Related provisions for SUP 15.11.17

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SUP 11.8.2GRP
In assessing whether a matter should be notified to the appropriate regulator9 under SUP 11.8.1 R (1), SUP 11.8.1 R (2) or SUP 11.8.1 R (3), a firm should have regard to the guidance on satisfying the threshold conditions set out in paragraphs 2E and 3D of Schedule 6 to the Act9 contained in COND 2.5.99
REC 6A.1.1GRP
1Under section 312A of the Act, an EEA market operator may make arrangements in the United Kingdom to facilitate access to, or use of, a regulated market or multilateral trading facility operated by it if:(1) the operator has given its Home State regulator notice of its intention to make such arrangements; and(2) the Home State regulator has given the FCA3 notice of the operator's intention.3
SUP 3.10.8BGRP
1The rights and duties of auditors are set out in SUP 3.8 (Rights and duties of all auditors) and SUP 3.10 (Duties of auditors: notification and report on client assets). SUP 3.8.10 G also refers to the auditor's statutory duty to report certain matters to the FCA imposed by regulations made by the Treasury under sections 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act (information given by auditor or actuary to a regulator). An auditor should bear these rights and duties in mind when carrying out
REC 1.1.2GRP
(1) UK RIEs4 are exempt persons under section 285 of the Act (Exemption for recognised investment exchanges and clearing houses).4(2) UK RIEs4 must satisfy recognition requirements prescribed by the Treasury (in certain cases with the approval of the Secretary of State) in the Recognition Requirements Regulations. UK RIEs must also satisfy the MiFID implementing requirements in the MiFID Regulation.2RAPs must satisfy the recognition requirements prescribed by the Treasury in the
SUP 3.2.6GRP
4The rights and duties of auditors are set out in SUP 3.8 (Rights and duties of all auditors) and SUP 3.10 (Duties of auditors: notification and report on client assets). SUP 3.8.10 G includes the auditor's statutory duty to report certain matters to the FCA8 imposed by regulations made by the Treasury under sections 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act (information given by auditor or actuary to a regulator8). An auditor should bear these rights and duties in mind when carrying out client
SUP 12.4.10CGRP
(1) 10If an appointed representative's scope of appointment is to include MCD credit intermediation activity, the principal must notify the FCA of the appointment before the appointed representative commences that activity (see SUP 12.7.1 R (1)).(2) An appointed representative must not commence an MCD credit intermediation activity until they are included on the Financial Services Register. (3) If an appointed representative's scope of appointment is to include MCD credit intermediation
SUP 12.4.12GRP
(1) 8A tied agent that is an appointed representative may not start to act as a tied agent until it is included on the applicable register (section 39(1A) of the Act). If the tied agent is established in the UK, the register maintained by the FCA is the applicable register for these purposes. If the tied agent is established in another EEA State, it should consult section 39(1B) of the Act to determine the applicable register.(2) A UK MiFID investment firm that appoints an FCA
SUP 10C.16.6GRP
Failing to disclose relevant information to the FCA may be a criminal offence under section 398 of the Act.
COLL 7.7.2GRP
(1) The effect of COLL 7.7.1 R, and in particular the narrow Glossary definition of domestic UCITS merger which is drafted in accordance with article 2.1(r) of the UCITS Directive, is that this section will not apply to a merger in the United Kingdom between two or more UCITS schemes unless one of them has been the subject of a UCITS marketing notification.(2) For arrangements to constitute a cross-border UCITS merger, at least two of the relevant UCITS must be:(a) established
COLL 7.7.10RRP
(1) The authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme that is a merging UCITS or a receiving UCITS in a proposed UCITS merger must ensure that a document containing appropriate and accurate information on the merger is provided to the unitholders of that scheme so as to enable them to:(a) make an informed judgment about the impact of the proposal on their investment;(b) exercise their rights under regulation 12 (Right of redemption) of the UCITS Regulations 2011; and(c) where applicable,
COLL 6.5.10RRP
(1) The depositary of an authorised fund may not retire voluntarily except upon the appointment of a new depositary.(2) The depositary of an authorised fund must not retire voluntarily unless, before its retirement, it has ensured that the new depositary has been informed of any circumstance of which the retiring depositary has informed the FCA.(3) When the depositary of an authorised fund wishes to retire or ceases to be an authorised person, the authorised fundmanager may, subject
COLL 7.4A.3GRP

This table belongs to COLL 7.4A.1G (5) (Explanation of COLL 7.4A)

Summary of the main steps in winding up an ACS or terminating a sub-fund of a co-ownership scheme under FCArules

Notes: N = Notice to be given to the FCA under section 261Q of the Act in a section 261Q case.

R = Request to wind up the scheme under section 261W of the Act in a section 261W case.

E = commencement of winding up or termination

W/U = winding up

FAP = final accounting period

Step number

Explanation

When

COLLrule, (unless stated otherwise)

1

Commence preparation of solvency statement

N-28 days or R-28 days

7.4A.5R(2)

2

Send audited solvency statement to the FCA with copy to depositary.

By N + 21 days or by R + 21 days

7.4A.5R(4) and (5)

3

In a section 261Q case:

- the authorised contractual scheme manager receiving FCA approval;

- or one month having passed after submitting the requisite notice under section 261Q of the Act without the authorised contractual scheme manager or depositary having received from the FCA a warning notice under section 261R in respect of the proposal.

In a section 261W case, the authorised contractual scheme manager or depositary receives an indication from the FCA that, subject to there being no change in any relevant factor, on the conclusion of the winding up of the ACS, the FCA will agree to the request to wind up the ACS.

N + one month or R + one month

Section 261Q of the Act (in a section 261Q case)

7.4A.4R(3)(c) to (e) (in a section 261W case)

4

Normal business ceases; notify unitholders

E

7.4A.4R

5

Depositary to realise and distribute proceeds

ASAP after E

7.4A.6R(1)-(5)

6

Send annual long report of authorised contractual scheme manager, depositary and auditor to the FCA

Within 4 months of FAP

7.4A.9R(7)

7

Request FCA to revoke relevant authorisation order

On completion of W/U

7.4A.6R(6)
COLL 7.4A.5RRP
(1) Either before notice is given under section 261Q of the Act or before a request is made under section 261W of the Act in relation to the proposals referred to in COLL 7.4A.4R (4), the authorised contractual scheme manager must make a full inquiry into the ACS's (or, in the case of the termination of a sub-fund of a co-ownership scheme, the sub-fund's) affairs, business and property to establish whether the ACS or the sub-fund will be able to meet all its liabilities.(2) The
COLL 7.4.1GRP
(1) This section deals with the circumstances and manner in which an AUT is to be wound up or a sub-fund of an AUT is to be terminated. Under section 256 of the Act (Requests for revocation of authorisation order), the manager or trustee of an AUT may request the FCA to revoke the authorisation order in respect of that AUT. Section 257 of the Act (Directions) gives the FCA the power to make certain directions.(2) The termination of a sub-fund under this section will be subject
SUP 13.1.3AGRP
9Other than the notification requirements in SUP 13.5.1AA R and SUP 13.5.2-A R and the related guidance in SUP 13.5.1B G, SUP 13.5.2A G and SUP 13.5.7 G, this chapter does not apply to a UK firm in relation to its exercise of an EEA right under the auction regulation to provide services or establish a branch in another EEA state. This is because a UK firm is not subject to the requirements in Schedule 3 to the Act in respect of its exercise of that EEA right.