Related provisions for SUP 10C.3.15
1 - 20 of 103 items.
The FCA9 is concerned to ensure that every actuary appointed by a firm under PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act or for the purposes of PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, 6,9 has the necessary skill and experience to provide the firm with appropriate actuarial advice from a conduct perspective9. SUP 4.3.9 R to SUP 4.3.10 G set out the FCA’s9 rules and guidance aimed at achieving this.11
Before a firm applies for approval of the person it proposes to appoint as an actuary under PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act, or for the purposes of PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, 69, it must take reasonable steps to ensure that the actuary:11(1) has the required skill and experience to perform his functions under the regulatory system; and(2) is a Fellow of the Institute of Actuaries or of the Faculty of Actuaries.
To comply with SUP 4.3.9 R and Principle 3, before an actuary1 takes up his appointment the firm should ensure that the actuary: 1(1) has skills and experience appropriate to the nature, scale and complexity of the firm's business and the requirements and standards under the regulatory system to which it is subject; and(2) has adequate qualifications and experience, which includes holding an appropriate practising certificate1 under the rules of the Institute of Actuaries or the
A firm must not appoint under PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act or for the purposes of9 rule 6.1 of the PRA9 Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business,9 an actuary who is disqualified by the FCA10 under section 345 of the Act (Disciplinary measures: FCA) or the PRA under section 345A of the Act (Disciplinary measures: PRA10) from acting as an actuary either for that firm or for a relevant class of firm. 1181010
An actuary appointed to perform the actuarial function must, in respect of those classes of the firm's long-term insurance business which are covered by his appointment1:1(1) advise the firm's management, at the level of seniority that is reasonably appropriate, on1 the risks the firm runs in1 so far as they may have a material impact on the firm's ability to meet liabilities to policyholders in respect of long-term insurance contracts as they fall due and on the capital needed
The PRA Rulebook requires9firms to which this section applies to cause an investigation to be made at least yearly by the actuary or actuaries appointed to perform the actuarial function, and to report on the result of that investigation. The firm is responsible for the methods and assumptions used to determine the liabilities attributable to its long-term insurance business. The obligation on friendly societies to obtain a report from the 'appropriate actuary' under section 87
SUP 4.3.13 R is not intended to be exhaustive of the professional advice that a firm should take whether from an actuary appointed under this chapter or from any other actuary acting for the firm. Firms should consider what systems and controls are needed to ensure that they obtain appropriate professional advice on financial and risk analysis; for example:11(1) risk identification, quantification and monitoring;1(2) stress and scenario testing;1(3) ongoing financial conditions;1(4)
1An actuary appointed to perform the with-profits actuary function must:(1) advise the firm's management, at the level of seniority that is reasonably appropriate, on key aspects of the discretion to be exercised affecting those classes of the with-profits business of the firm in respect of which he has been appointed;(2) [deleted]88(2A) where the firm is a Solvency II firm, advise the firm'sgoverning body as to whether the assumptions used to calculate the future discretionary
1Firms should normally obtain advice, from the actuary appointed to perform the with-profits actuary function in respect of the affected class or classes of with-profits business, whenever they are preparing to make key decisions based on the exercise of discretion affecting their with-profits business. Firms should also have risk management processes in place to ensure that all relevant matters are referred to the actuary for advice.
A firm must require and allow any actuary appointed to perform the with-profits actuary function1 to perform his duties and must1:11(1) keep him informed of the firm's business and other plans (including, where relevant, those of any related firm, to the extent it is aware of these);(2) provide him with sufficient resources (including his own time and access to the time of others);(3) hold such data and establish such systems as he reasonably requires;(4) request his advice about
(1) The directors (or director) of an ICVC must take all practicable steps to ensure the ICVC has at all times as its ACD a person who is qualified to act as ACD.(2) If the ICVC ceases to have any director, the depositary must exercise its powers, under the OEIC Regulations, to appoint a person to be an ACD of the ICVC.(3) For an ICVC that holds annual general meetings under the OEIC Regulations, the1 appointment of an ACD (other than the first ACD), under (1) or (2), must terminate
(1) The appointment of an ACD terminates immediately upon it ceasing to be a director.(2) The appointment of an ACD terminates if a notice of termination of that appointment, the terms of which have been approved by a resolution of the board of directors of the ICVC, is given to the ACD.(3) If there is no director other than the ACD, the appointment of the ACD terminates if a notice of termination of that appointment is given by the depositary to the ACD and to the ICVC, following
If the ICVC ceases to have any directors, the depositary may:(1) retain the services of an authorised person to carry out the functions referred to in COLL 6.6.3 R (3)(a) and (b); or(2) manage the scheme property itself on behalf of the ICVC until a director is appointed or the winding up of the ICVC is commenced provided it is not prohibited from doing so by any law or rule.
(1) The authorised fund manager3 of an AUT3 or ACS3 is subject to removal by written notice by the depositary3 upon any of the following events:33(a) the calling of a meeting to consider a resolution for winding up the authorised fund manager3;3(b) an application being made to dissolve the authorised fund manager3 or to strike it off the Register of Companies;3(c) the presentation of a petition for the winding up of the authorised fund manager3;3(d) the making of, or any proposals
(1) The authorised fund manager of an AUT or ACS3 has the right to retire in favour of another person eligible under the Act and approved in writing by the depositary3 upon:33(a) the retiring authorised fund manager3 appointing that person by deed as authorised fund manager3 in its place and assigning to that person all its rights and duties as such a authorised fund manager3; and333(b) the new authorised fund manager3 entering into such deeds as the depositary3 reasonably considers
(1) The depositary of an authorised fund may not retire voluntarily except upon the appointment of a new depositary.(2) The depositary of an authorised fund must not retire voluntarily unless, before its retirement, it has ensured that the new depositary has been informed of any circumstance of which the retiring depositary has informed the FCA.(3) When the depositary of an authorised fund wishes to retire or ceases to be an authorised person, the authorised fundmanager may, subject
1Section 59(1) is relevant where the firm directly employs the person concerned. Under the provision, a firm ('A') must take reasonable care to ensure that no person performs a controlled function under an arrangement entered into by A in relation to the carrying on by it of a regulated activity, unless the appropriate regulator (as defined in section 59(4) of the Act)
approves the performance by that person of the controlled function to which the approval relates.
1Section 59(2) is relevant where the person is employed by a contractor of the firm. It requires a firm ('A') to take reasonable care to ensure that no person performs a controlled function under an arrangement entered into by a contractor of A in relation to the carrying on by A of a regulated activity, unless the appropriate regulator (as defined in section 59(4) of the Act)
approves the performance by that person of the controlled function to which the approval
1Where, in relation to a UK RIE a proposal has been made to appoint or elect a person as a key individual, that UK RIE must at least 30 days before the date of the appointment or election give notice of that event, and give the information specified for the purposes of this rule in REC 3.4.4A R to the FCA.3 [Note: Article 37(1), paragraph 1, second sentence of MiFID]3
(1) Key individuals include the persons who, under the operational or managerial arrangements of the UK recognised body, are appointed to manage the departments responsible for carrying out its relevant functions, whether or not they are members of its governing body. A person appointed to carry out specific tasks, such as to conduct a particular investigation into a specific set of facts, would not usually be a key individual.(2) A key individual need not be an employee of a
1The following information is specified for the purposes of REC 3.4.2A R:(1) that person's name;(2) his date of birth;(3) where applicable, a description of the responsibilities which he will have in the post to which he is to be appointed or elected, including for a UK RIE which operates an RAP where the person has responsibilities both in the UK RIE and RAP, a description of the responsibilities he has in respect of each body.3[Note: Article 37(1), paragraph 1, second sentence
Where the governing body of a UK recognised body delegates any of its functions (which relate to that UK recognised body'srelevant functions) to a standing committee, or appoints a standing committee to manage or oversee the carrying out of any of that UK recognised body'srelevant functions, that UK recognised body must immediately notify the FCA3 of that event and give the FCA3 the following information:33(1) the names of the members of that standing committee; and(2) the terms
(1) Standing committees include permanent committees with executive, supervisory, policy-making or rule-making responsibilities. Committees appointed for particular tasks or committees established for purely consultative or advisory purposes would not usually be considered to be standing committees.(2) Committees which include persons who are not members of the governing body can be standing committees.
Section 340 of the Act gives the PRA6 power to make rules requiring an authorised person, or an authorised person falling into a specified class, to appoint an actuary3. The PRA has exercised its power to make such rules in PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Actuaries; and PRA Rulebook: Non-Solvency II firms: Actuarial Requirements.5 The rule-making powers of the PRA and FCA6 under section 340 of the Act also extend to an actuary's3 duties.636666663336
This chapter defines the relationship between firms and their actuaries3 and clarifies the role which actuaries3 play in the appropriate regulator's monitoring of firms' compliance with the requirements and standards under the regulatory system. The chapter sets out rules and guidance on the appointment of actuaries3, and the termination of their3 term of office, as well as setting out their respective rights and duties. The purpose of the chapter is to ensure that:3333(1) long-term
The functions3 described by SUP 4.2.2 G (1) are performed by one or more actuaries who are3 required to hold office continuously and must be approved persons3. Solvency II firms are required to have an actuarial function. Solvency II firms are not required to appoint an external actuary to fulfil the actuarial function for the purposes of rule 6 of the PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, but they must do so if they do not have the internal capability
3In making appointments under this chapter and in allocating duties to actuaries, firms are reminded of their obligation under SYSC 2.1.1 R or rule 2.2(2) of the PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business4 to maintain a clear and appropriate apportionment of significant responsibilities so that it is clear who has which of those responsibilities and that the business and affairs of the firm can be adequately monitored and controlled by the directors, relevant
Where the auditors of a UK recognised body cease to act as such, that UK recognised body must immediately give the FCA1notice of that event, and the following information:1(1) whether the appointment of those auditors expired or was terminated;(2) the date on which they ceased to act; and(3) if it terminated, or decided not to renew, their appointment, its reasons for taking that action or decision.
Guidance on what constitutes a branch is given in SUP App 36. Note that if a UK MiFID investment firm is seeking to use a tied agent established in another EEA State, the rules in SUP 13 will apply as if that firm were seeking to establish a branch in that EEA State unless the firm has already established a branch in that EEA State (paragraph 20A of Schedule 3 to the Act).846
4An appointed representative appointed by a firm to carry on insurance mediation activity on its behalf may establish a branch in another EEA State under the Insurance Mediation Directive. In this case, the notice of intention8 in SUP 13.3.2 G (1) should be given to the appropriate UK regulator20 by the firm on behalf of the appointed representative.5820
8A tied agent appointed by a MiFID investment firm to carry on investment services and activities (and ancillary services where relevant) does not have its own passporting right to establish a branch in another EEA State. However, a MiFID investment firm remains free to appoint a tied agent to do business in another EEA State and where it does so, the tied agent will benefit from its passport.9
In order to enable the compliance function to discharge its responsibilities properly and independently, a common platform firm and a management company8 must ensure that the following conditions are satisfied:(1) the compliance function must have the necessary authority, resources, expertise and access to all relevant information;(2) a compliance officer must be appointed and must be responsible for the compliance function and for any reporting as to compliance required by SYSC
(1) 15This guidance is relevant to a relevant authorised person required to
appoint a compliance officer under SYSC 6.1.4R.(2) Taking account of the nature, scale and complexity of its activities,
the firm should have appropriate procedures to ensure that the
removal or any other disciplinary sanctioning of the compliance
officer does not undermine the independence of the compliance
function.(3) In the FCA's view, it will be appropriate, in many cases, for the
removal or any other
1The effect of sections 20 (Authorised persons acting without permission) and 39(4) (Exemption of appointed representatives) of the Act is that the regulated activities covered by an appointed representative's appointment need to:(1) fall within the scope of the principal's permission; or(2) be excluded from being regulated activities when carried on by the principal, for example because they fall within article 28 of the Regulated Activities Order (Arranging transactions to which
(1) 1A firm must not appoint a person as its appointed representative until it has entered into a written agreement (a "multiple principal agreement") with every other principal the person may have; but this does not apply to the appointment of an introducer appointed representative nor does it require an agreement with another principal which has appointed a person as an introducer appointed representative.(2) A firm must not unreasonably decline to enter into a multiple principal
1
Multiple principal agreement
Matter |
Explanation |
|
1. |
Scope of appointment |
The scope of appointment given by each principal to the appointed representative. |
2. |
Complaints handling |
The identity of the principal which will be the point of contact for a complaint from a client (referred to as the "lead-principal" in SUP 12.4.5D G to SUP 12.4.5E G). |
An agreement that each principal will co-operate with each other principal in resolving a complaint from a client in relation to the appointed representative's conduct. |
||
The arrangements for complaints handling, including arrangements for resolving disputes between the principals in relation to their liability to a client in respect of a complaint and arrangements for dealing with referrals to the Financial Ombudsman Service. |
||
3. |
The arrangements for approving financial promotion. |
|
4. |
Control and monitoring |
The arrangements for the control and monitoring of the activities of the appointed representative (see in particular SUP 12.6.6 R (Regulated activities and investment services outside the scope of appointment) and SUP 12.6.7 G (Senior management responsibility for appointed representatives)). |
5. |
Approved person status |
The arrangements for making applications for approved person status (see SUP 10A and SUP 10C12 (Approved persons) and the corresponding PRA requirements).12 2323 |
6. |
Training and competence |
The arrangements for training and competence (see TC). |
7. |
Co-operation |
The arrangements for co-operation over any other issues which may arise from the multiple appointments, including issues which may damage the interests of clients dealing with the appointed representative and administrative issues. |
An agreement by each principal to take reasonable steps to ensure that it does not cause the appointed representative or any of its other principals to be in breach of their obligations to each other or under the regulatory system. |
||
8. |
Sharing information |
The arrangements for sharing information on matters relevant to the matters covered under the multiple principal agreement and each principal's obligations under SUP 12.6 (Continuing obligations of firms with appointed representatives). |
An agreement that each principal will notify each other principal of any information which is materially relevant to the multiple principal agreement. |
(1) 1Under the relevant provisions in COBS, ICOBS7 and MCOB, the customer will receive details of how to complain to the appointed representative and, when a product is purchased, details of the complaints procedure for the product provider, insurer or home finance provider.2772(2) Under DISP 1.2.1 R4, a firm must among other things, supply summary details of its internal process for dealing promptly and fairly with complaints4 to the customer when it receives a complaint4. In
(1) Actuaries appointed under PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act, or for the purposes of PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, 6,6 are subject to regulations5 made by the Treasury under sections 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act (Information given by auditor or actuary to a regulator7). Section 343 and the regulations also apply to an actuary of an authorised person in his capacity as an actuary of a person with close links with the authorised person.47(2)
34A product provider should ensure that the method it adopts for valuing augmentation benefits is consistent with the statements made in the documentation published about the windfall event. Relevant documentation for the purpose of valuing such benefits will include (but is not limited to):22(1) Any description of increases in benefits in any circular to policyholders (and any other public information relating to the event);(2) Any principles of financial management established
(1) 1A firm may deposit
safe custody assets2
held by it on behalf of its clients into an account or accounts opened with a third party, but only if it exercises all due skill, care and diligence in the selection, appointment and periodic review of the third party and of the arrangements for the holding and safekeeping of those safe custody assets.222(1A) [deleted]66(2) [deleted]66(3) When a firm makes the selection, appointment and conducts the periodic review referred to 2under
(1) 6A firm must make a record of the grounds upon which it satisfies itself as to the appropriateness of its selection and appointment of a third party under CASS 6.3.1 R. The firm must make the record on the date it makes the selection or appointment and must keep it from that date until five years after the firm ceases to use the third party to hold safe custody assets belonging to clients.(2) A firm must make a record of each periodic review of its selection and appointment
A listed company must notify a RIS of any change to the board including:(1) the appointment of a new director stating the appointees name and whether the position is executive, non-executive or chairman and the nature of any specific function or responsibility of the position;(2) the resignation, removal or retirement of a director (unless the director retires by rotation and is re-appointed at a general meeting of the listed company's shareholders);(3) important changes to the
A listed company must notify a RIS of the following information in respect of any new director appointed to the board as soon as possible following the decision to appoint the director and in any event within five business days of the decision:(1) details of all directorships held by the director in any other publicly quoted company at any time in the previous five years, indicating whether or not he is still a director;(2) any unspent convictions in relation to indictable offences;(3)
2This chapter also sets out guidance about section 39A of the Act, which is relevant to a UK MiFID investment firm that is considering appointing an FCA registered tied agent. It also sets out the FCA'srules, and guidance on those rules, in relation to the appointment of an EEA tied agent by a UK MiFID investment firm.
8If a UK MiFID investment firm or a third country investment firm appoints an appointed representative that is a tied agent, regulation 3(6) of the Appointed Representatives Regulations17 requires the contract between the firm and the appointed representative to contain a provision that the representative is only permitted to provide the services and carry on the activities referred to in Article 4(1)(25) of MiFID while17 entered on the Register.
13To the extent that the appointment of the appointed representative includes CBTL business, a firm should satisfy itself that the terms of the contract with its appointed representative:(1) are designed to enable the firm to comply properly with any direction issued or imposed under article 19 of the MCD Order; and(2) require the appointed representative to deal with the FCA in an open and co-operative manner and give access to its premises, as set out in SUP 2.3.4G and SUP 2.3.5R(2),
A company with, or applying for, a premium listing of its equity shares5 must appoint a sponsor on each occasion that it:4(1) is required to submit any of the following documents to the FCA in connection with6 an application for admission of equity shares5 to premium listing6:66(a) a prospectus, supplementary prospectus7 or equivalent document1; or6(b) a certificate of approval from another competent authority; or6(c) a summary document as required by PR 1.2.3R (8); or6(d) listing
4A company must appoint a sponsor where it applies to transfer its category of equity shares'5listing from:(1) a standard listing (shares) to a premium listing (commercial company); or5(2) a standard listing (shares) to a premium listing (investment company); or5(3) a premium listing (investment company) to a premium listing (commercial company); or(4) a premium listing (commercial company) to a premium listing (investment company).
4Firms are not required to notify the name of the individual to the
FCA
or the Financial Ombudsman Service but would be expected to do so promptly on request. There is no bar on a firm appointing different individuals to have the responsibility at different times where this is to accommodate part-time or flexible working.
A firm's systems and controls should enable it to satisfy itself of the suitability of anyone who acts for it. This includes assessing an individual's honesty and competence. This assessment should normally be made at the point of recruitment. An individual's honesty need not normally be revisited unless something happens to make a fresh look appropriate.
Any assessment of an individual's suitability should take into account the level of responsibility that the individual will assume within the firm. The nature of this assessment will generally differ depending upon whether it takes place at the start of the individual's recruitment, at the end of the probationary period (if there is one) or subsequently.
A CRR firm that has a nomination committee must ensure that the nomination committee:(1) engage a broad set of qualities and competences when recruiting members to the management body and for that purpose puts in place a policy promoting diversity on the management body; (2) identifies and recommends for approval, by the management body or by general meeting, candidates to fill management body vacancies, having evaluated the balance of knowledge, skills, diversity and experience
A CRR firm that does not have a nomination committee must engage a broad set of qualities and competences when recruiting members to the management body. For that purpose a CRR firm that does not have a nomination committee must put in place a policy promoting diversity on the management body.[Note: article 91(10) of CRD]
1In PR 5.5.3R (2)(b)(iii), external management company means in relation to an issuer that is a company which is not a collective investment undertaking, a person who is appointed by the issuer (whether under a contract of service, a contract for services or any other commercial arrangement) to perform functions that would ordinarily be performed by officers of the issuer and to make recommendations in relation to strategic matters.
1In considering whether the functions the person performs would ordinarily be performed by officers of the issuer, the FCA will consider, among other things:(1) the nature of the board of the issuer to which the person provides services, and whether the board has the capability to act itself on strategic matters in the absence of that person's services; (2) whether the appointment relates to a one-off transaction or is a longer term relationship; and(3) the proportion of the functions