Related provisions for CONC 8.7.7
21 - 40 of 589 items.
3Other firms should take account of the rule on the types of conflicts (see SYSC 10.1.4 R) as if it were guidance (and as if "should" appeared in that rule instead of "must") as explained in SYSC 1 Annex 1.3.3 G4, except when they produce or arrange the production of investment research in accordance with COBS 12.2, or produce or disseminate non-independent research in accordance with COBS 12.3 (see SYSC 10.1.16 R).
3Other firms should take account of the rule on records of conflicts (see SYSC 10.1.6 R) as if it were guidance (and as if "should" appeared in that rule instead of "must", as explained in SYSC 1 Annex 1.3.3 G4), except when they produce or arrange the production of investment research in accordance with COBS 12.2, or produce or disseminate non-independent research in accordance with COBS 12.3 (see SYSC 10.1.16 R).
(1) If arrangements made by a firm under SYSC 10.1.7 R to manage conflicts of interest are not sufficient to ensure, with reasonable confidence, that risks of damage to the interests of a client will be prevented, the firm must clearly disclose the general nature and/or sources of conflicts of interest to the client before undertaking business for the client.3(2) The disclosure must:(a) be made in a durable medium; and(b) include sufficient detail, taking into account the nature
3Other firms should take account of the rules relating to conflicts of interest policies (see SYSC 10.1.10 R and SYSC 10.1.11 R) as if they were guidance (and as if "should" appeared in those rules instead of "must", as explained in SYSC 1 Annex 1.3.3 G4), except when they produce or arrange the production of investment research in accordance with COBS 12.2, or produce or disseminate non-independent research in accordance with COBS 12.3 (see SYSC 10.1.16 R).
3The rules relating to:(1) types of conflict (see SYSC 10.1.4 R);(2) records of conflicts (see SYSC 10.1.6 R); and(3) conflicts of interest policies (see SYSC 10.1.10 R and SYSC 10.1.11 R);also apply to a firm which is not a common platform firm when it produces, or arranges for the production of, investment research that is intended or likely to be subsequently disseminated to clients of the firm or to the public in accordance with COBS 12.2, and when it produces or disseminates
5For a management company, references to client in SYSC 10.1.4 R and in the other rules in this section should be construed as referring to any UCITS scheme or EEA UCITS scheme managed by that firm or which it intends to manage, and with or for the benefit of which the relevant activity is to be carried on.
If a registered society fails to file an R by the date it is required to be filed:(1) the R used to determine the amount of the periodic fee payable by the registered society will be that shown in the R last filed with the FCA or its predecessor; and(2) the registered society must pay an administrative fee equal to the lower of the periodic fee payable by the registered society under Annex 1R for that year, and £250.
A registered society need not pay a periodic fee on the date which it is due under the relevant provision in these rules, if:(1) that date falls during a period during which circumstances of the sort set out in R(Emergencies) exist, and that registered society has reasonable grounds to believe that those circumstances impair its ability to pay the fee, in which case it must pay on or before the fifth business day after the end of that period; or(2) that date would otherwise
If a registered society does not pay the total amount of a periodic fee or a fee payable under 1.4.2R on the date on which it is due under the relevant provisions of these rules, that registered society must pay an additional amount as follows:(1) if the fee is not paid in full before the due date, an administrative fee of £250; plus(2) if the fee is not paid in full before the end of 15 days after the due date, interest on any unpaid part of the fee at the rate of 5% per annum
This chapter applies to the communication or approval of a financial promotion of qualifying credit as follows:
Application and purpose |
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The fair, clear and not misleading rules |
MCOB 3A.2, except MCOB 3A.2.5 R |
Other general requirements for financial promotions |
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Qualifying credit financial promotions |
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MCD financial promotions (note 1) |
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Systems and controls |
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Note 1: This item does not apply to non-MCDfinancial promotions of qualifying credit. |
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This chapter applies to the communication or approval of a financial promotion of a home purchase plan as follows:
Application and purpose |
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Fair, clear and not misleading rule for approval of home purchase plan financial promotions |
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Home purchase plan financial promotions |
Except for MCOB 3A.2.4R (2) and MCOB 3A.5, this chapter does not apply to a firm in relation to a financial promotion of qualifying credit that is of a kind listed in MCOB 3A.1.9 R, except if the firm approves the financial promotion, then the following apply:(1) MCOB 3A.1 (Application and purpose);(2) MCOB 3A.2.4 R (Fair, clear and not misleading financial promotions);(3) MCOB 3A.4.4 G to MCOB 3A.4.7 G (Approval of qualifying credit promotions; No approval of real time qualifying
The application under MCOB 3A.1.13 R is relevant both when a firmcommunicates a financial promotion itself and when a firmapproves a non-real time financial promotion for communication by others. However, see also MCOB 3A.1.15 R (Exceptions to territorial scope: rules without territorial limitation for approval of financial promotions).
Subject to MCOB 3A.1.16 R, the following parts of this chapter apply without any territorial limitation if a firmapproves a financial promotion of qualifying credit, a home reversion plan or a regulated sale and rent back agreement:(1) MCOB 3A.1 (Application and purpose);(2) rules requiring a financial promotion to be fair, clear and not misleading (see MCOB 3A.2.4 R); and (3) provisions regarding the approval of financial promotions (except those relating to approval of financial
(1) Notwithstanding MCOB 3A.1.13 R and MCOB 3A.1.15 R, where a firm which satisfies the conditions in (2) communicates a financial promotion of qualifying credit, the rules in (3) do not apply.(2) The conditions are that:(a) the firmcommunicates the financial promotion of qualifying credit from an establishment maintained by the firm in an EEA State other than the United Kingdom, and not from an establishment maintained by the firm in the United Kingdom or outside the EEA;(b)
(1) This rule applies to a prospectus relating to:(a) equity shares;(b) warrants or options to subscribe for equity shares, that are issued by the issuer of the equity shares; and(c) other transferable securities that have similar characteristics to transferable securities referred to in paragraphs (a) or (b).(2) Each of the following persons are responsible for the prospectus:(a) the issuer of the transferable securities;(b) if the issuer is a body corporate:(i) each person who
(1) This rule applies to a prospectus relating to transferable securities other than those to which PR 5.5.3 R applies.(2) Each of the following persons are responsible for the prospectus:(a) the issuer of the transferable securities;(b) each person who accepts, and is stated in the prospectus as accepting, responsibility for the prospectus;(c) in relation to an offer, the offeror of the transferable securities, if this is not the issuer;(d) in relation to a request for an admission
A person is not responsible for a prospectus under PR 5.5.3 R (2)(d) or PR 5.5.4 R (2)(c) if:(1) the issuer is responsible for the prospectus in accordance with the rules in this section;(2) the prospectus was drawn up primarily by the issuer, or by one or more persons acting on behalf of the issuer; and(3) the offeror is making the offer in association with the issuer.
(1) A notification claiming exemption under DISP 1.1.12 R from the complaints reporting rules and the rules relating to the funding of the Financial Ombudsman Service must be given to the
FCA
by the Society on behalf of any member eligible for an exemption. (2) The Society must notify the
FCA
if the conditions relating to such an exemption no longer apply to a member who is exempt.
Members will individually comply with this chapter if and only if all complaints by policyholders against members are dealt with under the Lloyd's complaints procedures. Accordingly, certain of the obligations under this chapter, for example the obligation to report on complaints received and the obligation to pay fees under the rules relating to the funding of the Financial Ombudsman Service (FEES 5), must be complied with by the Society on behalf of members. Managing agents
Any rule in the Handbook which has the status letter "E" in the margin or heading:(1) is to be taken also to provide that contravention of the rule does not give rise to any of the consequences provided for by provisions of the Act other than section 138C36 (Evidential provisions); and36(2) incorporates the status letter "E" in the margin or heading as part of the rule.
(1) The rules to which section 138C36 of the Act applies ("evidential provisions") are identified in the Handbook by the status letter "E" in the margin or heading.36(2) Other provisions in the Handbook, although also identified by the status letter "E" in the margin or heading, are actually not rules but provisions in codes and GEN 2.2.3 R does not apply to them. These code provisions are those provisions in 13the Code of Market Conduct (MAR 1) with the status letter "E".36
A general rule (that is a rule made by the appropriate regulator under36 the general rule making powers36) is to be interpreted as:36(1) applying to a firm with respect to the carrying on of all regulated activities, except to the extent that a contrary intention appears; and(2) not applying to a firm with respect to the carrying on of unregulated activities, unless and then only to the extent that a contrary intention appears.
(1) 36This rule applies to Handbook provisions made by both the FCA and the PRA, and to Handbook provisions made by the FCA where the PRA have made commensurate provisions in the PRA Rulebook16. It may affect their application by the FCA to PRA-authorised persons and PRAapproved persons, and may affect their application by the PRA to any authorised person or approved person1615.15(2) Where a Handbook provision (or part of one) goes beyond the FCA's or PRA's powers or regulatory
36Examples of rules being interpreted as cut back by GEN 2.2.23 R include the following:(1) [deleted]1212(2) SYSC 6.1.1 R requires a firm to maintain adequate policies and procedures to ensure compliance with its obligations under the regulatory system; SYSC 6.1.1 R should be interpreted:(a) as applied by the FCA in respect of a PRA-authorised person's compliance with regulatory obligations that are the responsibility of the FCA (for example, in respect of a bank maintaining policies
(1) 4Other firms should take account of the compliance function rule (SYSC 6.1.3 R) as if it were guidance (and as if should appeared in that rule instead of must) as explained in SYSC 1 Annex 1.3.3 G5.(2) Notwithstanding SYSC 6.1.3 R, as it applies under (1), depending on the nature, scale and complexity of its business, it may be appropriate for a firm to have a separate compliance function. Where a firm has a separate compliance function the firm should also take into account
A common platform firm and a management company8 need not comply with SYSC 6.1.4 R (3) or SYSC 6.1.4 R (4) if it is able to demonstrate that in view of the nature, scale and complexity of its business, and the nature and range of financial services and activities,4 the requirements under those rules are not proportionate and that its compliance function continues to be effective.[Note: article 6(3) second paragraph of the MiFID implementing Directive and article 10(3) second paragraph
(1) 9This rule applies to a common platform firm conducting investment services and activities from a branch in another EEA State.(2) References to the regulatory system in SYSC 6.1.1R, SYSC 6.1.2 R and SYSC 6.1.3 R apply in respect of a firm'sbranch as if regulatory system includes a Host State's requirements under MiFID and the MiFID implementing Directive which are applicable to the investment services and activities conducted from the firm'sbranch.[Note: article 13(2) of
The rules on annual financial reports (DTR 4.1) and 3 half-yearly financial reports (DTR 4.2) do not apply to:53333(1) a state;5(2) a regional or local authority of a state5;(3) a public international body of which at least one EEA State is a member;5(4) the European Central Bank;5(5) the European Financial Stability Facility (EFSF) established by the EFSF Framework Agreement and any other mechanism established with the objective of preserving the financial stability of European
The rules on annual financial reports in DTR 4.1 (including DTR 4.1.7R (4)1 and3 half-yearly financial reports (DTR 4.2) do not apply to an issuer that issues exclusively debt securitiesadmitted to trading the denomination per unit of which is at least 100,000 euros2 (or an equivalent amount).[Note: article 8(1)(b) of the TD and article 45(1) of the Audit Directive]11332
The rules on half-yearly financial reports (DTR 4.2) do not apply to a credit institution whose shares are not admitted to trading and which has, in a continuous or repeated manner, only issued debt securities provided that:(1) the total nominal amount of all such debt securities remains below 100,000,000 Euros; and(2) the credit institution has not published a prospectus in accordance with the prospectus directive.[Note: article 8(2) of the TD]
The rules on half-yearly financial reports do not apply to an issuer already existing on 31 December 2003 which exclusively issue debt securities unconditionally and irrevocably guaranteed by the issuer'sHome Member State or by a regional or local authority of that state, on a regulated market.[Note: article 8(3) of the TD]
4An issuer whose registered office is in a non-EEA State5is exempted from the rules on:(1) annual financial reports in DTR 4.1 (other than DTR 4.1.7R (4) which continues to apply); (2) half-yearly financial reports (DTR 4.2); and(3) reports on payments to governments (DTR 4.3A);5if the law of the non-EEA State in question lays down equivalent requirements or the issuer complies with requirements of the law of a non-EEA State that the FCA considers as equivalent.5[Note: article
2(1) The purpose of these rules is to set out the requirements for registered societies and sponsoring bodies to pay periodic and application fees which, together, will provide the funding for the FCA's functions in respect of the registrant-only fee block (Category F). 2(2) This set of rules is in respect of the registration functions relating to registered societies transferred to the FCA by section 50 of the Financial Services Act 2012, other than friendly societies authorised
Most of the detail of the periodic fees which will be payable by registered societies is set out in Annex 1R to these rules, the provisions of which will vary from one financial year to another. Accordingly, a revised Annex 1R will come into force, following consultation, for each financial year. Most of the detail of the application fees which will be payable by registered societies and sponsoring bodies is set out in FEES App 1 Annex 1A, the provisions of which may not change
The application fee payable to register a new society is a tiered fee: the amount payable for registration of a new society is dependent on whether the rules are based on a free draft or on model rules. Further, where model rules are used in the case of the registration of a new society other than a credit union, then the number of amendments made to the model rules will affect the fee. The application fee payable by a sponsoring body for a new set of model rules is a flat f
In these rules:(1) an “R” in the margin or heading indicates that the provision is a rule, which creates binding obligations;(2) a “G” in the margin or heading indicates that the provision is guidance, which is designed to throw light on a particular aspect of these rules, but which is not binding nor an exhaustive description of a person's obligations.
(1) This section contains rules that apply to the person operating the electronic system that facilitates persons becoming lenders and borrowers under P2P agreements, in contrast to CONC 5.2 which applies to the lender.(2) A P2P agreement may also be a credit agreement or a regulated credit agreement in which case applicable provisions of the CCA or CONC will apply to such agreements. The extent to which CCA provisions apply to a lender will depend largely on whether the lender
(1) Before a P2P agreement is made, a firm must undertake an assessment of the creditworthiness of the prospective borrower.(2) A firm carrying out the assessment in (1) must consider: (a) the potential for the commitments under the P2P agreement to adversely impact the prospective borrower's financial situation, taking into account the information of which the firm is aware at the time the P2P agreement is to be made; and (b) the ability of the prospective borrower to make repayments
Where CONC 5.5.3 R applies to a firm, the firm must comply with CONC 5.3.2 R, CONC 5.3.4 R, CONC 5.3.5 R, CONC 5.3.6 R and CONC 5.3.7 R to the same extent as if it were the lender under an agreement to which those rules apply and should take into account the guidance in CONC 5.3 to the same extent, and should also take into account CONC 5.2.3 G and CONC 5.2.4 G treating them as guidance on CONC 5.5.3 R.
Before a P2P agreement is entered into under which a person takes an article in pawn, the firm must:(1) undertake the assessment referred to in CONC 5.2.2R (1) of the prospective borrower; and (2) comply with CONC 5.3.2 R, CONC 5.3.4 R, CONC 5.3.5 R, CONC 5.3.6 R and CONC 5.3.7 R to the same extent as if it were the lender under an agreement to which those rules apply, and should also take into account the guidance in CONC 5.2.3 G and CONC 5.2.4 G and CONC 5.3 to the same extent.
(1) 1This rule applies if, in relation to a P2P agreement: (a) the prospective borrower is an individual;(b) an individual other than the borrower (in this rule referred to as “the guarantor”) is to provide a guarantee or an indemnity (or both); and(c) the firm is required to undertake an assessment of the prospective borrower under CONC 5.5.3R.(2) Before the P2P agreement is made, the firm must undertake an assessment of the potential for the guarantor’s commitments in respect
(1) 1The assessment of the guarantor does not need to be identical to the assessment undertaken in respect of the borrower, but should be sufficient in depth and scope having regard to the potential obligations which might fall on the guarantor.(2) The provision of the guarantee or indemnity (or both), and the assessment of the guarantor under CONC 5.5.7R, does not remove or reduce the obligation on the firm to carry out an assessment of the borrower under CONC 5.5.3R. Firms are
The following is a non-exhaustive list of examples of conduct that would be in breach of rule 1.(1) Misleading (or attempting to mislead) by act or omission:(a) a client; or(b) the firm for whom the person works (or its auditors); or(c) the FCA or;(d) the PRA.(2) Falsifying documents.(3) Misleading a client about:(a) the risks of an investment;(b) the charges or surrender penalties of products;(c) the likely performance of products by providing inappropriate projections of future
The following is a non-exhaustive list of examples of conduct by any conduct rules staff that would be in breach of rule 2.(1) Failing to inform:(a) a customer; or(b) their firm (or its auditors);of material information in circumstances where the member of conduct rules staff was aware, or ought to have been aware, of such information, and of the fact that they should provide it, including the following:(i) failing to explain the risks of an investment to a customer;(ii) failing
The following is a non-exhaustive list of examples of conduct by a manager that would be in breach of rule 2.(1) Failing to take reasonable steps to ensure that the business of the firm for which the manager has responsibility:(a) is controlled effectively;(b) complies with the relevant requirements and standards of the regulatory system applicable to that area of the business; and(c) is conducted in such a way to ensure that any delegation of responsibilities is to an appropriate
For the purpose of rule 3 in COCON 2.1.3R, regulators other than the FCA and the PRA are those which have recognised jurisdiction in relation to activities to which COCON applies and have a power to call for information from the firm or from individuals performing certain functions in connection with those regulated activities. This may include an exchange or an overseas regulator.
The following is a non-exhaustive list of examples of conduct that would be in breach of rule 3.(1) Failing to report promptly in accordance with their firm's internal procedures (or, if none exist, direct to the regulator concerned), information in response to questions from the FCA, the PRA, or both the PRA and the FCA.(2) Failing without good reason to: (a) inform a regulator of information of which the approved person was aware in response to questions from that regulator;
Rule 4 in COCON 2.1.4R applies to all conduct rules staff, regardless of whether that person has direct contact or dealings with customers of the firm. Persons subject to the rules in COCON should consider how their actions (or their failure to act) can affect the interests of customers or result in customers being treated unfairly.
The following is a non-exhaustive list of examples of conduct that would be in breach of rule 4.(1) Failing to inform a customer of material information in circumstances where they were aware, or ought to have been aware, of such information and of the fact that they should provide it, including the following:(a) failing to explain the risks of an investment to a customer;(b) failing to disclose to a customer details of the charges or surrender penalties of investment products;
A general consideration about whether or not a person's conduct complies with the relevant requirements and standards of the market, is whether they, or the firm, complies with the Code of Market Conduct (MAR 1) or relevant market codes and exchange rules. Compliance with the Code of Market Conduct (MAR 1) or relevant market codes and exchange rules will tend to show compliance with rule 5 in COCON 2.1.5R.
UK RIEs1which, under their rules, have market contracts are required to have default rules enabling them (among other things) to take action in relation to a member who appears to be unable to meet his obligations in respect of one or more unsettled market contracts. The detailed recognition requirements relating to the default rules are set out in REC 2.17. 1
The default rules are designed to ensure that rights and liabilities between the defaulter and any counterparty to an unsettled market contract are discharged, and for there to be paid between the defaulter and each counterparty one net sum. The Companies Act 1989 contains provisions which protect action taken under default rules from the normal operation of insolvency law which might otherwise leave this action open to challenge by a relevant office-holder.
The Companies Act 1989 also gives the FCA1 powers to supervise the taking of action under default rules. Under section 166 of the Companies Act 1989 (Powers of the appropriate regulator1 to give directions) (see REC 4.5.4 G), the FCA1 may direct a UK RIE1to take, or not to take, action under its default rules. Before exercising these powers the FCA1 must consult the UK RIE.1 The FCA1 may also exercise these powers if a relevant office-holder applies to it under section 167 of
The Companies Act 1989: section 166
The FCA1 may issue a "positive" direction (to take action) under section 166(2)(a) of the Companies Act 1989: 1 |
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Where in any case a [UK RIE] has not taken action under its default rules- if it appears to [the FCA] that it could take action, [the FCA may direct it to do so,1 1 |
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but under section 166(3)(a) of the Companies Act 1989: |
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Before giving such a direction the [FCA] shall consult the [UK RIE] in question; and [the FCA] shall not give a direction unless [the FCA] is satisfied, in the light of that consultation that failure to take action would involve undue risk to investors or other participants in the market, or that the direction is necessary having regard to the public interest in the financial stability of the United Kingdom, or that the direction is necessary to facilitate a proposed or possible use of a power under Part 1 of the Banking Act 2009 or in connection with a particular exercise of a power under that Part.1 1 |
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The FCA1 may issue a "negative" direction (not to take action) under section 166(2)(b) of the Companies Act 1989: 1 |
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Where in any case a [UK RIE] has not taken action under its default rules - if it appears to the [FCA] that it is proposing to take or may take action, [the FCA] may direct it not to do so.1 1 |
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but under section 166(3)(b) of the Companies Act 1989: |
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Before giving such a direction the [FCA] shall consult the [UK RIE] in question; and the [FCA] shall not give a direction unless [the FCA] is satisfied, in the light of that consultation that the taking of action would be premature or otherwise undesirable in the interests of investors or other participants in the market, or that the direction is necessary having regard to the public interest in the financial stability of the United Kingdom, or that the direction is necessary to facilitate a proposed or possible use of a power under Part 1 of the Banking Act 2009 or in connection with a particular exercise of a power under that Part.1 1 |
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Under section 166(7) of the Companies Act 1989, where a UK RIE has taken action either of its own accord or in response to a direction, the FCA may direct it to do or not to do specific things subject to these being within the powers of the UK RIE under its default rules. However,11(1) 1where the UK RIE is acting in accordance with a direction given by the FCA to take action under section 166(2)(a) of the Act on the basis that failure to take action would involve undue risk to
Where, in relation to a member (or designated non-member) of a UK RIE :1(1) a bankruptcy order; or(2) an award of sequestration of his estate; or(3) an order appointing an interim receiver of his property; or(4) an administration or winding-up order; or(5) a resolution for a voluntary winding-up; or(6) an order appointing a provisional liquidator; has been made or passed and the UK RIE1 has not taken action under its default rules as a result of this event or of the matters giving
The procedure is that the FCA1 must notify the UK recognised body of the application and, unless within three business days after receipt of that notice, the UK recognised body: 1(1) takes action under its default rules; or(2) notifies the FCA1 that it proposes to take action forthwith; or1(3) is directed to take action by the FCA1 under section 166(2)(a) of the Companies Act 1989; 1the provisions of sections 158 to 165 of the Companies Act 1989 do not apply in relation to market
An actuary appointed under firms PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act, or for the purposes of PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, 6,6 must take reasonable steps to satisfy himself that he is free from bias, or from any conflict of interest from which bias may reasonably be inferred. He must take appropriate action where this is not the case.225
(1) Actuaries appointed under PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act, or for the purposes of PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, 6,6 are subject to regulations5 made by the Treasury under sections 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act (Information given by auditor or actuary to a regulator7). Section 343 and the regulations also apply to an actuary of an authorised person in his capacity as an actuary of a person with close links with the authorised person.47(2)
An actuary2 who has ceased to be appointed under PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act, or for the purposes of PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, 66 or who has been formally notified that he will cease to be so 2appointed, must notify the appropriate regulator5 without delay:222525(1) of any matter connected with the cessation which he thinks ought to be drawn to the appropriate regulator's attention; or(2) that there is no such matter.
Where an ROIE1 has notice that any licence, permission or authorisation which it requires to conduct any regulated activity in its home territory has been or is about to be:1(1) revoked; or(2) modified in any way which would materially restrict the ROIE1 in performing any regulated activity in its home territory or in the United Kingdom;1it must immediately notify the FCA1 of that fact and must give the FCA1 the information specified for the purposes of this rule in REC 6.7.9
In accordance with rule SC 2 in COCON 2.2.1R5, it is the responsibility of each individual member of the governing body5 who is a senior conduct rules staff member5to understand, and ensure that the credit union complies with, the requirements of all the relevant Acts, secondary legislation and rules.
SYSC 9.1.1 R requires that a credit union takes reasonable care to make and retain adequate records of all matters governed by the Act or the CCA, 4 secondary legislation under the Act or the CCA, 4 or rules (including accounting records). These records should be capable of being reproduced in the English language and on paper.
The purposes of an internal audit are:(1) to ensure that the policies and procedures of the credit union are followed;(2) to provide the governing body5 with a continuous appraisal of the overall effectiveness of the control systems, including proposed changes;(3) to recommend improvements where desirable or necessary;(4) to determine whether the internal controls established by the governing body5 are being maintained properly and operated as laid down in the policy, and comply
The internal audit work programme should include items such as:(1) verification of cash (counting and reconciliation) without prior notification;(2) bank reconciliation (checking records against bank statements);(3) verification of passbooks or account statements;(4) checking for compliance with policies and procedures;(5) checking for compliance with relevant Acts, secondary legislation and rules;(6) checking minutes and reports of the governing body5 and other sub-committees
1Subject to SYSC 12.1.2 R to SYSC 12.1.4 R, this section applies to each of the following which is a member of a group:(1) a firm that falls into any one or more of the following categories:(a) a regulated entity that is:15(i) an investment firm, except a designated investment firm unless (ii) applies; or 15(ii) a credit institution or designated investment firm that is a subsidiary undertaking of a parent institution in a Member State that is an IFPRU investment firm;15(b)
Except as set out in SYSC 12.1.4 R, this section applies with respect to different types of group as follows:(1) SYSC 12.1.8 R and SYSC 12.1.10 R apply with respect to all groups, including UK-regulated EEAfinancial conglomerates,19 other financial conglomerates and groups dealt with in SYSC 12.1.13 R to 12SYSC 12.1.15 R12;19(2) the additional requirements set out in SYSC 12.1.11 R and SYSC 12.1.12 R only apply with respect to UK-regulated EEAfinancial conglomerates;19 and19(3)
(1) This rule applies in respect of the following rules:(a) SYSC 12.1.8R (2);(b) SYSC 12.1.10R (1), so far as it relates to SYSC 12.1.8R (2);(c) SYSC 12.1.10R (2); and(d) SYSC 12.1.11 R to SYSC 12.1.15 R.(2) The rules referred to in (1):(a) only apply with respect to a financial conglomerate if it is a UK-regulated EEA financial conglomerate;1919(b) (so far as they apply with respect to a group that is not a financial conglomerate) do not apply with respect to a group for
If this rule applies under SYSC 12.1.14 R to a firm, the firm must:(1) comply with SYSC 12.1.8R (2) in relation to any UK consolidation group or non-EEAsub-group of which it is a member, as well as in relation to its group; and(2) ensure that the risk management processes and internal control mechanisms at the level of any consolidation group or non-EEAsub-group of which it is a member comply with the obligations set out in the following provisions on a consolidated (or sub-consolidated)
In some cases the management of the systems and controls used to address the risks described in SYSC 12.1.8R (1) may be organised on a group-wide basis. If the firm is not carrying out those functions itself, it should delegate them to the group members that are carrying them out. However, this does not relieve the firm of responsibility for complying with its obligations under SYSC 12.1.8R (1). A firm cannot absolve itself of such a responsibility by claiming that any breach
SYSC 12.1.8R (1) deals with the systems and controls that a firm should have in respect of the exposure it has to the rest of the group. On the other hand, the purpose of SYSC 12.1.8R (2) and the rules in this section that amplify it is to require groups to have adequate systems and controls. However a group is not a single legal entity on which obligations can be imposed. Therefore the obligations have to be placed on individual firms. The purpose of imposing the obligations
SYSC 4.1.1 R requires
a firm to have effective processes to
identify, manage, monitor and report risks and internal control mechanisms.
Except in relation to those functions described in SYSC 8.1.5 R, where a firm relies on a third party for the performance
of operational functions which are not critical or important for the performance
of relevant services and activities (see SYSC 8.1.1 R (1)) on a continuous
and satisfactory basis, it should take into account, in a manner that
(1) 1The general application rule in ICOBS 1.1.1 R applies to this section subject to the modifications in (2).(2) This section applies to:(a) any firm solely with respect to the activities of:(i) carrying out contracts of insurance; or(ii) managing the underwriting capacity of a Lloyd's syndicate as a managing agent at Lloyd's;in relation to general insurance contracts and, in either case, including business accepted under reinsurance to close;(b) all incoming EEA firms or incoming
2A firm with potential liability under an excess policy and which satisfies the requirements in ICOBS 8 Annex 1 1.1B R must notify the FCA before the date upon which it first seeks to rely upon that rule and ensure that the requirements of ICOBS 8.4.6R (2) are satisfied in respect of this notification.
The conditions referred to in ICOBS 8.4.4R (2)(d) and ICOBS 8.4.7R (1)(a)(ii) are that the tracing office is one which:(1) maintains a database which:(a) accurately and reliably stores information submitted to it by firms for the purposes of complying with these rules;(b) has systems which can adequately keep it up to date in the light of new information provided by firms;(c) has an effective search function which allows a person inputting data included on the database relating
(1) ICOBS 8.4.4R (2)(b) and ICOBS 8.4.9R (1) require a firm, or a tracing office used by a firm, to have an effective search function in relation to the employers’ liability register database. In the FCA's view an effective search function is one which finds all matches in the register to any specified whole word.(2) For the purposes of ICOBS 8.4.9R (5) the term ‘without delay’ should have the same meaning as in ICOBS 8.4.5G (2). (3) In order to assist firms with their obligations
(1) A firm must notify the FCA:(a) of any information provided to the FCA under ICOBS 8.4.6 R or ICOBS 8.4.6A R2 which ceases to be true or accurate; and(b) of the new position, in accordance with the notification requirements in ICOBS 8.4.6 R;within one month of the change.(2) A firm producing an employers’ liability register must:(a) update the register with any new or more accurate information falling within ICOBS 8 Annex 1:(i) by virtue of the entry into or renewal of, or
(1) 3When a firm receives a request under ICOBS 8.4.14 R, from a qualifying tracing office, it must provide a response, in writing, to the requestor within one month of receiving the request.(2) This rule does not apply when the firm has conducted a search but no historical policies have been found.(3) When a firm receives a request under ICOBS 8.4.14 R, other than from a qualifying tracing office, it must provide a response, in writing, to the requestor within two months of receiving
(1) 3Where a firm has established that a historical policy does exist, the response should confirm what cover was provided and set out any available information that is relevant to the request received.(2) Where there is evidence to suggest that a historical policy does exist, but the firm is unable to confirm what cover was provided, the response should set out any information relevant to the request and describe the next steps (if any) the firm will take to continue the search.
Where a recognised body is required to give any notice or information under any notification rule, it may do so (unless that rule expressly provides otherwise) orally or in writing, whichever is the more appropriate in the circumstances, but, where it gives notice or information orally, it must confirm that notice or information in writing promptly.
Unless otherwise stated in the notification rule, a written notification required from a recognised body under any notification rule must be:(1) given to, or addressed for the attention of, the recognised body's usual supervisory contact at the FCA;11(2) delivered to the FCA1 by one of the methods in REC 3.2.3 R.1
If a notification rule requires notification within a specified period:(1) the recognised body must give the notification so as to be received by the FCA1 no later than the end of that period; and 1(2) if the end of that period falls on a day which is not a business day, the notification must be given so as to be received by the FCA1 no later than the first business day after the end of that period.1