Related provisions for DTR 8.4.17

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COLL 4.5.10RRP
The comparative information12 required by COLL 4.5.7 R12 (Contents of the annual long report) and COLL 8.3.5A R (Contents of the annual report) must be shown for the last three annual accounting periods (or all of the authorised fund'sannual accounting periods, if fewer than three) and must set out:1212(1) [deleted]1212(1A) for a unit of each class in issue, a comparative table as at the end of the period to which the report relates, prepared in accordance with the requirements
COLL 4.5.12RRP
The authorised fund manager must ensure that the report of the auditor to the unitholders includes the following statements:33(1) whether, in the auditor's opinion, the accounts have been properly prepared in accordance with the IMA SORP, the rules in this sourcebook, and the instrument constituting the fund;1010(2) whether, in the auditor's opinion, the accounts give a true and fair view of the net revenue3and the net capital 3gains or losses on3the scheme property of the authorised
GENPRU 1.2.60RRP
A firm must make a written record of the assessments required under this section. These assessments include assessments carried out on a consolidated basis and on a solo basis. In particular it must make a written record of:(1) the major sources of risk identified in accordance with GENPRU 1.2.30R (2) (Main requirement relating to risk processes, strategies and systems);(2) how it intends to deal with those risks; and(3) details of the stress tests and scenario analyses carried
GENPRU 1.2.88GRP
6A firm should include in the written record referred to in GENPRU 1.2.60 R a description of the broad business strategy of the UK consolidation group or the non-EEA sub-group of which it is a member, the group’s view of its principal risks and its approach to measuring, managing and controlling the risks. This description should include the role of stress testing, scenario analysis and contingency planning in managing risk at the solo and consolidated level.14
COLL 6.3.3CGRP
(1) 8The accounting policies and procedures referred to in COLL 6.3.3B R should enable the authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme to value the scheme property accurately at each valuation point and to calculate dealingprices by reference to that valuation.(2) Where different share or unitclasses exist, it should be possible to extract from the accounting records the net asset value of each different class.[Note: recital (9) of the UCITS implementing Directive]
COLL 6.3.6GRP

Table: This table belongs to COLL 6.3.2 G (2) (a) and COLL 6.3.3 R (Valuation)1.

Valuation and pricing

1

The valuation of scheme property

(1)

Where possible, investments should be valued using a reputable source. The reliability of the source of prices should be kept under regular review.

(2)

For some or all of the investments comprising the scheme property, different prices may quoted according to whether they are being bought (offer prices) or sold (bid prices). The valuation of a single-priced authorised fund should reflect the mid-market value of such investments. In the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, the issue basis of the valuation will be carried out by reference to the offer prices of investments and the cancellation basis by reference to the bid prices of those same investments. The prospectus should explain how investments will be valued for which a single price is quoted for both buying and selling.1

1

3(2A)

Schemes investing in approved money-market instruments5should value such instruments on an amortised cost basis on condition that:5

55

[Note:CESR's UCITS eligible assets guidelines with respect to article 4(2) of the UCITS eligible assets Directive]

(2B)

Short-term money market funds may value approved money-market instruments on an amortised cost basis.7

[Note: paragraph 21 of CESR's guidelines on a common definition of European money market funds]7

(3)

Any part of the scheme property of an authorised fund that is not an investment should be valued at a fair value, but for immovables this is subject to COLL 5.6.20 R (3) (f) (Standing independent valuer and valuation).

(4)

For the purposes of (2) and (3), any fiscal charges, commissions, professional fees or other charges that were paid, or would be payable on acquiring or disposing of the investment or other part of the scheme property should, in the case of a single-priced authorised fund,2 be excluded from the value of an investment or other part of the scheme property. In the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, any such payments should be added to the issue basis of the valuation, or subtracted from the cancellation basis of the valuation, as appropriate. Alternatively, the prospectus of a dual-priced authorised fund may prescribe any other method of calculating unitprices that ensures an equivalent treatment of the effect of these payments.2

(5)

Where the authorised fund manager has reasonable grounds to believe that:

it should value an investment at a price which, in its opinion, reflects a fair and reasonable price for that investment (the fair value price);

(6)

The circumstances which may give rise to a fair value price being used include:

  • no recent trade in the security concerned; or
  • the occurrence of a significant event since the most recent closure of the market where the price of the security is taken.
In (b), a significant event is one that means the most recent price of a security or a basket of securities is materially different to the price that it is reasonably believed would exist at the valuation point had the relevant market been open.

(7)

In determining whether to use such a fair value price , the authorised fund manager should include in his consideration:

4(7A)

Where the authorised fund manager, the depositary or the standing independent valuer have reasonable grounds to believe that the most recent valuation of an immovable does not reflect the current value of that immovable, the authorised fund manager should consult and agree with the standing independent valuer a fair and reasonable value for the immovable.

(8)

The authorised fund manager should document the basis of valuation (including any fair value pricing policy) and, where appropriate, the basis of any methodology and ensure that the procedures are applied consistently and fairly.

(9)

Where a unit price is determined using properly applied fair value prices in accordance with policies in (8), subsequent information that indicates the price should have been different from that calculated will not normally give rise to an instance of incorrect pricing.

2

The pricing controls of the authorised fund manager

(1)

An authorised fund manager needs to be able to demonstrate that it has effective controls over its calculations of unit prices.

(2)

The controls referred to in (1) should ensure that:

  • asset prices are accurate and up to date;
  • investment 1transactions are accurately and promptly reflected in valuations;
  • the components of the valuation (including stock, cash, and units in issue1), are regularly reconciled to their source or prime records and any reconciling items resolved promptly and debtors reviewed for recoverability;
  • the sources of prices not obtained from the main pricing source are recorded and regularly reviewed;
  • compliance with the investment and borrowing powers is regularly reviewed;
  • dividends are accounted for as soon as securities1 are quoted ex-dividend (unless it is prudent to account for them on receipt):
  • fixed interest dividends, interest and expenses are accrued at each valuation point1;
  • tax positions are regularly reviewed and adjusted, if necessary;
  • reasonable tolerances are set for movements in the key elements of a valuation and movements outside these tolerances are investigated;5
  • the fund manager regularly reviews the portfolio valuation for accuracy5; and5
  • the valuation of OTC derivatives is accurate and up to date and in compliance with the methods agreed with the depositary.5

(3)

In exercising its pricing controls, the authorised fund manager may exercise reasonable discretion in determining the appropriate frequency of the operation of the controls and may choose a longer interval, if appropriate, given the level of activity on the authorised fund1or the materiality of any effect on the price.

(4)

Evidence of the exercise of the pricing controls should be retained.

(5)

Evidence of persistent or repetitive errors in relation to these matters, and in particular any evidence of a pattern of errors working in an authorised fund manager's favour, will make demonstrating effective controls more difficult.

(6)

Where the pricing1function is delegated to a third party, COLL 6.6.15 R (1) (Committees and delegation) will apply.

3

The depositary's review of the authorised fund manager's systems and controls

(1)

This section provides details of the types of checks a depositary should carry out to be satisfied that the authorised fund manager adopts systems and controls which are appropriate to ensure that prices of units are calculated in accordance with this section and to ensure that the likelihood of incorrect prices will be minimised. These checks also apply where an authorised fund manager has delegated all or some of its pricing1 functions to one or more third parties5.

5

(2)

A depositary should thoroughly review an authorised fund manager's systems and controls to confirm that they are satisfactory. The depositary's review should include an analysis of the controls in place to determine the extent to which reliance can be placed on them.

(3)

A review should be performed when the depositary is appointed and thereafter as it feels appropriate given its knowledge of the robustness and the stability of the systems and controls and their operation.

(4)

A review should be carried out more frequently where a depositary knows or suspects that an authorised fund manager's systems and controls are weak or are otherwise unsatisfactory.

(5)

Additionally, a depositary should from time to time review other aspects of the valuation of the scheme property of each authorised fund for which it is responsible, verifying, on a sample basis, if necessary, the assets, liabilities, accruals, units in issue1, securities prices (and in particular the prices of OTC derivatives,5unapproved securities and the basis for the valuation of unquoted securities) and any other relevant matters, for example an accumulation factor or a currency conversion factor.

(6)

A depositary should ensure that any issues, which are identified in any such review, are properly followed up and resolved.

4

The recording and reporting of instances of incorrect pricing

(1)

An authorised fund manager should record each instance where the price of a unit is incorrect as soon as the error is discovered, and report the fact to the depositary together with details of the action taken, or to be taken, to avoid repetition as soon as practicable.

(2)

In accordance with COLL 6.6.11 G (Duty to inform the FCA), the depositary should report any breach of the rules in COLL 6.3 immediately to the FCA. However, notification should relate to instances which the depositary considers material only.

(3)

A depositary should also report to the FCA immediately any instance of incorrect pricing1where the error is 0.5% or more of the price of a unit, where a depositary believes that reimbursement or payment is inappropriate and should not be paid by an authorised fund manager.

(4)

In accordance with SUP 16.6.8 R, a depositary should also make a return to the FCA on a quarterly basis which summarises the number of instances of incorrect pricing1 during a particular period.

5

The rectification of pricing breaches

(1)

COLL 6.6.3 R (1) (Functions of the authorised fund manager) places a duty on the authorised fund manager to take action to reimburse affected unitholders, former unitholders, and the scheme itself, for instances of incorrect pricing1, except if it appears to the depositary that the breach is of minimal significance.

(2)

A depositary may consider that the instance of incorrect pricing1is of minimal significance if:

(3)

In determining (2), if the instance of incorrect pricing1 is due to one or more factors or exists over a period of time, each price should be considered separately.

(4)

If a depositary deems it appropriate, it may, in spite of the circumstances outlined in (2), require a payment from the authorised fund manager or from the authorised fund to the unitholders, former unitholders, the authorised fund or the authorised fund manager (where appropriate).

(5)

The depositary should satisfy itself that any payments required following an instance of incorrect pricing1 are accurately and promptly calculated and paid.

(6)

If a depositary considers that reimbursement or payment is inappropriate, it should report the matter to the FCA, together with its recommendation and justification. The depositary should take into account the need to avoid prejudice to the rights of unitholders, or the rights of unitholders in a class of units.

(7)

It may not be practicable, or in some cases legally permissible, for the authorised fund manager to obtain reimbursement from unitholders, where the unitholders have benefited from the incorrect price.

(8)

In all cases where reimbursement or payment is required, amounts due to be reimbursed to unitholders for individual sums which are reasonably considered by the authorised fund manager and depositary to be immaterial, need not normally be paid.
BIPRU 12.5.4RRP
A firm must ensure that:(1) it regularly carries out an ILAA;(2) it makes a written record of its ILAA;(3) its ILAA is proportionate to the nature, scale and complexity of its activities; (4) its ILAA takes into account whole-firm and group-wide liquidity resources only to the extent that reliance on these is permitted by the appropriate regulator;(5) its ILAA includes an assessment of the results of the stress tests required by BIPRU 12.5.6 R; and(6) its ILAA includes an assessment
BIPRU 12.5.13RRP
In carrying out the liquidity stresses required by BIPRU 12.5.6R, a firm must:(1) analyse each of the sources of risk identified in BIPRU 12.5.14R;(2) record the evidence which supports any behavioural assumptions that it makes in carrying out those stress tests;(3) record the evidence which supports its assessment of the adequacy of its liquid assets buffer; and(4) identify those of the measures set out in its contingency funding plan that it would implement.
SYSC 19C.3.5RRP
A firm must: (1) maintain a record of its BIPRU Remuneration Code staff in line with the general record-keeping requirements (SYSC 9); and(2) take reasonable steps to ensure that its BIPRU Remuneration Code staff understand the implications of their status, including the potential for remuneration which does not comply with certain requirements of the BIPRU Remuneration Code to be rendered void and recoverable by the firm.
SYSC 19C.3.53GRP
(1) Variable remuneration may be justified, for example, to incentivise employees involved in new business ventures which could be loss-making in their early stages. (2) The governing body (or, where appropriate, the remuneration committee) should approve performance adjustment policies, including the triggers under which adjustment would take place. The FCA may ask firms to provide a copy of their policies and expects firms to make adequate records of material decisions to operate
SYSC 19D.3.6RRP
A firm must:(1) maintain a record of its dual-regulated firms Remuneration Code staff under the general record-keeping requirements (SYSC 9); and(2) take reasonable steps to ensure that its dual-regulated firms Remuneration Code staff understand the implications of their status as such, including the potential for remuneration which does not comply with certain requirements of the dual-regulated firms Remuneration Code to be rendered void and recoverable by the firm.
SYSC 19D.3.65GRP
The governing body (or, where appropriate, the remuneration committee) should approve performance adjustment policies, including the triggers under which adjustment would take place. The FCA may ask firms to provide a copy of their policies and expects firms to make adequate records of material decisions to operate the adjustments.
IPRU-INV 11.1.3RRP
(1) Except where a rule makes a different provision, terms in this chapter must have the meaning given to them in the Companies Act 2006 or the firm's accounting framework (usually UK generally accepted accounting principles or IFRS) where defined in that Act or framework.(2) Accounting policies must be the same as those adopted in the firm'sannual report and accounts and must be consistently applied.
CONC 4.2.23RRP
(1) 4CONC 4.2.22R does not apply to a lender if a credit broker, a solicitor, a barrister, (in Scotland) an advocate, or a relevant person has complied with that rule in respect of the agreement.(2) Before a lender concludes that CONC 4.2.22R does not apply to it in relation to a regulated credit agreement by virtue of (1), the lender must take reasonable steps to satisfy itself that: (a) an explanation complying with CONC 4.2.22R(2) has been provided to the guarantor; and(b)
PERG 8.37.14GRP
(1) Regulation 46 (Application of the financial promotion and scheme promotion restrictions) provides that where a person may market an AIF under regulation 49, 50 or 51:(a) to the extent that such marketing falls within section 21(1) (restrictions on financial promotion) or 238(1) (restrictions on promotion) of the Act, the person may market the AIF to a retail client only if the person does so without breaching the restriction in that section; and(b) to the extent that any activity
COLL 8.3.8RRP
(1) Details of the procedures for the convening and conducting of meetings and resolutions must be set out in the instrument constituting the fund13 and be reasonable and fair as between all relevant parties.13(2) The authorised fund manager must record and keep minutes for six years of all proceedings to which COLL 8.3.6 R (Alterations to the scheme and notices to Unitholders) and this rule are relevant.(3) The provisions in COLL 4.4.12 R (Notices to Unitholders), COLL 4.4.13
COLL 6.9.9RRP
A UCITS management company must not engage in any activities other than:(1) [deleted]7(1A) managing a UCITS;7(1B) managing an AIF;7(1C) acting as a residual CIS operator;7(2) activities for the purposes of or in connection with those in (1A), (1B) or (1C);77(3) collective portfolio management, including without limitation:(a) investment management;(b) administration:(i) legal and fund management accounting services;(ii) customer enquiries;(iii) valuation and pricing (including
COLL 8.6.5RRP
In relation to an ICVC, ACS2 or an AUT which is a qualified investor scheme, the provisions in COLL 7.6 (Schemes of arrangement) will apply as appropriate to the authorised fund manager, any other directors of the ICVC and the depositary as if COLL 7.6 applied to a qualified investor scheme and did not exclude unitholders becoming unitholders in another qualified investor scheme.
PERG 4.5.17GRP
The FCA would normally expect an introducer to keep a written record of disclosures made to the borrower under article 33A of the Regulated Activities Order including those cases where disclosure is made on an oral basis only.
SYSC 4.8.9RRP

Table: FCA-prescribed senior management responsibilities for third-country relevant authorised persons.

FCA-prescribed senior management responsibility in relation to the branch

Explanation

Equivalent PRA-prescribed UK branch senior management responsibility

(1) Responsibility for the firm’s performance of its obligations under the senior management regime

The senior management regime means the requirements of the regulatory system applying to relevant authorised persons insofar as they relate to SMF managers performing designated senior management functions, including SUP 10C (FCA senior management regime for approved persons in relevant authorised persons).

This responsibility includes:

(1) compliance with conditions and time limits on approval;

(2) compliance with the requirements about the statements of responsibilities (but not the allocation of responsibilities recorded in them);

and

(3) compliance by the firm with its obligations under section 60A of the Act (Vetting of candidates by relevant authorised

persons).

PRA-prescribed UK branch senior management responsibility 6.2(1)

(2) Responsibility for the firm’s performance of its obligations under the employee certification regime

The employee certification regime means the requirements of sections 63E and 63F of the Act (Certification of employees) and all other requirements of the regulatory system about the matters dealt with in those sections, including SYSC 5.2 (Certification Regime) and the corresponding PRA requirements.

PRA-prescribed UK branch senior management responsibility 6.2(2)

(3) Responsibility for compliance with the requirements of the regulatory system about the management responsibilities map

This responsibility does not include allocating responsibilities recorded in it.

PRA-prescribed UK branch senior management responsibility 6.2(3)

(4) Responsibility for management of the firm’s risk management processes in the UK

PRA-prescribed UK branch senior management responsibility 6.2(4)

(5) Responsibility for the firm’s compliance with the UKregulatory system applicable to the firm

PRA-prescribed UK branch senior management responsibility 6.2(5)

(6) Responsibility for the escalation of correspondence from the PRA, FCA and other regulators4 in respect of the firm to the governing body and/or the management body of the firm or, where appropriate, of the parent undertaking or holding company of the firm’sgroup

This includes taking steps to ensure that the senior management of the firm and, where applicable, the group, are made aware of any views expressed by the regulatory bodies and any steps taken by them in relation to the branch, firm or group.

PRA-prescribed UK branch senior management responsibility 6.2(6)

(7) Local responsibility for the firm’s policies and procedures for countering the risk that the firm might be used to further financial crime

(A) This includes the function in SYSC 6.3.8R (a firm must allocate overall responsibility to a director or senior manager within the firm for the establishment and maintenance of effective anti-money laundering systems and controls), if that rule applies to the firm.

(B) The firm may allocate this FCA-prescribed senior management responsibility to the MLRO but does not have to.

(C) If the firm does not allocate this FCA-prescribed senior management responsibility to the MLRO, this FCA-prescribed senior management responsibility includes responsibility for supervision of the MLRO.

(D) Local responsibility is defined in SYSC 4.8.10R (Local responsibility for a branch’s activities, business areas and management functions).

None

(8) Local responsibility for the firm’s compliance with CASS

(A) This responsibility only applies to a firm to which CASS applies.

(B) A firm may include in this FCA-prescribed senior management responsibility whichever of the following functions apply to the firm:

(1) CASS 1A.3.1R (certain CASS compliance functions for a CASS small firm);

(2) CASS 1A.3.1AR (certain CASS compliance functions for a CASS medium firm or a CASS large firm);

(3) CASS 11.3.1R (certain CASS compliance functions for certain CASS small debt management firms); or

(4) CASS 11.3.4R (certain CASS compliance functions for a CASS large debt management firm); but it does not have to.

(C) If the firm does not include the functions in (B) in this FCA-prescribed senior management responsibility, this FCA-prescribed senior management responsibility includes responsibility for supervision of the person performing the functions in (B) that apply to the firm.

(D) Local responsibility is defined in SYSC 4.8.10R (Local responsibility for a branch’s activities, business areas and management functions).

None
MAR 1.2.12ERP
In the opinion of the FCA , the following factors are to be taken into account in determining whether or not information is generally available, and are indications that it is (and therefore not inside information):(1) whether the information has been disclosed to a prescribed market or a prescribed auction platform3 through a regulatory information service or RIS or otherwise in accordance with the rules of that market;(2) whether the information is contained
COBS 11.7.4RRP
The arrangements required under this section must in particular be designed to ensure that:(1) each relevant person covered by this section is aware of the restrictions on personal transactions, and of the measures established by the firm in connection with personal transactions and disclosure, in accordance with this section;(2) the firm:(a) is informed promptly of any personal transaction entered into by a relevant person, either by notification of that transaction or by other
MIPRU 4.4.3GRP
A firm should keep a record of and be ready to explain to its supervisory contacts in the appropriate regulator the reasons for any difference between the deficit reduction amount and any commitment the firm has made in any public document to provide funding in respect of a defined benefit occupational pension scheme.
COLL 4.4.13RRP
(1) Any document or notice to be served on or information to be given to, any person, including the FCA , must be in legible form.(2) For the purposes of this rule, any form is legible form which:(a) is consistent with the ICVC's, the directors', the authorised fund manager's or the depositary's knowledge of how the recipient of the document wishes or expects to receive the document;(b) is capable of being provided in hard copy by the authorised fund manager, the depositary or
TC App 6.1.1GRP

1Introduction

1.

An accredited body is a body appearing in the list of such bodies in the Glossary.1

1

2.

Information on accredited bodies, including guidance on the process for including an applicant body in the list, is set out below and the obligation to pay the application fee is set out in FEES 3.2.

3.

[deleted]1

1

Process for including a body in the list of accredited bodies

4.

In considering the compatibility of a proposed addition with the statutory objectives, the FCA will determine whether the applicant will, if accredited, contribute to securing an appropriate degree of protection for consumers having regard in particular to:

(1)

the matters set out in paragraphs 10 to 20; and

(2)

the rules and practices of the applicant.

5.

An application to the FCA to be added to the list of accredited bodies should set out how the applicant will satisfy the criteria in paragraphs 10 to 20. The application should be accompanied by a report from a suitable auditor which sets out its independent assessment of the applicant's ability to meet these criteria. An application form is available from the FCA upon request.

6.

When considering an application for accredited body status the FCA may:

(1)

carry out any enquiries and request any further information that it considers appropriate, including consulting other regulators;

(2)

ask the applicant or its specified representative to answer questions and explain any matter the FCA considers relevant to the application;

(3)

take into account any information which the FCA considers appropriate to the application; and

(4)

request that any information provided by the applicant or its specified representative is verified in such a manner as the FCA may specify.

7.

The FCA will confirm its decision in writing to the applicant.

8.

The FCA will enter into an agreement with the applicant or accredited body which will specify the requirements that the accredited body must meet. These will include the matters set out in paragraphs 10 to 20. Approval as an accredited body becomes effective only when the name of the applicant is added to the Glossary definition of accredited body.

9.

Paragraphs 10 to 20 set out the criteria which an applicant should meet to become an accredited body and which an accredited body should meet at all times.

Acting in the public interest and furthering the development of the profession

10.

The FCA will expect an accredited body to act in the public interest, to contribute to raising consumer confidence and professional standards in the retail investment advice market and to promoting the profession.

Carrying out effective verification services

11.

If independent verification of a retail investment adviser's professional standards has been carried out by an accredited body, the FCA will expect the accredited body to provide the retail investment adviser with evidence of that verification in a durable medium and in a form agreed by the FCA. This is referred to in this Appendix and TC 2.1.28 R as a 'statement of professional standing'.

12.

The FCA will expect an accredited body to have in place effective procedures for carrying out its verification activities. These should include:

(1)

verifying that each retail investment adviser who is a member of or subscriber to the accredited body's verification service has made an annual declaration in writing that the retail investment adviser has, in the preceding 12 months, complied with APER or, for a relevant authorised person, complied with COCON2and completed the continuing professional development required under TC 2.1.15 R;1

(2)

verifying annually the continuing professional development records of no less than 10% of the retail investment advisers who have used its service in the previous 12 months to ensure that the records are accurate and the continuing professional development completed by the retail investment advisers is appropriate; and

(3)

verifying that, if required by TC, the retail investment advisers who use its services have attained an appropriate qualification. This should include, where relevant, checking that appropriate qualification gap-fill records have been completed by the retail investment advisers.

13.

The FCA will not expect an accredited body to carry out the verification in paragraph 12(3) if a retail investment adviser provides the accredited body with evidence in a durable medium which demonstrates that another accredited body has previously verified the retail investment adviser's appropriate qualification, including, where relevant, appropriate qualification gap-fill.

14.

The FCA will expect an accredited body to make it a contractual condition of membership (where a retail investment adviser is a member of the accredited body) or of using its verification service (where a retail investment adviser is not a member of the accredited body) that, as a minimum, the accredited body will not continue to verify a retail investment adviser's standards. The FCA2will also expect an accredited body to 2withdraw its statement of professional standing if it 2is provided with false information in relation to a retail investment adviser's qualifications or continuing professional development or a false declaration in relation to a retail investment adviser's compliance with APER or, for a relevant authorised person, compliance with COCON2.

In this regard, an accredited body must have in place appropriate decision-making procedures with a suitable degree of independence and transparency.

Having appropriate systems and controls in place and providing evidence to the FCA of continuing effectiveness

15.

The FCA will expect an accredited body to ensure that it has adequate resources and systems and controls in place in relation to its role as an accredited body.

16.

The FCA will expect an accredited body to have effective procedures in place for the management of conflicts of interest and have a well-balanced governance structure with at least one member who is independent of the sector.

17.

The FCA will expect an accredited body to have a code of ethics and to ensure that its code of ethics and verification service terms and conditions do not contain any provisions that conflict with APER or COCON2.

Ongoing cooperation with the FCA

18.

The FCA will expect an accredited body to provide the FCA with such documents and information as the FCA reasonably requires, and to cooperate with the FCA in an open and transparent manner.

19.

The FCA will expect an accredited body to share information with the FCA (subject to any legal constraints) in relation to the professional standards of the retail investment advisers who use its service as appropriate. Examples might include conduct issues, complaints, dishonestly obtaining or falsifying qualifications or continuing professional development or a failure to complete appropriate continuing professional development. The FCA will expect an accredited body to notify the firm if issues such as these arise.

20.

The FCA will expect an accredited body to submit to the FCA an annual report by a suitable independent auditor which sets out that auditor's assessment of the quality of the body's satisfaction of the criteria in paragraphs 10 to 19 in the preceding 12 months and whether, in the auditor's view, the body is capable of satisfying the criteria in the subsequent 12 months. The FCA will expect this annual report to be submitted to the FCA within three months of the anniversary of the date on which the accredited body was added to the Glossary definition of accredited body.

Withdrawal of accreditation

21.

If an accredited body fails or, in the FCA's view, is likely to fail to satisfy the criteria, the FCA will discuss this with the accredited body concerned. If, following a period of discussion, the accredited body has failed to take appropriate corrective action to ensure that it satisfies and will continue to satisfy the criteria, the FCA will withdraw the accredited body's accreditation by removing its name from the list of accredited bodies published in the Glossary. The FCA will expect the body to notify each retail investment adviser holding a current statement of professional standing of the FCA's decision. A statement of professional standing issued by the accredited body before the withdrawal of accreditation will continue to be valid until its expiration.