Related provisions for MCOB 13.3.4C
341 - 360 of 1061 items.
2These Regulations implement in part the Financial Conglomerates Directive,25 which imposes certain procedural requirements on the FCA as a competent authority under the Directive. These Regulations also make specific provision about the exercise of certain supervisory powers in relation to financial conglomerates. 25 Directive 2002/87/EC
2The FCA's powers to vary a firm’s Part 4A permission or to impose requirements under sections 55J and 55L of the Act have been extended under these Regulations. The FCA is able to use these powers where it is desirable to do so for the purpose of: supervision in accordance with the Financial Conglomerates Directive;acting in accordance with specified provisions of the Capital Requirements Directive; andacting in accordance with specified provisions of the Solvency II Directi
2The duty imposed by section 55B(3) (The threshold conditions) of the Act does not prevent the FCA from exercising its own-initiative power for these purposes. But subject to that, when exercising this power under the Regulations, the FCA will do so in a manner consistent with its approach generally to variation under the Act.
2The FCA may apply to the court for an injunction if it appears that a person, whether authorised or not, is reasonably likely to breach a relevant requirement12, or engage in market abuse. It can also apply for an injunction if a person has breached one of those requirements or has engaged in market abuse and is likely to continue doing so. 12 Under section 380(6)(a) and (7)(a), a 'relevant requirement' in relation to an application by the appropriate regulator means a requirement:
2The FCA may consider taking action for a financial penalty or public censure, as well as seeking restitution, if a person has breached a relevant requirement13, or has engaged in, or required or encouraged others to engage in, market abuse. 13 Under section 204A(2), a 'relevant requirement' in relation to an application by the appropriate regulator means a requirement: which is imposed by or under the Act or by a qualifying EU provision specified, or of a description specified,
Except for operational risk, a firm that is permitted to use internal approaches for the calculation of risk weighted exposure amounts or own fund requirements must report annually to the FCA: (1) the results of the calculations of its internal approaches for its exposures or positions that are included in the benchmark portfolios; and(2) an explanation of the methodologies used to produce those calculations in (1).[Note: article 78(1) of CRD]
1The CCA Order gives the FCA the power to enforce the CCA through the application of its investigation and sanctioning powers in the Act by reference to the contravention of CCA Requirements and criminal offences under the CCA. The FCA's investigation and sanctioning powers include the following: power to censure or fine an approved person, or impose a suspension or a restriction on their approval under section 66 of the Act, for being knowingly concerned in a contravention by
1The FCA's approach to taking enforcement action under the CCA Order will mirror its general approach to enforcing the Act, as set out in EG 2. It will seek to exercise its enforcement powers in a manner that is transparent, proportionate, responsive to the issue and consistent with its publicly stated policies. It will also seek to ensure fair treatment when exercising its enforcement powers. Finally, it will aim to change the behaviour of the person who is the subject of its
The purpose of this section is to require firms to submit their annual report and accounts, and the annual report and accounts of their mixed activity holding companies, to the FCA online through the appropriate systems accessible from the FCA's website. This information is used in the monitoring of firms both individually and collectively.
A firm in the RAG in column (1) and which is a type of firm in column (2) must submit its annual report and accounts to the FCA annually on a single entity basis.
(1) |
(2) |
|
RAG |
Firm type |
|
1 |
||
2.2 |
The Society |
|
3 |
||
Exempt CAD firms subject to IPRU (INV) Chapter 13 |
||
All other firms subject to the following chapters in IPRU(INV): |
||
(1) |
Chapter 3 |
|
(2) |
Chapter 5 |
|
(3) |
Chapter 9 |
|
4 |
||
Exempt CAD firms subject to IPRU (INV) Chapter 13 |
||
All other firms subject to the following chapters in IPRU(INV): |
||
(1) |
Chapter 3 |
|
(2) |
Chapter 5 |
|
(3) |
Chapter 9 |
|
(5) |
Chapter 12 |
|
5 |
All firms |
|
6 |
All firms |
|
7 |
||
Exempt CAD firms subject to IPRU (INV) Chapter 13 |
||
8 |
All firms |
|
A firm in the RAG group in column (1), which is a type of firm in column (2) and whose ultimate parent is a mixed activity holding company must:
- (1)
submit the annual report and accounts of the mixed activity holding company to the FCA annually; and
- (2)
notify the FCA that it is covered by this reporting requirement by email using the email address specified in SUP 16.3.10 G (3), by its accounting reference date.
(1)
(2)
RAG
Firm type
1
3
4
7
(1) Section 55C of the Financial Services Act 2012 (Power to amend Schedule 6) gave HM Treasury the power to amend Schedule 6 of the Act. HM Treasury exercised this power by making The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Threshold Conditions) Order 2013 which entered into force on 1 April 2013 (the "TC Order"). The TC Order's main result is the creation of four sets of threshold conditions, namely:(i) conditions for firms authorised and regulated by the FCA only (paragraphs
(1) As a result of the new legal framework for threshold conditions described in COND 1.1A.1G (1), PRA-authorised persons and firms seeking to become PRA-authorised persons are subject to two sets of threshold conditions:(i) the FCA-specific conditions referred to in COND 1.1A.1G (1)(ii)and(ii) one of the two PRA-specific conditions referred to in COND 1.1A.1G (1)(iii) or (iv), depending on the PRA-regulated activities which the PRA-authorised person or firm carries on, or is
COND applies to incoming EEA firms and incoming Treaty firms as set out below:(1) for an incoming EEA firm or an incoming Treaty firm which does not carry on any PRA-regulated activities, FCAthreshold conditions 2C to 2F apply; and(2) for an incoming EEA firm or an incoming Treaty firm which carries on a PRA-regulated activity, FCAthreshold conditions 3B to 3E apply.FCAthreshold conditions apply to incoming EEA firms and incoming Treaty firms only in as far as relevant to the
(1) 2The FCAthreshold conditions apply to a person that carries on, or seeks to carry on, only relevant credit activities (within paragraph 2G of Schedule 6 to the Act) and which therefore has, or is applying for, limited permission with a number of modifications (see article 10(19) of the Regulated Activities Amendment Order). Regulated activities a person carries on in relation to which sections 20(1) and (1A) and 23(1A) of the Act do not apply as a result of section 39(1D)
The FCA will not grant an investment firm consolidation waiver unless:(1) the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group meets the conditions for being a CAD Article 22 group;(2) the FCA is satisfied that each BIPRU firm in the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group will be able to meet its capital requirements using the calculation of capital resources in GENPRU 2 Annex 6R (Capital resources table for a BIPRU 2firm with a waiver from consolidated supervision); and(3) the
If a firm has an investment firm consolidation waiver, it must:(1) ensure that each CAD investment firm in the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group which is a firm or an EEA firm has in place systems to monitor and control the sources of capital and funding of all the members in the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group;(2) notify the FCA of any serious risk that could undermine the financial stability of the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group, as soon as
Although an investment firm consolidation waiver switches off most of this chapter, a firm should still carry out the capital adequacy calculations in BIPRU 8.3 to BIPRU 8.8 as if those parts of this chapter still applied to the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group and report these to the FCA. It should also still monitor large exposure risk on a consolidated basis.
(1) 6Under paragraph 15A(1) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, an EEA UCITS management company intending to exercise an EEA right to provide collective portfolio management services for a UCITS scheme must, before it undertakes that activity, obtain the FCA's10 approval to manage that UCITS scheme. Firms should use the application form set out in SUP 13A Annex 3 R (EEA UCITS management companies: application for approval to manage a UCITS scheme established in the United Kingdom)
(1) A written notice from a Treaty firm under paragraph 5(2) of Schedule 4 to the Act must be: (a) addressed for the attention of the authorisations team in the PRA or FCA, as appropriate; and101010(b) delivered to the appropriate UK regulator10 by one of the methods in (2).10(2) The written notice may be delivered by:(a) post to either of the following addresses, as appropriate:1010(i) the address for notices to the FCA: The Financial Conduct Authority, 25 The North Colonnade,
(1) A listed company must notify a RIS as soon as possible when a document has been forwarded to the FCA under LR 9.6.1 R or LR 9.6.2 R unless the full text of the document is provided to the RIS.(2) A notification made under paragraph (1) must set out where copies of the relevant document can be obtained.
A listed company which changes its name must, as soon as possible:(1) notify a RIS of the change, stating the date on which it has taken effect;(2) inform the FCA in writing of the change; and(3) where the listed company is incorporated in the United Kingdom, send the FCA a copy of the revised certificate of incorporation issued by the Registrar of Companies.
A credit union must provide the FCA, once a year, with a report in the format set out in CREDS 9 Annex 1 R (Credit Union complaints return) which contains (for the relevant reporting period) information about:(1) the total number of complaints received by the credit union;(2) (for the product/service groupings within section 5)3 the number of complaints closed by the credit union:(a) within eight weeks of receipt; and(b) more than eight weeks after receipt;(2A) (for other lending
A report under this section must be given or addressed, and delivered, in the way set out in SUP 16.3.6 R to SUP 16.3.16 G (General provisions on reporting), except that, instead of the credit union's usual supervisory contact, the report must be given to or addressed for the attention of the Central Reporting team at the FCA.22
- (1)
COCON applies to:
- (a)
an SMF manager;
- (b)
an employee (“P”) of a relevant authorised person who:
- (i)
performs the function of an SMF manager;
- (ii)
is not an approved person to perform the function in question; and
- (iii)
is required to be an approved person at the time P performs that function; and
- (i)
- (c)
an employee of a relevant authorised person who would be an SMF manager but for SUP 10C.3.13R (The 12-week rule);
- (d)
a certification employee employed by a relevant authorised person, even if the certification employee has not been notified that COCON applies to them or notified of the rules that apply to them;
2 - (e)
an employee of a relevant authorised person who would be a certification employee but for SYSC 5.2.27R(1) (Scope: emergency appointments) or SYSC 5.2.28AR (Scope: temporary UK role)6; and12
- (f)
- (g)
an FCA-approved person or PRA-approved person approved to perform a controlled function in a Solvency II firm (including a large non-directive insurer) or a small non-directive insurer4.2
- (a)
- (2)
For Swiss general insurers, references in this sourcebook to parts of the PRA Rulebook for ‘Solvency II firms’ are to be read as references to the corresponding parts of the PRA Rulebook applying to large non directive insurers.7
- (3)
COCON does not apply to approved persons approved to perform a controlled function in SUP 10A.1.15R to SUP 10A.1.16BR (appointed representatives).2
The FCA interprets the phrase ‘dealing with’ in COCON 1.1.10R as including having contact with customers and extending beyond ‘dealing’ as used in the phrase ‘dealing in investments’. ‘Dealing in’ is used in Schedule 2 to the Act to describe, in general terms, the regulated activities which are specified in Part II of the Regulated Activities Order.
6The FCA interprets the phrase ‘a client of the firm in the United Kingdom’ in COCON 1.1.10R as referring to:(1) for a client which is a body corporate, its office or branch in the United Kingdom; or(2) for a client who is an individual, a client who is in the United Kingdom at the time of the dealing.
The FCA1 would not normally seek to gather information using the methods described in SUP 2.3 or SUP 2.4 in a situation where the FCA1 could not have obtained it under the powers in Part XI of the Act (Information Gathering and Investigations). In particular, the limitations in the following sections of the Act are relevant to this chapter:11(1) section 175(5) (Information and documents: supplementary powers) under which no person may be required under Part XI of the Act (Information
When the FCA1 obtains confidential information using the methods of information gathering described in SUP 2.3 or SUP 2.4, it is obliged under Part XXIII of the Act (Public Record, Disclosure of Information and Co-operation) to treat that information as confidential. The FCA1 will not disclose confidential information without lawful authority, for example if an exception applies under the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Disclosure of Confidential Information) Regulations
The FCA2 will consider all the relevant circumstances of a case when it
determines the length of the period of suspension, restriction or condition3 (if any)
that is appropriate for the breach concerned,
and is also a sufficient deterrent. Set out below is a list of factors that
may be relevant for this purpose. The list is not exhaustive: not all of these
factors may be applicable in a particular case, and there may be other factors,
not listed, that are relevant.2
The following factors may be relevant
to determining the appropriate length of the period of suspension, restriction or condition3 to be imposed on a person under
the Act:(1) DeterrenceWhen determining
the appropriate length of the period of suspension, restriction or condition3 the FCA2 will
have regard to the principal purpose for which it imposes sanctions, namely
to promote high standards of regulatory and/or market conduct by deterring persons who have committed breaches
The FCA2 may delay the commencement of the period of suspension or restriction.
In deciding whether this is appropriate, the FCA2 will take into account all the circumstances of a case. Considerations
that may be relevant in respect of an authorised
person, sponsor or primary
information provider2 include:22(1) the impact of the suspension or
restriction on consumers;(2) any practical measures the authorised person, sponsor or primary information provider2 needs to take before
1The FCA2 and
the person on whom a suspension
or restriction is to be imposed may seek to agree the length of the period
of suspension or restriction and other terms. In recognition of the benefits
of such agreements, DEPP 6.7 provides that the length of a period of suspension or restriction
which might otherwise have been imposed will be reduced to reflect the stage
at which the FCA2 and
the person concerned reached
an agreement.22
Within the legal constraints that apply, the FCA1 may pass on to a skilled person any information which it considers relevant to the skilled person's function. A skilled person, being a primary recipient under section 348 of the Act (Restrictions on disclosure of confidential information by Authority etc.), is bound by the confidentiality provisions in Part XXIII of the Act (Public record, disclosure of information and cooperation) as regards confidential information received1
2In respect of the appointment of a skilled person under section 166A (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information) of the Act, a contractual or other requirement imposed on a person to keep any information confidential will not apply if:(1) the information is or may be relevant to anything required to be done as part of the skilled person's appointment under section 166A (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information) of the Act;(2) a firm
2A firm may provide information that would otherwise be subject to a contractual or other requirement to keep it in confidence if it is provided for the purposes of anything required to be done in respect of the skilled person's collection or updating of information under section 166A (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information) of the Act.
1Subject to SYSC 12.1.2 R to SYSC 12.1.4 R, this section applies to each of the following which is a member of a group:(1) a firm that falls into any one or more of the following categories:(a) a regulated entity that is:15(i) an investment firm, except a designated investment firm unless (ii) applies; or 15(ii) a credit institution or designated investment firm that is a subsidiary undertaking of a parent institution in a Member State that is an IFPRU investment firm;15(b)
SYSC 12.1.8R (1) deals with the systems and controls that a firm should have in respect of the exposure it has to the rest of the group. On the other hand, the purpose of SYSC 12.1.8R (2) and the rules in this section that amplify it is to require groups to have adequate systems and controls. However a group is not a single legal entity on which obligations can be imposed. Therefore the obligations have to be placed on individual firms. The purpose of imposing the obligations
(1) A Chief Risk Officer should:(a) be accountable to the firm'sgoverning body for oversight of firm-wide risk management;(b) be fully independent of a firm's individual business units;(c) have sufficient authority, stature and resources for the effective execution of his responsibilities; (d) have unfettered access to any parts of the firm's business capable of having an impact on the firm's risk profile; (e) ensure that the data used by the firm to assess its risks are fit for
(1) The Chief Risk Officer should be accountable to a firm'sgoverning body.(2) The FCA9 recognises that in addition to the Chief Risk Officers primary accountability to the governing body, an executive reporting line will be necessary for operational purposes. Accordingly, to the extent necessary for effective operational management, the Chief Risk Officer should report into a very senior executive level in the firm. In practice, the FCA9 expects this will be to the chief executive,
(1) The FCA9 considers that, while the firm'sgoverning body is ultimately responsible for risk governance throughout the business, firms should consider establishing a governing body risk committee to provide focused support and advice on risk governance.(2) Where a firm has established a governing body risk committee, its responsibilities will typically include:(a) providing advice to the firm'sgoverning body on risk strategy, including the oversight of current risk exposures
1The purpose of the rules and guidance in this section is to ensure that, in addition to the notifications made under SUP 12.7 (Appointed representatives; notification requirements), the FCA6 receives regular and comprehensive information about the appointed representatives engaged by a firm, so that the FCA6 is in a better position to pursue the statutory objective6 of the protection of consumers.3666
(1) 1A firm must:(a) submit a report to the FCA6 annually, in the form of an amended copy of the relevant extract from the Financial Services Register,6 containing the information in (2);366(b) submit the report in (1) to the FCA6 within four months of the firm'saccounting reference date.666(2) The report in (1) must contain a list of all the current appointed representatives of the firm as at the firm'saccounting reference date6.6(3) The report in (1) is not required if:(a) the
In respect of banking services, the European Commission believes that "...to determine where the activity was carried on, the place of provision of what may be termed the 'characteristic performance' of the service i.e. the essential supply for which payment is due, must be determined" (Commission interpretative communication: Freedom to provide services and the interests of the general good in the Second Banking Directive (97/C 209/04)). In the view of the FCA and PRA6, this
The FCA and PRA are6 of the opinion that UK firms that are credit institutions and MiFID investment firms2 should apply the 'characteristic performance' test (as referred to in SUP App 3.6.7 G) when considering whether prior notification is required for services business. Firms should note that other EEA States may take a different view. Some EEA States may apply a solicitation test. This is a test as to whether it is the consumer or the provider that initiates the business r
The FCA and PRA consider6 that, in order to comply with Principle 3:Management and control (see PRIN 2.1.1 R), a firm should have appropriate procedures to monitor the nature of the services provided to its customers. Where a UK firm has non-resident customers but has not notified the EEA State in which the customers are resident that it wishes to exercise its freedom to provide services, the FCA and PRA6 would expect the firm's systems to include appropriate controls. Such controls