Related provisions for LR 11.1.1D
41 - 60 of 1061 items.
The issuer must send to the FCA annual written confirmation of compliance with Regulations 16 (sums derived from the issue of regulated covered bonds) and 17 (general requirements on the issuer in relation to the asset pool) of the RCB Regulations in the form set out in RCB 3 Annex 1D (annual confirmation of compliance).
1Where possible, the director or senior manager who signs the annual confirmation should be the same director or senior manager who has verified the application for registration under RCB 2.2.6 D. If the director or senior manager is different to the director or senior manager who verified the application for registration, the issuer should notify the FCA at least one month before sending the confirmation to the FCA.
(1) The owner must ensure that a duly authorised representative signs the confirmation and confirms on the FCA's form that the owner has obtained the appropriate third party advice or reports required by this section.(2) The owner must obtain appropriate advice in the same manner as set out in RCB 3.2.2 D and must provide a copy of the asset pool monitor's report to the FCA as set out in RCB 3.2.4B D.1
1The FCA expects the inspection by the asset pool monitor of the compliance of the issuer or owner (as the case may be) with the relevant requirements in the RCB Regulations to address at least the matters to be checked and due diligence procedures set out in RCB 2.3.18 G. The FCA expects that the inspection will be conducted on an agreed-upon-procedures basis.
1As required under Regulation 17A of the RCB Regulations, if it appears to the asset pool monitor that the issuer or owner (as the case may be) has failed to comply with the requirements set out in Regulations 17 or 24 of the RCB Regulations, or has not provided all relevant information or explanations, the asset pool monitor must report that to the FCA in writing as soon as possible.
A firm (other than the Society and an MTF operator in relation to its MTF business5) must notify to the FCA (in its own capacity and, if applicable, in its capacity as collection agent for the PRA) the value (as at the valuation date specified in Part 5 of FEES 4 Annex 1AR6) of each element of business on which the periodic fee payable by the firm is to be calculated.15
A firm (other than the Society) must send to the FCA (in its own capacity and, if applicable, in its capacity as collection agent for the PRA)15 in writing the information required under FEES 4.4.1 R as soon as reasonably practicable, and in any event within two months, after the date specified as the valuation date in Part 5 of FEES 4 Annex 1AR in relation of fees payable to the FCA6 (or FEES 4.2.7B R where applicable).2151515
In most cases a firm will provide the information required by this section as part of its compliance with the provisions of SUP. To the extent that the FCA6 does not obtain sufficient, or sufficiently detailed, information it 6 may seek this by using the general information gathering powers (see SUP 2 (Information gathering by the FCA or PRA6 on its own initiative)).14141414141414
3A fee-paying payment service provider and a fee-paying electronic money issuer4 must notify to the FCA the value (as at the valuation date specified in Part 4 of FEES 4 Annex 11) of each element of business on which the periodic fee (other than a flat fee)4 payable by the firm under 1 R4 is to be calculated, including any payment services carried on by its agents from an establishment in the United Kingdom. 4
A firm should have regard to the urgency and significance of a matter and, if appropriate, should also notify its usual supervisory contact at the FCA4 by telephone or by other prompt means of communication, before submitting a written notification. Oral notifications should be given directly to the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA.4 An oral notification left with another person or left on a voicemail or other automatic messaging service is unlikely to have been given
The FCA4 is entitled to rely on any information it receives from a firm and to consider any notification received as being made by a person authorised by the firm to do so. A firm should therefore consider whether it needs to put procedures in place to ensure that only appropriate employees make notifications to the FCA4 on its behalf.7777
Unless stated in the notification rule, or on the relevant form (if specified), a written notification required from a firm under any notification rule must be:2(1) given to or addressed for the attention of the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA4 and77(2) delivered to the FCA4 by one of the methods in SUP 15.7.5A R or SUP 15.7.5B R as applicable:777
7Methods of notification
Method of delivery |
|
1. |
Post to the appropriate address in SUP 15.7.6A G |
2. |
Leaving the notification at the appropriate address in SUP 15.7.6A G and obtaining a time-stamped receipt |
3. |
Electronic mail to an address for the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA and obtaining an electronic confirmation of receipt |
4. |
Hand delivery to the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA |
5. |
Fax to a fax number for the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA and receiving a successful transmission report for all pages of the notification |
6. |
Online submission via the FCA's website at www.fca.org.uk. |
7The current published address of the FCA for postal submission or hand delivery of notifications is:
- (1)
The Financial Conduct Authority
25 The North Colonnade London
Canary Wharf
E14 5HS
if the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA is based in London, or
- (2)
The Financial Conduct Authority
Quayside House 127
Fountainbridge
Edinburgh EH3 8DJ
if the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA is based in Edinburgh.7
If the firm or its group is subject to lead supervision arrangements by the FCA4 the firm or group may give or address a notice under SUP 15.7.4 R(1) to the supervisory contact at the FCA4 designated as lead supervisor, if the firm has chosen to make use of the lead supervisor as a central point of contact (see SUP 1.5).7777
If a firm is a member of a group which includes more than one firm, any one undertaking in the group may notify the FCA4 on behalf of all firms in the group to which the notification applies. In this way, that undertaking may satisfy the obligation of all relevant firms in the group to notify the FCA.4 Nevertheless, the obligation to make the notification remains the responsibility of the individual firm itself. See also SUP 15.7.3 G.7777
If a notification rule requires notification within a specified period:(1) the firm must give the notification so as to be received by the FCA4 no later than the end of that period; and 77(2) if the end of that period falls on a day which is not a business day, the notification must be given so as to be received by the FCA4 no later than the first business day after the end of that period. 77
The FCA4 has made arrangements with the Society of Lloyd's with respect to the monitoring of underwriting agents. Underwriting agents should check whether these arrangements provide for any notifications required under this chapter to be sent to the Society instead of to the FCA.4 [For further details see the FCA's4 website.]777777
Where the appropriate regulator requires a report by a skilled person under section 166 of the Act (Reports by skilled persons), the appropriate regulator2 will send a notice in writing requiring the person in SUP 5.2.1 G to provide a report by a skilled person, or notifying the person in SUP 5.2.1 G in writing of the appropriate regulator's appointment of a skilled person to provide a report,2 on any matter if it is reasonably required in connection with the exercise of its functions
2Where the appropriate regulator requires the updating or collection of information by a skilled person under section 166A of the Act (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information), the appropriate regulator will send a notice in writing requiring the firm to appoint a skilled person, or notifying the firm of the appropriate regulator's appointment of a skilled person, to collect or update the relevant information.
As part of the decision making process the appropriate regulator2 will normally contact the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or in SUP 5.2.2 G2 to discuss its needs before finalising its decision to require a report or the updating or collection of information by a skilled person. This will provide an opportunity for discussion about the appointment, whether an alternative means of obtaining the information would be better, what the scope of a report should be, who should be appointed,
The appropriate regulator2 will give written notification to the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or SUP 5.2.2 G2 of the purpose of the report or collection or updating of information,2 its scope, the timetable for completion and any other relevant matters. The appropriate regulator2 will state the matters which the report is to contain, or the information which is to be collected or updated,2 as well as any requirements as to the report's format. For example, a report on controls may
The written notification in SUP 5.4.3 G may be preceded or followed by a discussion of the appropriate regulator's2 requirements and the reasons for them. This may involve the appropriate regulator,2 the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or in SUP 5.2.2 G2 and the person who has been, or is expected to be, appointed as the skilled person. The appropriate regulator2 recognises that there will normally be value in holding discussions involving the skilled person at this stage. These discussions
A skilled person must appear to the appropriate regulator2 to have the skills necessary to make a report on the matter concerned or collect or update the relevant information.2 A skilled person may be an accountant, lawyer, compliance consultant,2actuary or person with relevant business, technical or technological skills.2
When considering whether to nominate, approve or appoint a skilled person to make a report or collect or update information, the appropriate regulator will have regard to the circumstances of the case, including whether the proposed skilled person appears to have:22(1) the skills necessary to make a report on the matter concerned or collect or update the relevant information;2(2) the ability to complete the report or collect or update the information within the time expected by
In appropriate circumstances, it may be cost effective for the appropriate regulator2 to nominate or approve the appointment of, or appoint itself,2 a skilled person who has previously acted for, or advised, the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or SUP 5.2.2 G.2 For example, the appropriate regulator2 may nominate or approve the appointment of, or appoint,2 the auditor of a person in SUP 5.2.1 G or SUP 5.2.2 G2 to prepare a report or collect or update the information2 taking into account,
Where the skilled person is appointed by the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or SUP 5.2.2 G, the appropriate regulator2 will normally require the skilled person to be appointed to report to the appropriate regulator2 through that person. In the normal course of events the appropriate regulator2 expects that the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or SUP 5.2.2 G2 will be given the opportunity to provide written comments on the report or the collection of the relevant information prior to its submission
The appropriate regulator2 may enter into a dialogue with the skilled person, and is ready to discuss matters relevant to the report or the collection or updating of the relevant information2 with him, during the preparation of the report or the collection or updating of the relevant information.2 Such discussions may2 involve or be through the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or SUP 5.2.2 G.222
The appropriate regulator2 will normally specify a time limit within which it expects the skilled person to deliver the report or collect or update the relevant information. Where the skilled person is appointed by the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or SUP 5.2.2 G, the2skilled person should, in complying with its contractual duty under SUP 5.5.1 R, take reasonable steps to achieve delivery by that time. If the skilled person becomes aware that the report may not be delivered, or collection
1The Referral Fees Regulations give the FCA investigation and sanctioning powers in relation to the contravention of the rules against referral fees contained in sections 56 to 60 of the Legal Aid, Sentencing and Punishment of Offenders Act 2012 (the LASPO Act), as well as the contravention of requirements imposed by, or under, the Referral Fees Regulations.
1The FCA's approach to taking enforcement action under the Referral Fees Regulations will mirror its general approach to enforcing the Act, as set out in EG 2. It will seek to exercise its enforcement powers in a manner that is transparent, proportionate and responsive to the issue and consistent with its publicly stated policies. It will also seek to ensure fair treatment when exercising its enforcement powers. Finally, it will aim to change the behaviour of the person who
1The FCA will notify the subject of the investigation that it has appointed investigators to carry out an investigation under the Referral Fees Regulations and the reasons for the appointment, unless notification is likely to result in the investigation being frustrated. In most cases, the FCA expects to carry out a scoping visit early on in the enforcement process. The FCA's
policy in civil investigations under the Referral Fees Regulations is to use powers
1When determining whether to take action to impose a penalty or to issue a public censure under the Referral Fees Regulations, the FCA's policy includes having regard to the relevant factors in DEPP 6.2 and DEPP 6.4. When determining the level of financial penalty, the FCA's policy includes having regard to the relevant principles and factors in DEPP 6.5 to 6.5B, DEPP 6.5D and DEPP 6.7.
1When determining whether to take action to impose a suspension or restriction under the Referral Fees Regulations, the FCA's policy includes having regard to the relevant factors in DEPP 6A.2 and 6A.4. When determining the length of the period of suspension or restriction, the FCA's policy includes having regard to the relevant principles and factors in DEPP 6A.3. However, the FCA does not have the power to suspend an authorised person’spermission under the Referral Fees Regulations.
1The FCA, together with several other UK authorities, has powers under Part 8 of the Enterprise Act to enforce breaches of consumer protection law. Where a breach has been committed, the FCA will liaise with other authorities, particularly the Competition and Markets Authority (the CMA), to determine which authority is best placed to take enforcement action. The FCA would generally expect to be the most appropriate authority to deal with breaches by authorised firms in relation
1The Community legislation falling within the FCA's scope under the Enterprise Act is: the Unfair Terms in Consumer Contracts Directive;17the Comparative and Misleading Advertising Directive;18the E-Commerce Directive;19the Distance Marketing Directive;20the Unfair Commercial Practices Directive; 21andthe Consumer Credit Directive.2217 Directive 93/13/EEC18 Directive 97/55/EC19 Directive 2000/31/EC20 Directive 2002/65/EC21 Directive 2005/29/EC22 Directive 2008/48/EC
1The FCA has powers under Part 8 of the Enterprise Act both as a “designated enforcer” in relation to domestic and Community infringements and as a “CPC enforcer” which gives the FCA and other CPC enforcers additional powers in relation to Community infringements so that they can meet their obligations as “competent authorities” under Regulation (EC) No.2006/2004 on co-operation between national authorities responsible for enforcement of consumer protection laws (the CPC Regulation).
1As a designated enforcer, the FCA has the power to apply to the courts for an enforcement order which requires a person who has committed a domestic or Community infringement or, as to the latter, is likely to commit such an infringement: (1) not to engage, including through a company and, as to a domestic infringement, whether or not in the course of business, in the conduct which constituted, or is likely to constitute, the infringement; (2) to publish the order and/or a corrective
1The FCA may also apply, if necessary without notice, for interim enforcement orders where immediate temporary prohibition of the relevant conduct is expedient pending full consideration by the court. Such interim orders can also be sought pre-emptively in relation to Community infringements, but again only preventing conduct in the course of business.
1The FCA’s investigative powers in support of its Enterprise Act enforcement powers are set out in Schedule 5 to the CRA. The FCA can, under Schedule 5, require any person to provide it with information which will enable it to (i) exercise or consider exercising its functions as an enforcer; or (ii) determine whether a person is complying with an enforcement order, an interim enforcement order or an undertaking given as described below. If the FCA requires a person to provide
1Before the FCA may apply for an enforcement order, including an interim enforcement order, it must: (1) give notice to the CMA of its intention to apply for an enforcement order; and (2) unless the application relates to breach of an undertaking given to the court (other than one to provide information), consult the person against whom the enforcement order would be made.
1The aim of consultation is to ensure that any action taken is necessary and proportionate, and to ensure that businesses are given a reasonable opportunity to put things right before the courts become involved. The consultation period starts when the person receives the FCA's request for consultation and runs whether or not that person agrees to be consulted and/or is available for consultation.
1In addition to its powers as a designated enforcer under the Enterprise Act, the FCA also has powers, in its capacity as a “CPC enforcer” and, therefore, only in respect of Community infringements, to enter commercial premises with or without a warrant. The FCA must give at least two working days’ notice of its intention to enter such premises without a warrant unless that is not reasonably practicable. If the FCA cannot give a notice in advance, it must produce the notice on
1The FCA anticipates that its powers under the Act will be adequate to address the majority of breaches which it would also be able to enforce under the Enterprise Act and that there will therefore be limited cases in which it would seek to use its powers as an Enterprise Act enforcer. Where the FCA does use its powers under the Enterprise Act, it will have regard to the enforcement guidelines which are published on the CMA’s website.2323www.gov.uk/governmentorganisations
1The FCA may apply for such an order where a criminal investigation has been started or where proceedings have started but not concluded; in either case there must be reasonable cause to believe that the defendant has benefited from criminal conduct. In this context, a person benefits from criminal conduct if he obtains property or a pecuniary advantage as a result of or in connection with conduct that would be an offence if it took place in England or Wales, regardless of whether
The FCA expects that an IPRE rating system will only be compliant if a firm is able to demonstrate the following in respect of its treatment of cash flows (except where the firm can demonstrate that this is not an appropriate risk driver):(1) the difference in deal ratings when tenant ratings are altered is intuitive;(2) the transformation of ratings into non-rent payment probability is intuitive. Even where tenants are rated by the firm the PD will not usually represent a direct
The FCA expects that an IPRE rating system will only be compliant if a firm is able to demonstrate the following in respect of its treatment of interest-rate risk (IRR):(1) IRR is included as a relevant risk driver (unless the portfolio is exclusively hedged);(2) the way in which IRR is included in the deal rating is intuitive with respect to model philosophy. For example, a 'point in time' rating should consider the current interest rate and likely change over a one-year time
The FCA expects that firms will not be compliant with the calibration requirements relating to use of a long-run default rate, unless it can demonstrate that:(1) the internal data series is the longest relevant and accurate data series, on a EU CRR compliant definition of default, that is available;(2) the determination of long-run default rate includes reference to an appropriate source of downturn data (this may require the use of external data);(3) the relevance of any external
The FCA expects that a firm will only be compliant with the calibration requirements relating to model philosophy if it can demonstrate that:(1) the model philosophy is clearly articulated and justified. Justification should include analysis of the performance of assets, and the corresponding ratings assigned, over a change in economic conditions (ie, as long as period as possible); and(2) in addition to encapsulating this information in a coherent way in the calibration, the
The FCA considers that, to meet the requirements referred to in IFPRU 4.11.1 G, it will be necessary for firms to demonstrate that a firm has a good understanding of PD models that are constructed theoretically and that the parameter estimates reflect a one-year PD. In addition, even if empirical data were not used to determine the PD estimate it should, where available, be used to back-test the estimates.
The FCA expects that, as most models of this type will be able to produce one-year estimates of PD that correspond closely to point-in-time estimates, firms should conduct robust back-testing of such estimates by comparing them with realised default rates. Firms would need to demonstrate that the results of such back-testing meet pre-defined and stringent standards in order for the FCA to be satisfied that the IRB requirements are met.
Because assumptions in the model build process are likely to materially impact the resulting PDs, the FCA would expect these choices to be clearly justified in the model documentation and to have been independently reviewed. To be satisfied that a firm is complying with article 176(1)(d) of the EU CRR, the FCA expects a firm to support justification for all assumptions with analysis of the sensitivity of the model outputs to changes in the assumptions.
The FCA expects that a firm will be compliant with the validation requirements only where1it can demonstrate, in respect of discriminatory power, that:11(1) appropriate minimum standards that the rating system is expected to reach are defined, together with reasoning behind the adoption of such standards and that the factors considered when determining the tests are clearly documented;(2) an objective rank-ordering metric, measured using an appropriate time horizon (eg, using
The FCA expects that a firm will be compliant with the validation requirements only where1it can demonstrate in respect of the calibration that:11(1) observed default rate versus PD is considered at grade level and across a range of economic environments (ie, as long as period as possible);(2) where the PD does not relate to a pure point-in-time estimate, either the PD or the observed default rate is transformed such that comparison between the two is meaningful. This transformation
The FCA also expects that a firm will be compliant with the validation requirements only where1it can demonstrate that:11(1) appropriate stability metrics should be considered across a range of economic environments (ie, longest period possible including most recent data);(2) the tolerances for the degree of divergence, and associated actions for what should happen when they are not met, is pre-defined; and(3) subsections of portfolios by characteristics affecting risk profile,
The FCA expects that a firm will1 be able to comply with certain other EU CRR requirements only where it can1demonstrate that:11(1) in relation to article 144(1)(e) of the EU CRR, where more than one model is used, the rationale, and the associated boundary issues, is clearly articulated and justified and the criteria for assigning an asset to a rating model are objective and clear;(2) in relation to article 173(1)(c) of the EU CRR, the firm has a process in place to ensure valuations
Article 20(6) of the EU CRR states that, where the IRB approach is used on a unified basis by those entities which fall within the scope of article 20(6) (EEA group), the FCA is required to permit certain IRB requirements to be met on a collective basis by members of that group. In particular, the FCA considers that, where a firm is reliant upon a rating system or data provided by another member of its group, it will not meet the condition that it is using the IRB approach on
Where a firm seeks to demonstrate to the FCA that the effect of its non-compliance with the requirements of Part Three, Title II Chapter 3 of the EU CRR (Internal ratings based approach) is immaterial under article 146(b) of the EU CRR (Measures to be taken where the requirements cease to be met), the FCA expects the firm to have taken into account all instances of non-compliance with the requirements of the IRB approach and to have demonstrated that the overall effect of non-compliance
(1) Where the firm's rating systems are used on a unified basis under article 20(6) of the EU CRR, the FCA considers that the governance requirements in article 189 of the EU CRR can only be met if the subsidiaries have delegated to the governing body or designated committee of the EEA parent institution, EEA parent financial holding company or EEA parent mixed financial holding company responsibility for approval of the firm's rating systems.(2) The FCA expects an appropriate
The FCA expects a firm seeking to apply the Standardised Approach on a permanent basis to certain exposures to have a well-documented policy explaining the basis on which exposures are to be selected for permanent exemption from the IRB approach. This policy should be provided to the FCA when the firm applies for permission to use the IRB approach and maintained thereafter. Where a firm also wishes to undertake sequential implementation, the FCA expects the firm's roll-out plan
(1) The FCA may permit the exemption of exposures to sovereigns and institutions under article 150(1)(a) and (b) of the EU CRR respectively only if the number of material counterparties is limited and it would be unduly burdensome to implement a rating system for such counterparties.(2) The FCA considers that the 'limited number of material counterparties' test is unlikely to be met if for the UK group total outstandings to 'higher risk' sovereigns and institutions exceed either
Where a firm wishes permanently to apply the Standardised Approach to certain business units on the grounds that they are non-significant and/or certain exposure classes or types of exposures on the grounds that they are immaterial in terms of size and perceived risk profile, the FCA expects to permit a firm to make use of this exemption only to the extent that the risk-weighted exposure amount calculated under article 92(3)(a) and (f) of the EU CRR that are based on the Standardised
The following points set out the level at which the FCA expects the 15% test to applied for a firm that is a member of a group:(1) if a firm is part of a group subject to consolidated supervision in the EEA and for which the FCA is the consolidating supervisor, the calculations in (1) are carried out with respect to the wider group;(2) if a firm is part of a group subject to consolidated supervision in the EEA and for which the FCA is not the consolidating supervisor the calculation
Where a firm wishes to permanently apply the Standardised Approach to exposures to connected counterparties in accordance with article 150(1)(e) of the EU CRR, the FCA would normally expect to grant permission to do so only if the firm had a policy that provided for the identification of connected counterparties exposures that would be permanently exempted from the IRB approach and also identified connected counterparty exposures (if any) that would not be permanently exempted
In the event that a firm with IRB permission acquires a significant new business, it should discuss with the FCA whether sequential roll-out of the firm's IRB approach to these exposures would be appropriate. In addition, the FCA would expect to review any existing time period and conditions for sequential roll-out and determine whether these remain appropriate (see article 148 of the EU CRR).
The FCA expects a firm to ensure that all documentation relating to its rating systems (including any documentation referenced in this chapter or required by the EU CRR that relate to the IRB approach) is stored, arranged and indexed in such a way that it could make them all, or any subset thereof, available to the FCA immediately on demand or within a short time thereafter.
The disaster recovery provider sets up and maintains a range of IT and related facilities (PABX etc). The disaster recovery contracts so far considered by the FCA give the recipient, subject to certain conditions including an up front payment, priority access to all or a specified part of these facilities if a 'disaster' causes the failure of a similar business system on which the recipient relies. The provider sells access to the same facilities to a number of different recipients,
However, the disaster recovery contracts considered by the FCA had two key features.(1) Priority access to facilities in the event of a disaster was expressed to be on a 'first come, first served' basis. The contracts provided expressly that if the facilities needed by recipient A were already in use, following an earlier invocation by recipient B, the provider's obligation to recipient A was reduced to no more than an obligation of 'best endeavours' to meet A's requirements.
An important part of the conclusion in PERG 6.7.5 G was that, although the provider assumed a risk at the outset of the contract, looking at the contract as a whole and interpreting the common law in the context of the FCA objectives (see PERG 6.5.2 G and PERG 6.5.3 G) there was no relevant assumption of risk.(1) The presence or absence of an assumption of risk is an important part of the statutory rationale for the prudential regulation of insurance.(2) In Medical Defence Union
The FCA is unlikely to classify a contract containing a simple manufacturer's or retailer's warranty as a contract of insurance, if the FCA is satisfied that the warranty does no more that crystallise or recognise obligations that are of the same nature as a seller's or supplier's usual obligations as regards the quality of the goods or services.
It follows from PERG 6.7.10 G that the FCA is unlikely to be satisfied that an obligation in a contract of sale or supply is of the same nature as the seller's or supplier's usual obligations as regards the quality of goods or services, if that obligation has one or more of the following features:(1) it is assumed by a person other than the seller or supplier (a 'third party'); or(2) it is significantly more extensive in content, scope or duration than a seller's usual obligations
Other things being equal, the FCA is likely to classify a contract of sale containing a warranty that has one or more of the features in PERG 6.7.11 G as a contract of insurance. The features in PERG 6.7.11 G (1) and (2) typically distinguish a 'third party' warranty and an 'extended warranty' from a 'simple' manufacturer's or retailer's warranty.
If a warranty is provided by a third party, the FCA will usually treat this as conclusive of the fact that there are different transactions and an assumption or transfer of risk. This conclusion would not usually depend on whether the provider is (or is not) a part of the same group of companies as the manufacturer or retailer. But it will be the third party (who assumes the risk) that is potentially effecting a contract of insurance.
A manufacturer or retailer may undertake a warranty obligation to his customer in a separate contract with the customer, distinct from the contract of sale or supply of goods or services. The FCA will examine the separate contract to see if it is a contract of insurance. But the mere existence of a separate warranty contract is unlikely to be conclusive by itself.
A manufacturer or retailer may undertake an obligation to ensure that the customer becomes a party to a separate contract of insurance in respect of the goods sold. This would include, for example, a contract for the sale of a freezer, with a simple warranty in relation to the quality of the freezer, but also providing insurance (underwritten by an insurer and in respect of which the customer is the policyholder) covering loss of frozen food if the freezer fails. The FCA is unlikely
The FCA distinguishes the contract in PERG 6.7.15 G from a contract under which the manufacturer or retailer assumes the obligation to provide the customer with an indemnity against loss or damage if the freezer fails, but takes out insurance to cover the cost of having to provide the indemnity to the customer. The obligation to indemnify is of a different nature from the seller's or supplier's usual obligations as regards the quality of goods or services and is an insurance obligation.
The following are examples of typical warranty schemes operated by motor dealers. Provided that, in each case, the FCA is satisfied that the obligations assumed by the dealer are not significantly more extensive in content, scope or duration that a dealer's usual obligations as to the quality of motor vehicles of that kind, the FCA would not usually classify the contracts embodying these transactions as contracts of insurance.(1) The dealer gives a verbal undertaking to the purchaser
Some providers argued that these schemes amount to nothing more than a 'manufacturer's warranty' of their own work, within the scope of PERG 6.7.7 G (Example 3: manufacturers' and retailers' warranties). However, HM Revenue and Customs is expected to make a significant number of random checks of self-assessment forms, irrespective of the quality of the work done by the provider. These random checks are also covered by the schemes. The FCA concluded, therefore, that these schemes
If, however, a contract of this kind were structured so that the recipient was charged at a commercial rate for any legal services in fact provided, the FCA's approach will be to treat the arrangement as non-insurance. This is principally because, by taking on obligations of this kind, the provider does not assume a relevant risk (see PERG 6.7.6 G). The position might be different if the solicitor carries the additional obligation to pay for alternative legal services to be provided
1The FCA's approach to taking enforcement action under the Immigration Regulations will mirror its general approach to enforcing the Act, as set out in EG 2. It will seek to exercise its enforcement powers in a manner that is transparent, proportionate and responsive to the issue and consistent with its publicly stated policies. It will also seek to ensure fair treatment when exercising its enforcement powers. Finally, it will aim to change the behaviour of the person who is
1The FCA will notify the subject of the investigation that it has appointed investigators to carry out an investigation under the Immigration Regulations and the reasons for the appointment, unless notification is likely to result in the investigation being frustrated. In most cases, the FCA expects to carry out a scoping visit early on in the enforcement process. The FCA's
policy in civil investigations under the Immigration Regulations is to use powers to
1When determining whether to take action to impose a penalty or to issue a public censure under the Immigration Regulations, the FCA’s policy includes having regard to the relevant factors in DEPP 6.2 and DEPP 6.4. When determining the level of financial penalty, the FCA’s policy includes having regard to the relevant principles and factors in DEPP 6.5 to DEPP 6.5B, DEPP 6.5D and DEPP 6.7.
1When determining whether to take action to impose a suspension or restriction under the Immigration Regulations, the FCA's policy includes having regard to the relevant factors in DEPP 6A.2 and 6A.4. When determining the length of the period of suspension or restriction, the FCA's policy includes having regard to the relevant principles and factors in DEPP 6A.3.
An applicant for recognised
body status needs to demonstrate to the FCA5 that it is able to meet the recognised body requirements31before a recognition
order can be made. Once it has been recognised, a recognised body has to comply with the recognised
body requirements31at all times. (Guidance on
the recognised
body requirements3 applicable to UK
recognised bodies (and applicants) is given in REC 2 and REC 2A).35333
In addition, under section 290A
of the Act (Refusal of recognition
on ground of excessive regulatory provision), the FCA5 must refuse to make a recognition
order in relation to a body applying for recognition as a UK RIE if it appears to the FCA5 that an existing or proposed regulatory
provision of the applicant in connection with the applicant's
business as an investment exchange or the provision by the applicant of clearing facilitation services5 imposes, or will impose, an
(1) There
is no standard application form. A prospective applicant should contact the
Markets Division at the FCA5 at an early stage for advice on the preparation, scheduling and
practical aspects of its application.5(2) It
is very important, if an application is to be processed smoothly and in a
reasonable time, that it is comprehensively prepared and based on a well-developed
and clear proposal.
An application should:(1) be
made in accordance with any directions the FCA5 may make under section 287 (Application by an investment exchange) of the Act or (for RAPs)
regulation 2 of the RAP regulations;353355(2) in
the case of an application under section5 287 of the Act, 3be accompanied by the applicant's regulatory
provisions and
in the case of an application under section 287 of the Act information
required pursuant to sub-sections 287(3)(c), (d) and (e) of the Act (see
Under section 289 of the Act (Applications: supplementary) or (for an RAP applicant)
regulation 2 of the RAP regulations,3 the FCA5 may
require the applicant to provide additional information, and may require the
applicant to verify any information in any manner. In view of their likely
importance for any application, the FCA5 will normally wish to arrange for its own inspection of an applicant's
information technology systems.55
1In
the case of an application to become a UK
RIE or an RAP3, under subsection 290(1B) of the Act and
(for an RAP applicant) regulation
2(8) of the RAP regulations3, the application must be determined by the FCA5 before the end of the period of six months beginning
with the date on which it receives the completed application.5
(1) The FCA5 will
keep the applicant informed of the progress of the application.5(2) It
may be necessary to ask the applicant to clarify or amplify some aspects of
its proposals. The FCA5 may wish to discuss various aspects of the application and may
invite the applicant to attend one or more meetings for that purpose. When
requested to do so, the FCA5 will explain the nature of the information which it has asked
an applicant to supply in connection with its application.55
Where the FCA5 considers that it is unlikely to make a recognition
order it will discuss its concerns with
the applicant as early as possible with a view to enabling the applicant to
make changes to its rules or guidance, or other parts of the application (see REC 5.2.7 G).
If the FCA5 decides
that it will not make a recognition order,
it will follow the procedure set out in section 298 of the Act (Directions
and revocation: procedure) or
(in the case of an RAP) regulation
5 of
Information and supporting documentation (see REC 5.2.4 G).
(1) |
Details of the applicant's constitution, structure and ownership, including its memorandum and articles of association (or similar or analogous documents ) and any agreements between the applicant, its owners or other persons relating to its constitution or governance (if not contained in the information listed in REC 5.2.3A G)1. An applicant for RAP status must provide details of the relationship between the governance arrangements in place for the UK RIE and the RAP.3 |
(2) |
Details of all business to be conducted by the applicant, whether or not a regulated activity (if not contained in the information listed in REC 5.2.3A G)1. |
(3) |
Details of the facilities which the applicant plans to operate, including details of the trading platform or (for an RAP) auction platform,3 settlement arrangements, clearing facilitation services5 and custody services which it plans to supply. An applicant for RAP status must provide details on the relationship between the auction platform and any secondary market in emissions auction products4 which it operates or plans to operate.3 54 |
(4) |
Copies of the last three annual reports and accounts and, for the current financial year, quarterly management accounts. |
(5) |
Details of its business plan for the first three years of operation as a UK recognised body (if not contained in the information listed in REC 5.2.3A G)1. |
(6) |
A full organisation chart and a list of the posts to be held by key individuals (with details of the duties and responsibilities) and the names of the persons proposed for these appointments when these names are available (if not contained in the information listed in REC 5.2.3A G)1. |
(7) |
Details of its auditors, bankers, solicitors and any persons providing corporate finance advice or similar services (such as reporting accountants) to the applicant. |
(8) |
Details of any relevant functions to be outsourced or delegated, with copies of relevant agreements. |
(9) |
Details of information technology systems and of arrangements for their supply, management, maintenance and upgrading, and security. |
(10) |
Details of all plans to minimise disruption to operation of its facilities in the event of the failure of its information technology systems. |
(11) |
Details of internal systems for financial control, arrangements for risk management and insurance arrangements to cover operational and other risks. |
(12) |
Details of its arrangements for managing any counterparty risks. 5 |
(13) |
Details of internal arrangements to safeguard confidential or privileged information and for handling conflicts of interest. |
(14) |
Details of arrangements for complying with the notification rules and other requirements to supply information to the FCA5. 5 |
(15) |
Details of the arrangements to be made for monitoring and enforcing compliance with its rules and with its clearing, settlement and default arrangements. |
(16) |
A summary of the legal due diligence carried out in relation to ascertaining the enforceability of its rules (including default rules) and the results and conclusions reached. 5 |
(17) |
Details of the procedures to be followed for declaring a member in default, and for taking action after that event to close out positions, protect the interests of other members and enforce its default rules. |
(18) |
Details of membership selection criteria, rules and procedures, including (for an RAP) details of how the rules of the UK RIE will change in order to reflect RAP status.3 |
(19) |
Details of arrangements for recording transactions effected by, or cleared through, its facilities. |
(20) |
Details of arrangements for detecting financial crime and market abuse , including arrangements for complying with money laundering law. |
(21) |
Details of criteria, rules and arrangements for selecting specified investments to be admitted to trading on (or cleared by) an RIE and, where relevant, details of how information regarding specified investments will be disseminated to users of its facilities. 5 |
(22) |
Details of arrangements for cooperating with the FCA5 and other appropriate authorities, including draft memoranda of understanding or letters. 5 |
(23) |
Details of the procedures and arrangements for making and amending rules, including arrangements for consulting on rule changes. |
(24) |
Details of disciplinary and appeal procedures, and of the arrangements for investigating complaints. |
A firm should make a separate notification about a person under section 64C of the Act where:(1) it has made a notification to the FCA about a person pursuant to SUP 15.3.11R(1)(a) because of a breach of COCON2; and(2) it subsequently takes disciplinary action against the person for the action, failure to act, or circumstance, that amounted to a breach of COCON.
If, after a firm has made a notification for a person (A) pursuant to section 64C of the Act,2 it becomes aware of facts or matters which cause it to change its view that A has breached COCON, or cause it to determine that A has breached a provision of COCON other than the provision to which the notification related, the firm should inform the FCA of those facts and matters and its revised conclusion in line with a firm’s obligation to comply with Principle 11, SUP 15.6.4R and,
If a firm takes disciplinary action as a result of a conduct breach (see SUP 15.11.6R) against an employee but the employee has appealed or plans to appeal, the firm should still report the disciplinary action under section 64C of the Act but should include the appeal in the notification. The firm should update the FCA on the outcome of any appeal.2
An FCA-approved person's job may change from time to time as a result, for instance, of a change in personal job responsibilities or a firm'sregulated activities. Where the changes will involve the person performing one or more FCA controlled functions different from those for which approval has already been granted, then an application must be made to the FCA for approval for the person to perform those FCA controlled functions. The firm must take reasonable care to ensure that
If it is proposed that an FCA-approved person will no longer be performing an FCA controlled function under an arrangement entered into by one firm or one of its contractors, but will be performing the same or a different FCA controlled function under an arrangement entered into by a new firm or one of its contractors (whether or not the new firm is in the same group as the old firm), the new firm will be required to make a fresh application for the performance of the FCA controlled
(1) A firm must submit to the FCA a completed Form C, in the form set out in SUP 10A Annex 6R, no later than seven business days after an FCA-approved person ceases to perform an FCA controlled function.2(2) If:2(a) the firm is also making an application for approval for that approved person to perform a controlled function within the same firm or group; and2(b) ceasing to perform the FCA controlled function in (1) has triggered a requirement to make that application for approval:2(i)
(1) A firm must notify the FCA as soon as practicable after it becomes aware, or has information which reasonably suggests, that it will submit a qualified Form C in respect of an FCA-approved person.(2) Form C is qualified if the information it contains:(a) relates to the fact that the firm has dismissed, or suspended, the FCA-approved person from its employment; or(b) relates to the resignation by the FCA-approved person while under investigation by the firm, the FCA or any
Notification under SUP 10A.14.10 R may be made by telephone, email or fax and should be made, where possible, within one business day of the firm becoming aware of the information. If the firm does not submit Form C, it should inform the FCA in due course of the reason. This could be done using Form D, if appropriate.
A firm can submit Form C or Form E to the FCA in advance of the cessation date. When a person ceases the arrangement under which he performs an FCA controlled function, he will automatically cease to be an FCA-approved person in relation to that FCA controlled function. A person can only be an FCA-approved person in relation to a specific FCA controlled function. Therefore, a person is not an FCA-approved person during any period between ceasing to perform one FCA controlled function
If a firm becomes aware of information which would reasonably be material to the assessment of an FCA-approved person's, or a FCA candidate's, fitness and propriety (see FIT), it must inform the FCA on Form D, or (if it is more practical to do so and with the prior agreement of the FCA) by e-mail or fax, as soon as practicable.
(1) If, in relation to a firm which has completed the relevant Form A (SUP 10A Annex 4D), any of the details relating to arrangements and FCA controlled functions are to change, the firm must notify the FCA on Form D (SUP 10A Annex 7R). (2) The notification under (1) must be made as soon as reasonably practicable after the firm becomes aware of the proposed change.(3) This also applies in relation to an FCA controlled function for which an application was made using Form E.(4)
73A firm which manages the assets of an occupational pension scheme must notify the FCA20 as soon as reasonably practicable if it receives any request or instruction from a trustee which it:20(1) knows; or(2) on substantial grounds:(a) suspects; or(b) has cause reasonably to suspect;is at material variance with the trustee's duties.1
(1) An insurer must notify the FCA20in respect of any firm (the "intermediary") as soon as reasonably practicable if:20(a) any amount of commission due from the intermediary to the insurer in accordance with an indemnity commission clawback arrangement remains outstanding for four months after the date when the insurer gave notice to the intermediary that the relevant premium had not been paid; or(b) any amount of commission due from the intermediary to the insurer as a result
(1) 467In accordance with article 3111of the Money Laundering Regulations, with effect from 15 December 200711, a firm is required to notify the FCA:20111120(a) before it begins or within 28 days of it beginning11; and(b) immediately11 after it ceases;11to operate a money service business or a trust or company service provider.1111(2) The notification referred to in (1) should be made in accordance with the requirements in SUP 15.7 (Form and method of notification)
467A firm which is already operating a money service business or a trust or company service provider11 as at 15 December 200711 is required by the Money Laundering Regulations to notify the FCA20 of that fact and should do so in the manner specified in SUP 15.8.4 G(2) before 15 January 200811.111120
(1) 9If a firm begins or ceases to hold itself out as acting as a CTF provider, it must notify the FCA20 as soon as reasonably practicable that it has done so.20(2) A firm that acts as a CTF provider must provide theFCA,20 as soon as reasonably practicable, with details of:20(a) any third party administrator that it engages;(b) details of whether it intends to offer HMRC allocated CTFs12; and12(c) whether it intends to provide its own stakeholder CTF account.
(1) 11If a UKfirm has exercised an EEA right under AIFMD and established a branch in another EEA State, the UKfirm must not make a material change in the requisite details of the branch or the identity of the AIFs it manages in the EEA State in which it has established a branch (see SUP 13 Annex 1), unless: (a) it has complied with regulation 17A(4) for a planned change; or(b) it has complied with regulation 17A(5) for a unplanned change.(2) The requirements in regulation 17A(4)
(1) 13A UK firm which has exercised an EEA right deriving from the MCD to establish a branch, must not make any material changes to the requisite details of the branch unless it has complied with the requirements in regulation 17(B)(2).(2) The requirements in regulation 17(B)(2) are that(a) the UK firm has given notice to the FCA stating the details of the proposed change; and(b) the period of one month beginning with the day on which the UK firm gave notice has elapsed.(3) Paragraph
17Where the PRA is the appropriate UK regulator, it will consult the FCA before deciding whether to give consent to a change (or proposed change) and where the FCA is the appropriate UK regulator, it will consult the PRA before deciding whether to give consent in relation to a UK firm whose immediate group includes a PRA-authorised person.
7When the appropriate UK regulator17 receives a notice from a UK MiFID investment firm (see SUP 13.6.5BG (1)), it is required by regulation 11A(3) to inform the relevant Host State regulator of the proposed change as soon as reasonably practicable. The firm in question may make the change once the period of one month beginning with the day on which it gave notice has elapsed.17
(1) 11When the FCA receives a notice from an AIFM (see SUP 13.6.9C G) for a planned change and such change means the AIFM no longer complies with AIFMD, the FCA must inform the AIFM without undue delay that:(a) the FCA objects to the change, including reasons for its decision; and(b) the AIFM must not implement the change.In these circumstances the AIFM may refer the matter to the Tribunal.(2) If a planned change is implemented or an unplanned change takes place and results in
13When the FCA receives a notice from a UK firm exercising an EEA right under the MCD it will, under regulation 17(B)(3), inform the relevant Host State regulator of the proposed change as soon as reasonably practicable. The UK firm in question may make the change once a period of one month has elapsed beginning with the day on which it gave notice.
1The FCA has investigation and sanctioning powers in relation to both criminal and civil breaches of the Electronic Money Regulations. The Electronic Money Regulations impose requirements including, amongst other things, various provisions regulating the rights and obligations of electronic money institutions.
1The FCA's approach to enforcing the Electronic Money Regulations will mirror its general approach to enforcing the Act, as set out in EG 2. It will seek to exercise its enforcement powers in a manner that is transparent, proportionate, responsive to the issue, and consistent with its publicly stated policies. It will also seek to ensure fair treatment when exercising its enforcement powers. Finally, it will aim to change the behaviour of the electronic money
1The Electronic Money Regulations, for the most part, mirror the FCA's investigative, sanctioning and regulatory powers under the Act. The FCA has decided to adopt procedures and policies in relation to the use of those powers akin to those it has under the Act. Key features of the FCA's approach are described below.
1The FCA will notify the subject of the investigation that it has appointed investigators to carry out an investigation under the Electronic Money Regulations and the reasons for the appointment, unless notification is likely to prejudice the investigation or otherwise result in it being frustrated. The FCA's
policy in civil investigations under the Electronic Money Regulations is to use powers to compel information in the same way as it would in the course
1The RDC is the FCA's decision maker for some of the decisions under the Electronic Money Regulations as set out in DEPP 2 Annex 1G. The RDC will make its decisions following the procedure set out in DEPP 3.2 or, where appropriate, DEPP 3.3 and 3.4. DEPP 3.4 applies for urgent notices under regulation 11(6), (9) and (10)(b) (including as applied by regulation 15).
1When determining whether to suspend the authorisation or, as the case may be, the registration of an electronic money
institution or limit or otherwise restrict the carrying on of electronic money issuance or payments services business by an electronic money
issuer the FCA's
policy will have regard to the relevant factors in DEPP 6A.
1As with cases under the Act, the FCA may settle or mediate appropriate cases involving civil breaches of the Electronic Money Regulations to assist it to exercise its functions under the Regulations in the most efficient and economic way. See DEPP 5, DEPP 6.7 and EG 5 for further information on the settlement process and the settlement discount scheme.
1The Electronic Money Regulations apply section 169 of the Act which requires the FCA to publish a statement of policy on the conduct of certain interviews in response to requests from overseas regulators. For the purposes of the Electronic Money Regulations the FCA will follow the procedures described in DEPP 7.
1It also imposes obligations on registered firms to comply with conduct requirements set out in the Schedule to the MCDO, retain relevant information and to deal with the FCA in an open and co-operative manner. The FCA also has the power to give directions to a registered firm to secure compliance with the requirements set out in the Schedule. In addition, the FCA has investigation and sanctioning powers in relation to the framework.
1The FCA's approach to taking enforcement action under the MCDO will mirror its general approach to enforcing the Act, as set out in EG 2. It will seek to exercise its enforcement powers in a manner that is transparent, proportionate and responsive to the issue and consistent with its publicly stated policies. It will also seek to ensure fair treatment when exercising its enforcement powers. Finally, it will aim to change the behaviour of the person who is the subject of its action,
1Article 23 of the MCDO applies many of the provisions of the Act in relation to the FCA’s investigation and information-gathering powers in respect of a registered firm. The effect of this is to apply the same procedures under the Act for appointing investigators and requiring information when investigating contraventions of the MCDO.
1For example, the FCA will notify the subject of the investigation that it has appointed investigators to carry out an investigation under the MCDO and the reasons for the appointment, unless notification is likely to result in the investigation being frustrated. In most cases, the FCA expects to carry out a scoping visit early on in the enforcement process. The FCA's policy in regulatory investigations under the MCDO is to use powers to compel information, in the same way as
1The RDC is the FCA’s decision maker for some decisions which require warning notices or decision notices to be given under the MCDO as set out in DEPP 2 Annex 1G. The RDC will make its decisions following the procedure set out in DEPP 3.2 or, where appropriate, DEPP 3.3, and DEPP 3.4 applies for urgent notices under article 16(1)(a).
1Article 18(3) applies sections 393 and 394 of the Act to warning notices and decision notices given under the MCDO and so require the FCA to give third party rights and to give access to material as set out under the Act. Article 24(1) applies the procedural provisions of Part 9 of the Act, in respect of matters that can be referred to the Tribunal, and article 24(2) applies Part 26 of the Act to warning and decision notices given under the MCDO.
1 When determining whether to take action to impose a penalty or to issue a public censure under the MCDO, the FCA’s policy includes having regard to the relevant factors in DEPP 6.2 and DEPP 6.4. When determining the level of financial penalty, the FCA’s policy includes having regard to the relevant principles and factors in DEPP 6.5, DEPP 6.5A, DEPP 6.5D and DEPP 6.7.
1When determining whether to take action to impose a suspension under the MCDO, the FCA’s policy includes having regard to the relevant factors in DEPP 6A.2 and 6A.4. When determining the length of the period of suspension, the FCA’s policy includes having regard to the relevant principles and factors in DEPP 6A.3.
27Under section 55H of the Act, an FCA-authorised person may apply to the FCA to vary its Part 4A permission to:(1) allow it to carry on further regulated activities, other than a PRA-regulated activity; or(2) reduce the number of regulated activities it is permitted to carry on; or (3) vary the description of its regulated activities (including by the removal or variation of any limitations).
(1) Subject to (1A), a17firm other than a credit union wishing to make an application under SUP 6 must apply online using the form specified on the ONA18system.14141727272718(1A) A firm wishing to make an application under SUP 6 which covers only credit-related regulated activities must submit any form, notice or application by using the form in SUP 6 Annex 5 and submitting it in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification).17(2) [deleted]271427(3)
27Where a firm applies to the PRA for the variation of its Part 4A permission, the FCA, in giving consent to such an application or imposing any requirements on the firm, is required by section 55B(3) of the Act to ensure that the firm satisfies and will continue to satisfy the threshold conditions for which the FCA is responsible in relation to all the regulated activities for which the firm has or will have Part 4A permission after the variation.
(1) 27The FCA's duty under section 55B(3) of the Act does not prevent it, having regard to that duty, from taking such steps as it considers necessary in relation to a particular firm, to meet any of its operational objectives. This may include granting or consenting to (as the case may be) a firm's application for variation of Part 4A permission when it wishes to wind down (run off) its business activities and cease to carry on new business as a result of no longer being able
27The FCA's power to vary a Part 4A permission after it receives an application from a firm extends to including in the Part 4A permission as varied any provision that could be included as though a fresh permission was being given in response to an application under section 55A of the Act (Application for permission). Under section 55E of the Act (Giving permission: the FCA) the FCA may:(1) incorporate in the description of a regulated activity such limitations (for example, as
27Thus, when determining an application for variation of Part 4A permission, the FCA can, include new limitations and vary existing limitations, either on application from the firm (for example, the customer categories with which a firm may carry on a specified activity) or, if considered appropriate, by the FCA under section 55E(5) of the Act.
DEPP9gives guidance on the FCA's27 decision making procedures including the procedures it will follow if it proposes to refuse an application for variation of Part 4A permission or for imposition or variation of a requirement27 either in whole or in part (for example, an application granted by the FCA27 but subject to limitations or requirements not applied for).92727
(1) Firms should be aware that the appropriate regulator may exercise its own-initiative variation power to vary or cancel their Part 4A permission if they do not (see section 55J of the Act (Variation or cancellation on initiative of regulator)):2727(a) commence a regulated activity for which they have Part 4A permission27 within a period of at least 12 months from the date of being given; or27(b) carry on a regulated activity for which they have Part 4A permission27 for a period
The FCA considers the effect of each of the conditions in PERG 8.14.3G (1) to PERG 8.14.3G (3) to be as follows.(1) The first condition requires the financial promotion to be made, so ruling out any financial promotions which are directed at persons. The effect of article 6(b) and (e) of the Financial Promotion Order is that a communication is made to a person when it is addressed to him and that person to whom the financial promotion is addressed is its recipient. This means
In the FCA's opinion, the indicators referred to in PERG 8.14.4 G suggest that there are two essential elements of a one-off financial promotion. These are that it is tailored to the circumstances of the recipient and that it is individual in nature (in that it is not simply a personalised letter sent out as part of a general mailshot). Apart from this there is no need for the communication to be an isolated instance. For example, the fact that there may be a considerable number
In the FCA's view, a group of recipients who may be engaging in investment activity jointly could include:(1) a married couple;(2) two or more persons who will invest jointly in a product (for example, a cohabiting couple who are not married or members of a family);(3) the directors of a company or partners in a firm;(4) members of a group of companies;(5) the participants in a joint commercial enterprise;(6) the members of an investment club; and(7) the managers or prospective
A financial promotion may fail to satisfy all of the indicators referred to in PERG 8.14.4 G because it is addressed to more than one recipient and they are not persons who will engage in investment activity jointly. In the FCA's view, such a financial promotion is capable of being one-off where the persons are to enter into the same transaction and the promotion is tailored to their individual circumstances. This may typically happen during negotiations for the sale of a company
In the FCA's view, a person such as an investment manager or adviser is not conducting an organised marketing campaign purely because he regularly provides a particular client with financial promotions as part of his service. Neither is such a person conducting an organised marketing campaign purely because he may have several clients whose personal circumstances and objectives may suggest that a particular investment opportunity may attract them. If he considers the individual
In the FCA's view, a person will not be making one-off financial promotions simply by sending out a series of letters to a number of customers or potential customers where a few details are changed (such as the name and address) but the bulk of the letter is standard. Such letters would be likely to be part of an organised marketing campaign.
In the FCA's view, the article 28A exemption should provide scope for persons such as professional advisers to make unsolicited real time financial promotions in various situations. For example, when approaching persons with whom their clients are proposing to do business or those persons’ professional advisers. The exemption will not apply where the financial promotions are part of an organised marketing campaign (see PERG 8.14.4G (3)). So, in cases where a professional adviser
Whether or not it would be reasonable to believe that any person understands the risks associated with the investment activity covered in a financial promotion or would expect to be contacted about it must be judged on the particular circumstances. In the FCA's opinion, the exemption requires that the recipient has the required understanding of risk at the time the promotion is made to him. However, it would be reasonable to believe that a person understands the risk involved
In order to make an unsolicited real time financial promotion, an overseas communicator must rely on either article 32 or article 33. Article 32 provides an exemption for unsolicited real time financial promotions made by an overseas communicator to persons who were previously overseas and were a customer of his then. This is subject to certain conditions, including that, in broad terms, the customer would reasonably expect to be contacted about the subject matter of the financial
This exemption allows a person in another EEA State who lawfully carries on a controlled activity in that State to promote into the United Kingdom. The terms of the exemption are that the promotion must comply with the rules inCOBS 45,9MCOB 3A10 or CONC 39 (as relevant). Care should be taken as any failure to satisfy any of the relevant requirements of these rules may mean that this exemption is not satisfied and that the financial promotion may breach section 21 if it has not
In the FCA's opinion;(1) it will not matter that a person enters into arrangements for investment or other purposes provided that he also enters them into for commercial purposes; and(2) each participant must be carrying on the business in question in their own right.This means that the sponsors or promoters of a company who arrange for private investors to become shareholders will not be setting up a joint enterprise simply because the company may intend to carry on a relevant
A person seeking to make a financial promotion to another person may wish to make enquiries of that person to establish whether he is certified. Unless another exemption applies or the financial promotion is approved by an authorised person, such enquiries will not be possible if the enquiry communication is an inducement or invitation to engage in investment activity. In the FCA's8 view, a communication which is merely an enquiry seeking to establish that a person holds a current
Article 49(4) gives the list of conditions which, if all are met, is proof that the financial promotion is directed at relevant persons. It is not necessary for all or any of the conditions to be met for a financial promotion to be regarded as directed at relevant persons. Ultimately the matter will be one of fact to be determined by taking account of the circumstances in which the financial promotion is made. In the FCA's opinion, it is not necessary for a financial promotion,
To be a sophisticated investor for the purposes of article 50, the recipient of a financial promotion must have a current certificate from an authorised person stating that he has enough knowledge to be able to understand the risks associated with the description of investment to which the financial promotion relates. Where the financial promotion is an outgoing electronic commerce communication3, the certificate may be signed by a person who is entitled, under the law of an EEA
The exemption also requires that certain warnings are given to the potential investor. In this respect, article 50(3)(d) provides that the financial promotion must state that there is a significant risk of losing all monies invested or of incurring additional liability. In the FCA's view, these are alternative statements and whichever is the relevant statement should be included. If there is no risk of incurring additional liability the statement may simply say that there is a
In the FCA's view, a main aim of the exemption (see PERG 8.14.35G (1)) is to remove from the scope of section 21 a financial promotion concerning the sale of a corporate business by a person who, either alone or with others, controls the business to another person who, either alone or with others, proposes to control the business.
In the FCA's17 opinion, provided that the purpose of the transaction is for the buyer to acquire the necessary control, it is irrelevant who is the seller. The exemption specifically applies to financial promotions which are communicated on behalf of the parties or potential parties to the transaction.1717
Several exemptions, including article 43 of the Financial Promotion Order (Members and creditors of certain bodies corporate), apply only in relation to relevant investments being shares or debentures or alternative debentures7 in the body corporate or a member of its group, or warrants or certificates representing certain securities relating to such shares or debentures or alternative debentures.7 In the FCA's view, an exchangeable debt security which is partly a debenture or
The exemptions for bearer instruments (articles 41 and 42 of the Financial Promotion Order) relate to financial promotions made to or directed at persons entitled to bearer instruments. For clarity, the FCA takes the view that persons who hold bearer instruments through a clearing system such as Euroclear or Clearstream are persons entitled to those instruments for the purposes of articles 41 and 42.
(1) A firm should:2(a) carry out assessments of the sort described in the overall Pillar 2 rule and IFPRU 2.2.13R on an ongoing basis; and2(b) document the assessments in (a), in line with IFPRU 2.2.43R to IFPRU 2.2.44R (Documentation of risk assessments), at least annually, or more frequently if changes in the business, strategy, nature or scale of its activities or operational environment suggest that the current level of financial resources is no longer adequate.2(2) The appropriateness
(1) As part of its obligations under the overall Pillar 2 rule, a firm must carry out an evaluation of its exposure to the interest-rate risk arising from its non-trading activities.(2) The evaluation under (1) must cover the effect of a sudden and unexpected parallel change in interest rates of 200 basis points in both directions.(3) A firm must immediately notify the FCA if any evaluation under this rule suggests that, as a result of the change in interest rates described in
(1) As part of its obligation under the overall Pillar 2 rule, a firm that is a significant IFPRU firm must:(a) for the major sources of risk identified in line with IFPRU 2.2.7R(2), carry out stress tests and scenario analyses that are appropriate to the nature, scale and complexity of those major sources of risk and to the nature, scale and complexity of the firm's business; and(b) carry out the reverse stress testing under SYSC 20 (Reverse stress testing).(2) In carrying out
A firm controlled by a parent financial holding company in a Member State or a parent mixed financial holding company in a Member State must comply with the ICAAPrules on the basis of the consolidated situation of that holding company, if the FCA is responsible for supervision of the firm on a consolidated basis under article 111 of CRD. [Note: article 108(3) of CRD]
For the purpose of the ICAAPrules as they apply on a consolidated basis or on a sub-consolidated basis: (1) the firm must ensure that the FCA consolidation group has the processes, strategies and systems required by the overall Pillar 2 rule;(2) the risks to which the overall Pillar 2 rule and the general stress and scenario testing rule refer are those risks as they apply to each member of the FCA consolidation group;(3) the reference in the overall Pillar 2 rule to amounts
(1) This rule relates to the assessment of the amounts, types and distribution of financial resources, own funds and internal capital (referred to in this rule as "resources") under the overall Pillar 2 rule as applied on a consolidated basis and to the assessment of diversification effects as referred to in IFPRU 2.2.14 R (3)(b) as applied on a consolidated basis.(2) A firm must be able to explain how it has aggregated the risks referred to in the overall Pillar 2 rule and the
(1) A firm must allocate the total amount of financial resources, own funds and internal capital identified as necessary under the overall Pillar 2 rule (as applied on a consolidated basis) between different parts of the FCA consolidation group. IFPRU 2.2.11 R (Identifying different tiers of capital) does not apply to this allocation(2) The firm must carry out the allocation in (1) in a way that adequately reflects the nature, level and distribution of the risks to which the group
A firm must also allocate the total amount of financial resources, own funds and internal capital (referred to in this rule as "resources") identified as necessary under the overall Pillar 2 rule as applied on a consolidated basis or sub-consolidated basis between each firm which is a member of the FCA consolidation group on the following basis:(1) the amount allocated to each firm must be decided on the basis of the principles in IFPRU 2.2.53 R (2); and(2) if the process in (1)
A firm to which the ICAAPrules apply on a consolidated basis need not prepare a consolidated basis assessment if such an assessment has been prepared by another member of its FCA consolidation group. In such cases, a firm may adopt such an assessment as its own. A firm nevertheless remains responsible for the assessment.
The purpose of IFPRU 2.2.52 R to IFPRU 2.2.55 G is to enable the FCA to assess the extent, if any, to which a firm's assessment, calculated on a consolidated basis, is lower than it would be if each separate legal entity were to assess the amount of capital it would require to mitigate its risks (to the same level of confidence) were it not part of a group subject to consolidated supervision under Part One, Title II, Chapter 2 of the EUCRR (Prudential consolidation). The reason
Where a firm is a member of a FCA consolidation group or a non-EEA sub-group, the firm must ensure that the risk management processes and internal control mechanisms at those levels comply with the obligations set out in the risk control rules on a consolidated basis (or a sub-consolidated basis).[Note: article 109(2) of CRD]
Compliance with the obligations in IFPRU 2.2.59 R must enable the FCA consolidation group or the non-EEA sub-group to have arrangements, processes and mechanisms that are consistent, well integrated and ensure that data relevant to the purpose of supervision can be produced.[Note: article 109(2) of CRD]
When the overall financial adequacy rule applies on a consolidated basis or sub-consolidated basis, the firm must ensure that at all times its FCA consolidation group maintains overall financial resources and internal capital, including own funds and liquidity resources, which are adequate, both as to amount and quality, to ensure that there is no significant risk that the liabilities of any members of its FCA consolidation group cannot be met as they fall due.
(1) In identifying an appropriate range of adverse circumstances and events in accordance with IFPRU 2.2.37 R (2):(a) a firm will need to consider the cycles it is most exposed to and whether these are general economic cycles or specific to particular markets, sectors or industries;(b) for the purposes of IFPRU 2.2.37 R (2)(a), the amplitude and duration of the relevant cycle should include a severe downturn scenario based on forward-looking hypothetical events, calibrated against
A firm should include in the written record in IFPRU 2.2.43 R (Documentation of risk assessments) a description of the broad business strategy of the FCA consolidation group or the non-EEA sub-group of which it is a member, the group's view of its principal risks and its approach to measuring, managing and controlling the risks. This description should include the role of stress testing, scenario analysis and contingency planning in managing risk on an individual basis and consolidated
A firm should satisfy itself that the systems (including IT) of the FCA consolidation group or the non-EEA sub-group of which it is a member are sufficiently sound to support the effective management and, where applicable, the quantification of the risks that could affect the FCA consolidation group or the non-EEA sub-group, as the case may be.
In performing stress tests and scenario analyses, a firm should take into account the risk that its group may have to bring back on to its consolidated balance sheet the assets and liabilities of off-balance sheet entities as a result of reputational contagion, notwithstanding the appearance of legal risk transfer.