Related provisions for BIPRU 1.2.19
141 - 160 of 310 items.
A UK recognised body need not give the FCA2notice of:2(1) routine inspections or visits undertaken in the course of regular monitoring, complaints handling or as part of a series of 'theme visits'; or(2) routine requests for information; or(3) investigations into the conduct of members of the UK recognised body or of other users of its facilities where the use of its facilities is a small or incidental part of the subject matter of the investigation.
If any civil or criminal legal proceedings are instituted against a UK recognised body, it must, unless REC 3.12.2 R applies, immediately give notice of that event and give the following information to the FCA:11(1) in the case of civil proceedings, the name of the claimant, particulars of the claim, the amount of damages and any other remedy sought by the claimant, and particulars of any allegation that any act or omission of that body was in bad faith; and(2) in the case of
The FCA3 expects to have an open, cooperative and constructive relationship with UK recognised bodies to enable it to have a broad picture of the UK recognised body's activities and its ability to meet the recognised body requirements.2 This broad picture is intended to complement the information which the FCA3 will obtain under section 293 of the Act (Notification requirements) or under notification rules made under that section (see REC 3). The FCA3 will usually arrange meetings
A firm should consider whether it should notify the FCA and the PRA (if it is a PRA-authorisedfirm) or the FCA (in all other cases) under Principle 11 if:(1) the firm expects or knows its auditor will qualify his report on the audited annual financial statements or add an explanatory paragraph; or (2) the firm receives a written communication from its auditor commenting on internal controls (see also SUP 15.3).
A firm or qualifying parent undertaking must notify the FCA without delay of a change to any of the following which could have materially affect the information in IFPRU 11 Annex 2R (Resolution plan information):(1) its legal or organisational structure; (2) its business; or(3) its financial situation.[Note: article 10(6) second paragraph of RRD]
If a firm in relation to an exposure covered by BIPRU 13:(1) has an exposure of a non-standard type; or(2) an exposure that is part of a non-standard arrangement; or(3) has an exposure that, taken together with other exposures (whether or not they are subject to BIPRU 13), gives rise to a non-standard counterparty credit risk; or(4) is subject to the rule in BIPRU 13.2.1 R;it must notify the appropriate regulator as soon as practicable of that fact, the counterparty involved,
1Under
section 312A of the Act, an EEA market operator may make arrangements
in the United Kingdom to facilitate
access to, or use of, a regulated market or multilateral trading facility operated by
it if:(1) the operator has given its Home State regulator notice of its intention
to make such arrangements; and(2) the Home
State regulator has given the FCA3 notice of the operator's intention.3
If a firm becomes aware at any time that its auditor is not independent of the firm, it must take reasonable steps to ensure that it has an auditor independent of the firm. The firm must notify the FCA and the PRA (if it is a PRA-authorisedfirm) or the FCA (in all other cases) if independence is not achieved within a reasonable time.
1A UK RIE and an RAP2must immediately notify the FCA3of:3(1) significant breaches of its rules; or(2) disorderly trading conditions on any of its markets or auctions.2[Note: Article 26(2), first sentence (part) and Article 43(2), first sentence (part) of MiFID. The rest of Article 26(2), first sentence (in so far as it relates to market operators operating an MTF) and Article 43(2), first sentence of MiFID is implemented by REC 3.21.1 R (2)]
Sections 393 (Third party rights) and 394 (Access to FCA1 material) of the Act confer additional procedural rights relating to third parties and to disclosure of FCA1 material. These rights apply in certain warning notice and decision notice cases referred to in section 392 of the Act (Application of sections 393 and 394). The cases in which these additional rights apply are identified in DEPP 2 Annex 1 by asterisks; these are generally cases in which the warning notice or decision
(1) This section applies to a firm which is subject to the prohibition on opening a current account for a disqualified person in section 40 of the Immigration Act 2014.(2) This section does not apply to a branch of a firm where the branch is established outside the United Kingdom.[Note: A firm is subject to the prohibition in section 40 of the Immigration Act 2014 if it is a “bank” or “building society” for the purposes of section 42 of the Immigration Act 2014.]
If a certificate is granted then, until it is revoked, it is conclusive evidence that the exclusion under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order applies. A person to whom a certificate is given should notify the FCA of any significant changes to the purpose or nature of the content of the relevant publication or service. The FCA will need to keep the content of the publication or service in question under review.
The RAP
regulations apply modified provisions of the Act to
an RAP. For example, an RAP is an exempt
person in respect of its business as an auction
platform due to the application of section 285 of the Act as modified by the the RAP
regulations. Similarly, section 293 of the Act is
applied and modified by the RAP regulations to
provide for notification rules and
notification requirements in relation to RAPs.
(1) An EEA UCITS management company which applies to manage a UCITS scheme under paragraph 15A(1) of Schedule 3 to the Act must provide the FCA with the following documents:(a) the written contract3 that has been entered into with the depositary3 of the scheme, as referred to in article 22(2) of the UCITS Directive3; (b) information on any delegation arrangements it has made regarding the functions of investment management and administration, as referred to in Annex II of the
An EEA UCITS management company that manages a UCITS scheme must comply with the rules of the FCAHandbook which relate to the constitution and functioning of the UCITS scheme (the fund application rules), as follows:(1) the setting up and authorisation of the UCITS scheme (COLL 1 (Introduction), COLL 2 (Authorised fund applications), COLL 3 (Constitution), COLL 6.5 (Appointment and replacement of the authorised fund manager and the depositary), COLL 6.6 (Powers and duties of
(1) A firm must use Form E (SUP 10C Annex 3D) where an approved person is both ceasing to perform one or more controlled functions and needs to be approved in relation to one or more FCA-designated senior management function within the same firm or group. (2) A firm must not use Form E if the approved person has never before been approved to perform for any firm:(a) an FCA controlled function that is a significant influence function;(b) an FCA-designated senior management function;
(1) The effect of COLL 7.7.1 R, and in particular the narrow Glossary definition of domestic UCITS merger which is drafted in accordance with article 2.1(r) of the UCITS Directive, is that this section will not apply to a merger in the United Kingdom between two or more UCITS schemes unless one of them has been the subject of a UCITS marketing notification.(2) For arrangements to constitute a cross-border UCITS merger, at least two of the relevant UCITS must be:(a) established
(1) The authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme that is a merging UCITS or a receiving UCITS in a proposed UCITS merger must ensure that a document containing appropriate and accurate information on the merger is provided to the unitholders of that scheme so as to enable them to:(a) make an informed judgment about the impact of the proposal on their investment;(b) exercise their rights under regulation 12 (Right of redemption) of the UCITS Regulations 2011; and(c) where applicable,