a customer in relation to a debt is made available to persons involved on its behalf in the debt recovery process. Information relating to the customer which should be made available to agents or employees includes, for example:(1) being in financial difficulties;(2) being particularly vulnerable;(3) disputing the debt;(4) a repayment plan or forbearance being in place;(5)

Related provisions for BIPRU 7.4.9

Search Term(s)

Filter by Topics

Filter by Modules

Filter by Documents

Filter by Keywords

Effective Period

Similar To