Related provisions for PERG 7.4.13

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SUP 13A.3.1GRP
Section 31 of the Act (Authorised persons) states that an EEA firm is authorised for the purposes of the Act if it qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 3 to the Act (EEA Passport Rights). Under paragraph 12 of Part II of that Schedule, an EEA firm that is an EEA pure reinsurer, or an EEA firm that has received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation,75qualifies for authorisation without condition. Other than those two types of EEA firm, an7EEA firm qualifies
SUP 13A.3.2GRP
(1) On qualifying for authorisation, subject to SUP 13A.3.1C G (1),6 an EEA firm (except for an EEA firm that has received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation)7 will have permission to carry on each permitted activity (see (3) below) which is a regulated activity.6(2) 6[deleted](3) The permitted activities of an EEA firm (except for an EEA firm that has received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation)7 are those activities identified in the
SUP 13A.3.3GRP
An EEA firm which has qualified for authorisation is referred to in the Handbook as an incoming EEA firm.
SUP 13A.3.4GRP
Under section 31 of the Act, a Treaty firm is authorised for the purposes of the Act if it qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 4 (Treaty Rights), that is:(1) the Treaty firm is seeking to carry on a regulated activity; and(2) the conditions set out in paragraph 3(1) of Schedule 4 to the Act are satisfied.
SUP 13A.3.5GRP
On qualifying for authorisation a Treaty firm will have permission to carry on each permitted activity which is a regulated activity. This permission will be treated on the same terms as those which apply to the Treaty firm'sHome State authorisation. For example, it will reflect any limitations or requirements which are included in the firm'sHome State authorisation.
SUP 13A.3.6GRP
The effect of paragraph 5(1) and 5(2) of Schedule 4 to the Act is that a Treaty firm which qualifies for authorisation under that Schedule must, at least seven days before it carries on any of the regulated activities covered by its permission, give the appropriate UK regulator10 written notice of its intention to do so. Failure to do so is a criminal offence under paragraph 6(1) of that Schedule.10
SUP 13A.3.7DRP
(1) A written notice from a Treaty firm under paragraph 5(2) of Schedule 4 to the Act must be: (a) addressed for the attention of the authorisations team in the PRA or FCA, as appropriate; and101010(b) delivered to the appropriate UK regulator10 by one of the methods in (2).10(2) The written notice may be delivered by:(a) post to either of the following addresses, as appropriate:1010(i) the address for notices to the FCA: The Financial Conduct Authority, 25 The North Colonnade,
SUP 13A.3.8GRP
The written notice required by paragraph 5(2) of Schedule 4 to the Act should be accompanied by confirmation of the Treaty firm's authorisation from the Home State regulator, as referred to in paragraph 3(2) of Schedule 4 to the Act.
SUP 13A.3.9GRP
(1) For further information, a Treaty firm should contact the FCA and/or PRA authorisations teams using the details provided on that regulator's website.1010
SUP 13A.3.10GRP
(1) The guidance in PERG 2 is relevant to Treaty firms to help them determine if they require authorisation under the Act.(2) A Treaty firm which qualifies for authorisation is referred to in the Handbook as an incoming Treaty firm.
PERG 4.11.1GRP
Section 19 of the Act (The general prohibition) provides that the requirement to be authorised under the Act only applies in relation to regulated activities which are carried on 'in the United Kingdom'. In many cases, it will be quite straightforward to identify where an activity is carried on. But when there is a cross-border element, for example because a borrower is outside the United Kingdom or because some other element of the activity happens outside the United Kingdom,
PERG 4.11.9GRP

Simplified summary of the territorial scope of the regulated mortgage activities, to be read in conjunction with the rest of this section.

This table belongs to PERG 4.11.8 G

4Regulated activities other than advice

Location of establishment of service provider:

Location of land:

Individual borrower resident and located:

UK or non-UKperson: Establishment in the UK

in the UK

in another EEA State

outside the EEA

land in the UK

Yes

Yes

Yes

land in another EEA State

Yes

Yes

Yes

UKperson: Establishment in another EEA State or in a country outside the EEA

in the UK

in another EEA State

outside the EEA

land in the UK

Yes

Yes

Yes

land in another EEA State (Note 1)

No

No

No

Non-UKperson: Establishment in another EEA State or in a country outside the EEA

in the UK

in another EEA State

outside the EEA

land in the UK

Yes

No

No

land in another EEA State

No

No

No

Yes = authorisation or exemption required

No = authorisation or exemption not required

Note 1: If the service provider is a UK firm operating from an office in another EEA State in the exercise of rights under a Single Market Directive, the activities will be treated as taking place in the United Kingdom and the firm will need to make sure that its permission covers the regulated mortgage activities it is carrying out. See PERG 4.11.5G (1).

4The regulated activity of advice

Location of establishment of service provider:

Location of land:

Individual borrower resident and located:

UK or non-UKperson: Establishment in the UK

in the UK

in another EEA State

outside the EEA

land in the UK

Yes

Yes

Yes

land in another EEA State

Yes

Yes

Yes

UKperson: Establishment in another EEA State or in a country outside the EEA

in the UK

in another EEA State

outside the EEA

land in the UK

Yes

No

No

land in another EEA State (Note 1)

Yes

No

No

Non-UKperson: Establishment in another EEA State or in a country outside the EEA

in the UK

in another EEA State

outside the EEA

land in the UK

Yes

No

No

land in another EEA State

Yes

No

No

Yes = authorisation or exemption required

No = authorisation or exemption not required

Note 1: If the service provider is a UK firm operating from an office in another EEA State in the exercise of rights under a Single Market Directive, the activities will be treated as taking place in the United Kingdom and the firm will need to make sure that its permission covers the regulated mortgage activities it is carrying out. See PERG 4.11.5G (1).

PERG 4.11.17GRP
In the FCA's view, in circumstances other than those excluded by article 72(5D) of the Regulated Activities Order, the need for an overseas lender to be authorised or to have an exemption will depend on the location of the land.4 This is because of:4(1) the territorial limitation in the definition of regulated mortgage contract so that regulation applies only if the land is in the EEA;44(2) the general principle and practice that contracts relating to land are usually governed
PERG 4.11.19GRP
In the FCA's view, in circumstances other than those excluded by article 72(5E) of the Regulated Activities Order, the need for an overseas administrator to be authorised or to have an exemption will depend on the location of the land.4 This is because:4(1) the territorial limitation in the definition of regulated mortgage contract means that regulation applies only if the land is in the EEA;44(2) when administrators notify borrowers resident in the United Kingdom or the other
SUP 16.6.2GRP

Applicable provisions of this section (see SUP 16.6.1 G)

Category of firm

Applicable provisions

Bank

4

SUP 16.6.4 R - SUP 16.6.5 R

Trustee of an AUT

Depositary of an ICVC

Depositary of an ACS5

SUP 16.6.6 R - SUP 16.6.9 G

7

SUP 16.6.6RRP
A firm within a category listed in the left-hand column of SUP 16.6.7 R must submit compliance reports in accordance with SUP 16.6.7 R.
SUP 16.6.7RRP

Compliance reports from trustees of AUTs, and7depositaries of ICVCs and ACSs7(see SUP 16.6.6R)6

Report

Frequency

Due date

Report from a trustee of an AUT on manager's failures as set out in SUP 16.6.8 R (1)

Quarterly

1 month after quarter end (Note)6

6Report from adepositaryof anACSon failures by theauthorised contractual scheme manageras set out in SUP 16.6.8 R (2A)

Quarterly

1 month after quarter end (Note)

Report from a depositary of an ICVC on failures by the authorised corporate director as set out inSUP 16.6.8 R (2)

Quarterly

1 month after quarter end (Note)

7

7

Note = The quarter ends are 31 March, 30 June, 30 September, 31 December.1

SUP 16.6.8RRP
(1) The report from a trustee of an AUT to the FCA13 must state, in relation to the manager of each AUT for which it is a trustee, the number of times during the quarter in which facts came to the firm's knowledge from which it appeared, or might have appeared, that the manager had failed (materially or otherwise) to: 13(a) give correct instructions to the trustee to create or cancel units in the AUT when the manager should have done so, and the error: (i) resulted in the creation
GEN 4.5.3RRP
A firm must not indicate or imply that it is authorised by the FCA4 in respect of business for which it is not so authorised.4
GEN 4.5.3ARRP
4A firm must not indicate or imply that it is authorised by the PRA in respect of business for which it is not so authorised.
GEN 4.5.6GRP
(1) Neither an incoming EEA firm nor an incoming Treaty firm is authorised by the FCA or PRA4 when acting as such.4(2) It is likely to be misleading for a firm that is not authorised by the FCA or PRA4 to state or imply that it is so authorised. It is also likely to be misleading for a firm to state or imply that a client will have recourse to the Financial Ombudsman Service or the FSCS where this is not the case.4(3) [deleted]44
GEN 4.5.6AGRP
4As well as potentially breaching the requirements in this section, misleading statements by a firm may involve a breach of Principle 7 (Communications with clients) or section Part 7 (Offences relating to financial services) of the Financial Services Act 2012, as well as giving rise to private law actions for misrepresentation.
FEES 3.2.3RRP
(1) Unless (2), (3)10 or (4)23 applies, the sum payable under FEES 3.2.1 R must be paid by bankers draft, cheque or other payable order.23(2) 15The FCA does not specify a method of payment for a person seeking to:(a) become a recognised body or a designated professional body; or15(b) be added to the list of designated investment exchanges or accredited bodies.15(3) The sum payable under FEES 3.2.1 R by a firm applying for a variation of its Part 4A permission which is not an application
FEES 3.2.7RRP

Table of application, notification, vetting and other fees payable to the FCA32

31

31Part 1: Application, notification and vetting fees

31(1) Fee payer

(2) Fee payable (£)37

Due date

(a) Any applicant for Part 4A permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission) whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (ga) of this table26

(1) Unless (2) or (3) 78applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 which apply to that application.

When both (A) and (B) apply, 50% of the tariff payable under (1):34

(2) 50% of the tariff payable under (1) is payable when either (a) or (b) apply:

(a) the application is one referred to in paragraph p; or

(b) the application is a limited permission case under .

(A) the application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 6; and34

(B) the application is:34

(i) a straightforward case under paragraph 2(d) or 3(g) of FEES 3 Annex 1;

(ii) a moderately complex case under paragraph 2(e) or 3(h) of FEES 3 Annex 1; or

(iii) a limited permission case under paragraph 3(i) of FEES 3 Annex 1.

(3) If the applicant applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order at the same time as applying for a Part 4A permission, the fee payable is the higher of: 78

(i) the fee otherwise payable in (1) or (2); and 78

(ii) the fee payable in FEES 3 Annex 10AR. 78

134343434

On or before the application is made

(aa) A person who makes an application under section 24A of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 31 (Applications for a standard licence where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant application”)30

As (a) above less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant application.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

(b) Any Treaty firm that wishes to exercise a Treaty right to qualify for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act (Treaty rights) in respect of regulated activities for which it does not have an EEA right, except for a firm providing cross border services only4

(1) Where no certificate has been issued under paragraph 3(4) of Schedule 4 to the Act the fee payable is, in respect of a particular exercise, set out in FEES 3 Annex 1, part 4

(2) Where a certificate in (i) has been issued no fee is payable

On or before the notice of exercise is given

(c) Any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order

2,000

On or before the application is made

(d) Applicants for an authorisation order for, or recognition under section 272 of the Act27 of, a collective investment scheme

FEES 3 Annex 2R, part 227

27

On or before the application is made

(da) Applicants for the authorisation of an AIF as a UK ELTIF36

FEES 3 Annex 2R, part 2A36

On or before the date the application is made36

(e) The management company27 of a scheme making a notification under section 264 of the Act

2727

FEES 3 Annex 2R, part 327

27

On or before the date the application is made28

28(ea)

(i) An AIFM (other than a UK AIFM or an EEA AIFM with a branch in the UK) notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 57 of the AIFMD UK regulation

(ii) An AIFM notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 58 or 59 of the AIFMD UK regulation

FEES 3 Annex 2 R, part 4

On or before the date the notification is made

28(eb) An applicant for registration on the register of small registered UK AIFM which the FCA is required to maintain under regulation 10 of the AIFMD UK regulation

£750

On or before the date the application is made

(f) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body.

10,000

30 days after the order is granted

(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body:17

(i) under section 287 of the Act; or17

(ii) under regulation 2(1) of the RAP regulations17

76

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1

On or before the date the application is made26

26(ga) Any applicant for:

(i) a Part 4A permission to carry out the regulated activity of administering a specified benchmark; or35administering a specified benchmark for one or more specified benchmarks or;35

(ii) varying its Part 4A permission to carry out the regulated activity of administering a specified benchmark for one or more specified benchmarks35

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(h) Any applicant for recognition as an ROIE76 under section 287 or section 292 of the Act

7676

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(i) [deleted]35

35
35 35

(j) [deleted]38

38

38

(k) [deleted]35

35
35 35

(l) [deleted]38

38

72

38

(m) [deleted]38

38

72

38

(n) Applicants to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges

50,000

On or before the date the application is made

2(o) In relation to a BIPRU firm, either:29

(i) a firm applying to the FCA29 for permission to use one of the advanced prudential calculation approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6 R (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches or (in the case of any application being made for such permission to the FCA29 as EEA consolidated supervisor under the (transposing parts of the BCD and CAD, as applicable under article 95(2) of the EUCRR29)) any firm making such an application ;5 or

(ii) in the case of an application to 5a Home State regulator other than the FCA295for the use of the Internal Ratings Based approach and the Home State regulator requesting the FCA's29 assistance in accordance with the Capital Requirements Regulations 2006 (transposing parts of the BCD and CAD, as applicable under article 95(2) of the EUCRR29), any firm to which the FCA29 would have to apply any decision to permit the use of that approach.5

1122957629576295762976297629

(1) Unless5 (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6.5

(2) (a) Unless5 (b) applies a1firm submitting a second application for the permission or5guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6, but only in respect of that second application

(b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission5 based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.1

(c) No fee is payable where the Home State regulator has requested the assistance described in paragraph (o)(ii) of column 1 except in the cases specified in 5FEES 3 Annex 6.2

52512555765765

Where the firm has made an application directly to the FCA29, on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the FCA29 notifies the firm that its EEA parent's Home State regulator has requested assistance.229

27629762976

29(oa) Either:

(i) a firm applying to the 37FCA

for permission to use one of the internal approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6A (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches or (in the case of any application being made for such permission to the 37FCA

as consolidating supervisor under the EU CRR) any firm making such an application; or

(ii) in the case of an application to the consolidating supervisor other than the 37FCA

for the use of the IRB approach and the consolidating supervisor requesting the 37FCA's

assistance in accordance with the EU CRR, any firm to which the 37FCA would have to apply any decision to permit the use of that approach.

3737373737

(1) Unless (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6A.

(2) (a) Unless (b) applies a firm submitting a second application for the permission or guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6A, but only in respect of that second application.

(b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.

(c) No fee is payable where the consolidating supervisor has requested the assistance described in paragraph (oa)(ii) of column 1.

37

Where the firm has made an application directly to the 37FCA , on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the 37FCA notifies the firm that its EEA parent's consolidating supervisor has requested assistance.

3737

(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part 4A permission whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (ga) of this table26

(1) Unless (2), (2A), (3), (3A), (3B) or 3(C) 78 applies, if the proposed new1 business of the firm would1 fall within one or more activity groups specified in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 1AR not applicable before the application1, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37 which apply to that application.

(2) Subject to (2A) below, if the firm's application includes an application for a Part 4A permission to carry on a new credit-related regulated activity, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37

that would be payable under (1) above or, if higher, 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37

that would be payable in relation to the new credit-related regulated activity30.37

(2A) If an applicant which already has a Part 4A permission to carry on a credit-related regulated activity exclusively applies for a Part 4A permission to carry on a new credit-related regulated activity, that is specified in Part 3 of FEES 3 Annex 1R37

in the straightforward category (or if it exclusively applies for a number of such permissions), the fee is £25030.37

(3) If the firm is in the A.1 fee-block at the date of the application and the variation involves adding any of the regulated activities of meeting of repayment claims or managing dormant account funds (including the investment of such funds), the fee is 50% of the fee in FEES 3 Annex 1 R that applies to that application11

(3A) If the applicant had a limited permission prior to the application to vary its Part 4A permission, 100% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37

which apply to that application30.37

(3B) If the applicant has a limited permission and its application exclusively relates to another limited permission, the fee is 030

(3C) If the applicant applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order at the same time as it applies for a variation of its Part 4A permission, the fee is the highest of the fees set out in FEES 3 Annex 10AR and the amount otherwise payable in (1), (2), (2A), (3), (3A) or (3B), or (4).78

(4) 11 In all other cases, other than applications by credit unions, the fee payable is 250 for firms which are not, or are not seeking to become, a PRA-authorised person, and 125 for firms which are, or are seeking to become, a PRA-authorised person,76 unless the variation involves only the reduction (and no other increases) in the scope of a Part 4A permission in which case no fee is payable.1

30307878176763776377878371373030233737371137

On or before the date the application is made

30(pa) A person who makes an application under section 30(1) of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 33 (Variations at request of licensee where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant variation application”)

As (a) or 31(p) above, less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant variation application.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

2(q) [deleted]38

77137713777722227

38

38

333

2(r) Providers of reporting or trade matching systems applying for recognition under MiFID as an Approved Reporting Mechanism.

100,0006

6

Having received its application, within 30 days after the FCA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.6

56

5(s) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme, a transferor.

Note - for the purpose of this paragraph an insurance business transfer scheme consists of a single transferor and a single transferee. Where however such a scheme is part of a single larger scheme, that larger scheme is treated as a single insurance business transfer scheme. If an insurance business transfer scheme includes more than one transferor in accordance with this paragraph, the transferors are liable to pay the fee under column (2) jointly.

Either (1) or (2) as set out below:

(1) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme involving long term insurance business, 9,25037; or

(2) in the case of an insurance business transfer scheme not involving long term insurance business, 5,000.

7575377575377537

On or before any application is made for the appointment of a person as an independent expert.

37

6(t) A firm, a third party acting on a firm's behalf, an operator of a regulated market or an operator of an MTF applying to the FCA to report transaction reports directly to the FCA.

20

100,000

Having received its application, within 30 days after the FCA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.

(u) [deleted]34

34
34 34

(v) [deleted]38

2222

38

38

[deleted]35

35
35 35

(x)[deleted]38

38

388

8(y) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised payment institution under regulation 5 of the Payment Services Regulations

The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8 which apply to that application.

Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in

FEES 3 Annex 8R

On or before the date the application is made.

(z) An application by a small payment institution for authorisation as an authorised payment institution because regulation 15 of the Payment Services Regulations applies

The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application.

On or before the date the application is made.

(za) An applicant for registration as a small payment institution under regulation 12 of the Payment Services Regulations

FEES 3 Annex 8R, paragraph (1). Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 8R.

On or before the date the application is made.

(zb) An authorised payment institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Payment Services Regulations.

(1) If the payment services carried on by the authorised payment institution prior to the variation only fall within paragraph (f) or (g) or (h) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and any of the payment services in paragraphs (a) to (e) of that Schedule will apply after variation, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application.

(2) Where the

authorised payment institution:(i) already has authorisation to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other services in (a) to (g); or

(ii) has authorisation to provide payment services in either paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to extend its authorisation to include the other paragraph ((f) or (g));

the fee payable is 250 irrespective of the number of agents it has.

(3) In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable.

On or before the date the application is made.

(zc) A small payment institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Payment Services Regulations

(1) If the payment services carried on by the small payment institution prior to the variation only fall within paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and any of the payment services in paragraphs (a) to (e) of that Schedule will apply after variation, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8Rwhich apply to that application.

(2) Where the small payment institution:

(i) is already registered to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other of the services in (a) to (g); or

(ii) is registered to provide payment services in either paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to extend its registration to include the other paragraph ((f) or (g));the fee payable is 250 irrespective of the number of agents it has.

(2)

(3) In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable.

On or before the date the application is made.

A financial institution notifying the FSAFCA in accordance with regulation 121(2)(a) of the Payment Services Regulations.

50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3Annex 8R, paragraphs (2) to (5) which apply to that application.

On or before the date the application is made.

(ze) Any person to which the Special Project Fee for restructuring applies under FEES 3 Annex 9.12

12

Special Project Fee for restructuring in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 9 .

30 days of the date of the invoice.9

(zf) [deleted]76

76
76 91676

16(zg) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution under regulation 5 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zh) An applicant for registration as a small electronic money institution under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zi) An application by a small electronic money institution for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution14because regulation 16 of the Electronic Money Regulations applies.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zj) An authorised electronic money institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zk) A small electronic money institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

15(zl) An applicant for recognition as an accredited body.

2,500

On or before the date the application is made.18

18(zm) An issuer applying for registration of a regulated covered bond.

(1) Unless (2) applies, 45,000.

(2) In the case of a proposed covered bond or programme where the assets in the asset pool will consist primarily of UK residential mortgages, 25,000.

On or before the date the application is made.

18(zn) An issuer who proposes to make a material change to the contractual terms of a regulated covered bond under RCB 3.5.4 D.

6,500

On or before the date the notification under RCB 3.5.4 D is made.21

21(zo) In the case of persons in respect of which the FCA has given notice of its intention to take, or appoint a competent person to take, any steps under CONRED 2.5.12R, either:

(i) a Firm (as defined in CONRED 2.1.1R(1); or

(ii) a person falling within CONRED 2.1.2R(1).

An amount equal to:

(1) a sum determined by the number of hours, or part of an hour, taken by the FCA in relation to work conducted in taking steps under recorded on the FCA's systems, multiplied by the rate in FEES 3 Annex 9 (11)R; or

(2) any amount invoiced to the FCA by a competent person in relation to any work carried out by that competent person in connection with its appointment by the FCA under CONRED 2.5.12R.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

76(zp) A person in respect of which the FCA37 has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to provide it with a report pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act and SUP 5.2.

37

Any amount invoiced to the FCA37 by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the FCA37 pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act.

37

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

76(zq) A person in respect of which the FCA37 has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to collect or update information pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act.

37

Any amount invoiced to the FCA37 by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the FCA 37 pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act.

3737

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.33

33(zr) [deleted]38

38

38

30(zs) Applicant for FCA permission for an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) and/or money paid or property transferred under and agreement to be retained under 3128A(3)(b) of the Act

(1) If the application is for permission for an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) of the Act and for permission for money paid or property transferred under an agreement to be retained under section 28A(3)(b) of the Act, the fee is 31£3,500 per type of agreement specified in the application.30

(2) If the application is for permission for an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) of the Act only, the fee is £3,500 per type of agreement specified in the application.31

(3) If the application is for permission for money paid or property transferred under an agreement to be retained under section 28A(3)(b) of the Act only, the fee is £3,500 per type of agreement specified in the application.31

Where there are a number of agreements of the same type, only one fee is payable in respect of those agreements. A number of agreements are of the same type when those agreements are entered into on the same terms and conditions.

On or before the date the application is made.

(zt) An applicant for registration in the Financial Services Register under article 8(1) of the MCD Order. 78

Unless (1), or (2) applies, the fee as set out in FEES 3 Annex 10A. 78

(1) If the applicant is applying for a Part 4A permission at the same time as it applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, the fee payable in row (a), column (2) paragraph (3) of this Table. 78

(2) If the applicant is applying for a variation of a Part 4A permission at the same time as it applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, the fee payable in row (p), column 2 paragraph (3)(c) of this Table. 78

On or before the application is made.78

39(zv) Any person to which the Designated Credit Reference Agencies Fee applies under FEES 3 Annex 10B.

Designated Credit Reference Agencies Fee in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 10B.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

32Part 2: UKLA38 fees

(1) Fee payer

(2) Fee payable

(3) Due date

(a)

(i) An issuer which has not made public its annual financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.1.3 R.

(ii) An issuer which has not made public its half-yearly financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.2.2 R (2).

FEES 3 Annex 12R38

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

38(b) An applicant for approval as a sponsor.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date the application is made.

38(c) Under the listing rules, an issuer requesting approval of a document arising in relation to a specific event or transaction, which is not a significant transaction or a super transaction.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.

38(d) Under the prospectus rules, Prospectus Rules or the Prospectus Regulation, an issuer or a person requesting approval or review of a document arising in relation to a specific event or transaction, which is not a significant transaction or a super transaction.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.

38(e) An issuer requesting the approval or review of a document in connection with a super transaction.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.

38(f) An issuer requesting the approval or review of a document in connection with a significant transaction.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.

38(g) A person who requests the FCA’s approval of a document that includes a mineral expert’s report and who is a fee payer under one or more of the categories (c), (d), (e), and (f) above must additionally pay a fee under this category.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.

38(h) An applicant for approval as a primary information provider.

FEES 3 Annex 12R

On or before the date the application is made.

[Note:Guidance on how a firm liable to pay a fee under both rows (s) and (ze) of this table for the same transaction should expect to be treated is set out in FEES 3 Annex 11 G.]19

FEES 4.3.4GRP
(1) A firm which becomes authorised or registered 7during the course of a fee year26 will be required to pay a proportion of the periodic fee which reflects the proportion of the year for which it will have a permission or the right to provide particular payment services or the right to issue electronic money107- see FEES 4.2.5 G and FEES 4.2.6 R.26(2) Similarly a firm which extends its permission or its right to provide particular payment services7so that its business then falls
FEES 4.3.6RRP
(1) [deleted]17272712112727111127(1A) [deleted] 1727(1B) [deleted] 1727(1C) 17If a person meets either of the conditions in (1D) it must pay the FCA the fee in (1E).(1D) 17A person meets the conditions referred to in (1C) if:(a) its periodic fee for the previous fee year was at least £50,000 and it is:(i) an FCA-authorised person; or(ii) a designated professional body; or(iii) a recognised investment exchange; or(iv) a regulated covered bondissuer; or(b) it is a PRA-authorised
FEES 4.3.13RRP
(1) If:(a) a firm makes an application to vary its permission (by reducing its scope), or cancel it, in the way set out in SUP 6.3.15 D (3) (Variation of permission) and SUP 6.4.5 D (Cancellation of permission), or applies to vary (by reducing its scope) or cancel its authorisation or registration (regulation 8 and 10(1) of the Payment Services Regulations including as applied by regulation 14 of the Payment Services Regulations) or applies to cancel its authorisation or registration
FEES 4.3.14GRP
Where a firm has applied to cancel its Part 4A permission, or its authorisation or registration under the Payment Services Regulations7or the Electronic Money Regulations, 10 or its registration as a CBTL firm under article 13(c) the MCD Order, 16or the FCA17 has exercised its own-initiative powers to cancel a firm's7Part 4A permission or the FCA17 has exercised its powers under regulation 10 (Cancellation of authorisation), including as applied by regulation 14 (Supplementary
SUP 6.2.1GRP
A firm authorised under Part 4A8 of the Act (Permission to carry on regulated activity) has a single Part 4A permission8 granted by the FCA or the PRA. A firm'sPart 4A permission8 specifies all or some of the following elements (see PERG 2 Annex 2 (Regulated activities and the permission regime) and the information online at the FCA and PRA websites):8888338(1) a description of the activities the firm may carry on, including any limitations;(2) the specified investments involved;
SUP 6.2.2GRP
Under section 20(1) and 20(1A)8 of the Act (Authorised persons acting without permission), a firm is prohibited from carrying on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom (or purporting to do so) otherwise than in accordance with its permission.
SUP 6.2.3AGRP
8If an FCA-authorised person wishes to change its Part 4A permission to:(1) add a regulated activity, other than a PRA-regulated activity; or(2) remove a regulated activity from those to which the permission relates; or(3) vary the description of a regulated activity to which the permission relates; or(4) cancel the permission;it can apply to the FCA under section 55H of the Act (Variation by FCA at request of authorised person).
SUP 6.2.3BGRP
8If an FCA-authorised person wishes to change its Part 4A permission, by adding to the regulated activities to which the permission relates one or more regulated activities, which include a PRA-regulated activity, it can apply to the PRA under section 55I of the Act (Variation by PRA at request of authorised person). The PRA can determine such an application only with the consent of the FCA.
GEN 1.2.1GRP
The purpose of GEN 1.2.2 R is to prevent clients being misled about the extent to which the appropriate regulator9 has approved a firm's affairs.9
GEN 1.2.2ARRP
(1) 4Unless required to do so under the regulatory system, a firm must ensure that neither it nor anyone acting on its behalf claims, in a public statement or to a client, expressly or by implication, that its affairs, or any aspect of them, have the approval or endorsement of the appropriate regulator or another competent authority.(2) Paragraph (1) does not apply to statements that explain, in a way that is fair, clear and not misleading, that:(a) the firm is an authorised person;(b)
GEN 1.2.3GRP
GEN 1.2.2 R (2)(f)1 is confined to written approval because of the need for clarity as to the scope of any approval given by the appropriate regulator9. 9
SUP 14.6.1GRP
Section 34 of the Act states that an incoming EEA firm no longer qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 3 to the Act if it ceases to be an incoming EEA firm as a result of:(1) having its EEA authorisation withdrawn by its Home State regulator; or(2) ceasing to have an EEA right in circumstances in which EEA authorisation is not required; this is relevant to a financial institution that is a subsidiary of a credit institution (of the kind mentioned in Article 345of the CRD5)
SUP 14.6.3GRP
Regulation 8 states that where an incoming EEA firm which qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 3:(1) has ceased, or is to cease, to carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom; and(2) gives notice of that fact to the appropriate UK regulator7;7the notice is treated under regulation 8 as a request for cancellation of the incoming EEA firm's qualification for authorisation under Schedule 3 to the Act and so as a request under section 34(2) of the Act.
SUP 14.6.9GRP
Section 35 of the Act states that an incoming Treaty firm no longer qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act if its Home State authorisation is withdrawn.
SUP 14.6.10GRP
In addition, under section 35(2) an incoming Treaty firm may ask the appropriate UK regulator7 to give a direction cancelling its authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act.7
PERG 5.6.9GRP
The exclusion will be of assistance to introducers who would otherwise be carrying on the regulated activity of making arrangements with a view to transactions in investments (assuming, as mentioned in PERG 5.6.8 G, that they provide information only to policyholders or potential policyholders, and not to the intermediary or insurance undertaking to whom they introduce these policyholders or potential policyholders). In order to assist such introducers determine whether or not
PERG 5.6.13GRP
Market makers in traded endowment policies may be able to rely on this exclusion to avoid the need to be authorised. They must ensure, however, that where they are carrying on the regulated activity of dealing in investments as principal (article 14) they are also able to rely on the exclusions in articles 15 or 16 (see the guidance in PERG 2.8.4 G (Dealing in investments as principal)).
PERG 5.6.18GRP
The effect of PERG 5.6.17G (4) is that some persons who, in making introductions, are making arrangements with a view to transactions in investments under article 25(2) of the Regulated Activities Order, cannot use the introducing exclusion. This is if, in general terms, the arrangements for making introductions relate to contracts of insurance (PERG 5.6.19 G has further guidance on when arrangements for introductions may be regarded as relating to contracts of insurance). However,
PERG 5.6.21GRP

Application of article 33 to arrangements for making introductions. This table belongs to PERG 5.6.20 G.

Type of introduction

Applicability of exclusion

1

Introductions are purely for the purpose of the provision of independent advice – Introducer is completely indifferent to whether or not transactions take place after advice has been given.

Exclusion not relevant as introducer is not arranging under article 25(2).

2

Introduction is one-off or otherwise not part of pre-existing ongoing arrangements that envisage such introduction being made.

Exclusion not relevant as introducer is not arranging under article 25(2).

3

Introducer is not indifferent to whether or not transactions take place after advice has been given, but is indifferent to whether or not the transactions may involve a contract of insurance.

Exclusion will be available provided the introduction was made with a view to the provision of independent advice on investments generally.

4

Introducer is not indifferent to whether or not transactions take place after advice has been given (for example, because he expects to receive a percentage of the commission), and introductions specifically relate to contracts of insurance.

Exclusion is not available.

If introducer is an unauthorised person, he will need authorisation or exemption as an appointed representative.

If introducer is an authorised person (such as an IFA introducing to a general insurance broker), he will need to vary his Part IV permission accordingly. If introducer is an appointed representative, he will need to ensure that his agreement covers making such arrangements.

SUP 14.1.1GRP
1This chapter applies to an incoming EEA firm15 which has established a branch in, or is providing cross border services into, the United Kingdom under one of the Single Market Directives or the auction regulation8 and, therefore, qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 3 to the Act. The chapter does not apply to an EEA firm that is a Solvency II firm or to Gibraltar firms treated as such Solvency II firms. Solvency II firms and such Gibraltar firms should consult the relevant
SUP 14.1.2GRP
SUP 14.6 (Cancelling qualification for authorisation), which sets out how to cancel qualification for authorisation under the Act, also applies to:(1) an incoming Treaty firm that qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act; and(2) a UCITS qualifier that is an authorised person under Schedule 5 to the Act; a UCITS qualifier should, however, refer to COLLG 3.1.11 G6 for full details of applicable rules and guidance.26
SUP 14.1.3GRP
(1) Under the Gibraltar Order4 made under section 409 of the Act, a Gibraltar firm is treated as an EEA firm under Schedule 3 to the Act if it is:(a) [deleted]151313(aa) [deleted]1313(b) authorised in Gibraltar under the9CRD; or;494(c) authorised in Gibraltar under the Insurance Mediation Directive; or4(d) authorised in Gibraltar under MiFID; or1010(e) authorised in Gibraltar under the UCITS Directive; or1210(f) authorised in Gibraltar under AIFMD.12(g) authorised in Gibraltar
SUP 14.1.5GRP
This chapter also explains how an incoming EEA firm, an incoming Treaty firm or a UCITS qualifier may cancel its qualification for authorisation under the Act.
PERG 5.15.1GRP
This flow chart sets out the matters a person will need to consider to see if he will need authorisation for carrying on insurance mediation activities. It is referred to in PERG 5.2.3 G (Questions to be considered to decide if authorisation is required).
PERG 5.15.2GRP
Flow chart: regulated activities related to insurance mediation activities – do you need authorisation?
PERG 5.15.4GRP

Types of activity – are they regulated activities and, if so, why?

Type of activity

Is it a regulated activity?

Rationale

MARKETING AND EFFECTING INTRODUCTIONS

Passive display of information -for example, medical insurance brochures in doctor’s surgery (whether or not remuneration is received for this activity)

No.

Merely displaying information does not constitute making arrangements under article 25(2) (see PERG 5.6.4 G).

Recommending a broker/insurance undertaking and providing customer with contact details (whether by phone, fax, e-mail, face-to-face or any other means of communication)

Yes, but article 72C may be available.

This will constitute making arrangements under article 25(2). But, the exclusion in article 72C will apply if all the intermediary does is supply information to the customer and the conditions of article 72C are otherwise met (see PERG 5.6.5 G to PERG 5.6.9 G). Generally, this will not amount to advice under article 53(1)1 unless there is an implied recommendation of a particular policy (see PERG 5.8.4 G), in which case article 72C would not be available.

Providing an insurance undertaking/broker with contact details of customer

Yes.

This will constitute making arrangements under article 25(2) when undertaken in the context of regular or ongoing arrangements for introducing customers. Article 72C will not apply because the information is supplied to someone other than the policyholder or potential policyholder.

Marketing on behalf of insurance undertaking to intermediaries only (for example, broker consultants)

Yes.

This amounts to work preparatory to the conclusion of contracts of insurance and so constitutes making arrangements under article 25(2). Article 72C is not available because this activity does not involve provision of information to the policyholder or potential policyholder only.

Telemarketing services (that is, companies specialising in marketing an insurance undertaking's products/services to prospective customers)

Yes.

This amounts to introducing and/or other work preparatory to the conclusion of contracts of insurance and so constitutes making arrangements under article 25(2). This could also involve article 25(1) arranging where the telemarketing company actually sells a particular policy and could involve advising on investments. Article 72C will not be available where the provision of information is more than incidental to the telemarketing company’s main business or where the telemarketing company is advising on investments.

PRE-PURCHASE DISCUSSIONS WITH CUSTOMERS AND ADVICE

Discussion with client about need for insurance generally/need to take out a particular type of insurance

Generally, no. Article 72C available if needed.

Not enough, of itself, to constitute making arrangements under article 25(2), but you should consider whether, viewed as a whole, your activities might amount to arranging. If so, article 72C might be of application (see PERG 5.6.5 G to PERG 5.6.9 G).

Advising on the level of cover needed

Generally, no. Article 72C available if needed.

Not enough, of itself, to constitute making arrangements under article 25(2), but you should consider whether, viewed as a whole, your activities might amount to making arrangements under article 25(2) (see PERG 5.8.3 G). If so, article 72C might be of application (see PERG 5.6.5 G to PERG 5.6.9 G).

Pre-purchase questioning in the context of filtered sales (intermediary asks a series of questions and then suggests several policies which suit the answers given)

Yes. Subject to article 72 C exclusion where available.

This will constitute arranging although article 72C may be of application (see PERG 5.6.5 G to PERG 5.6.9 G). If there is no express or implied recommendation of a particular policy, this activity will not amount to advice under article 53(1)1 (see PERG 5.8.15 G to PERG 5.8.19 G).

Explanation of the terms of a particular policy or comparison of the terms of different policies

Possibly. Article 72C available.

This is likely to amount to making arrangements under article 25(2). In certain circumstances, it could involve advising on investments (except P2P agreements)1 (see PERG 5.8.8 G (Advice or information)). Where the explanation is provided to the potential policyholder, and does not involve advising on investments (except P2P agreements)1, article 72C may be of application (see PERG 5.6.5 G to PERG 5.6.9 G), and where information is provided by a professional in the course of a profession, article 67 may apply (see PERG 5.11.9 G to PERG 5.11.12 G).

Advising that a customer take out a particular policy

Yes.

This amounts to advice on the merits of a particular policy under article 53(1)1 (see PERG 5.8.4 G to PERG 5.8.5 G).

Advising that a customer does not take out a particular policy

Yes.

This amounts to advice on the merits of a particular policy under article 53(1)1 (see PERG 5.8.4 G to PERG 5.8.5 G).

Advice by journalists in newspapers, broadcasts etc.

Generally, no because of the article 54 exclusion.

Article 54 provides an exclusion for advice given in newspapers etc (see PERG 5.8.24 G to PERG 5.8.25 G).

Giving advice to a customer in relation to his buying a consumer product, where insurance is a compulsory secondary purchase and/or a benefit that comes with buying the product

Not necessarily but depends on the circumstances.

Where the advice relates specifically to the merits of the consumer product, it is possible that references to the accompanying insurance may be seen to be information and not advice. If, however, the advice relates, in part, to the merits of the insurance element, then it will be regulated activity.

ASSISTING CUSTOMERS WITH COMPLETING/SENDING APPLICATION FORMS

Providing information to customer who fills in application form

Possibly. Subject to article 67 or 72C exclusions where available.

This activity may amount to arranging although the exclusions in article 67 (see PERG 5.11.9 G to PERG 5.11.12 G) and article 72C (see PERG 5.6.5 G to PERG 5.6.9 G) may be of application.

Helping a potential policyholder fill in an application form

Yes.

This activity amounts to arranging. Article 72C will not apply because this activity goes beyond the mere provision of information to a policyholder or potential policyholder (see PERG 5.6.5 G to PERG 5.6.9 G).

Receiving completed proposal forms for checking and forwarding to an insurance undertaking (for example, an administration outsourcing service provider that receives and processes proposal forms)

Yes.

This amounts to arranging. Article 72C does not apply because this activity goes beyond the mere provision of information to a policyholder or potential policyholder (see PERG 5.6.5 G to PERG 5.6.9 G).

Assisting in completion of proposal form and sending to insurance undertaking

Yes.

This activity amounts to arranging. Article 72C does not apply because this activity goes beyond the mere provision of information (see PERG 5.6.5 G to PERG 5.6.9 G).

NEGOTIATING AND CONCLUDING CONTRACTS OF INSURANCE

Negotiating terms of policy on behalf of a customer with the insurance undertaking

Yes.

This activity amounts to arranging (see PERG 5.6.2 G).

Negotiating terms of policy on behalf of insurance undertaking with the customer and signing proposal form on his behalf

Yes.

These activities amount to both arranging and dealing in investments as agent.

Concluding a contract of insurance on insurance company’s behalf, for example, motor dealer who has authority to conclude insurance contract on behalf of insurance undertaking when selling a car

Yes.

A person carrying on this activity will be dealing in investments as agent. He will also be arranging (as the article 28 exclusion only applies in the limited circumstances envisaged under article 28(3)) (see PERG 5.6.12 G).

Agreeing, on behalf of a prospective policyholder, to buy a policy.

Yes.

A person who, with authority, enters into a contract of insurance on behalf of another is dealing in investments as agent under article 21, and will also be arranging.

Providing compulsory insurance as a secondary purchase

Yes. It will amount to dealing in investments as agent or arranging.

The fact that the insurance is secondary to the primary product does not alter the fact that arranging the package involves arranging the insurance.

COLLECTION OF PREMIUMS

Collection of cheque for premium from the customer at the pre-contract stage.

Yes (as part of arranging).

This activity is likely to form part of arranging. But the mere collection/receipt of premiums from the customer is unlikely, without more, to amount to arranging.

Collection of premiums at post-contract stage

No.

The mere collection of premiums from policyholders is unlikely, without more, to amount to assisting in the administration and performance of a contract of insurance.

MID-TERM ADJUSTMENTS AND ASSIGNMENTS

Solicitors or licensed conveyancers discharging client instructions to assign contracts of insurance.

Not where article 67 applies.

As the assignment of rights under a contract of insurance (as opposed to the creation of new contracts of insurance) does not fall within the IMD, article 67 is of potential application (see PERG 5.11.9 G to PERG 5.11.12 G).

Making mid-term adjustments to a policy, for example, property manager notifies changes to the names of the leaseholders registered as “interested parties” in the policy in respect of the property.

Yes.

Assuming the freeholder (as policyholder) is obliged under the terms of the policy to notify the insurance undertaking of changes to the identity of the leaseholders, the property manager is likely to be assisting in the administration and the performance of the contract of insurance.

TRADED ENDOWMENT POLICIES (“TEPs”)

Making introductions for the purposes of selling TEPs

Yes, unless article 72C applies.

Making introductions for these purposes is arranging unless article 72C applies (see PERG 5.6.5 G to PERG 5.6.9 G). The exclusions in article 29 (Arranging deals with or through authorised persons) and 33 (Introducing) no longer apply to arranging contracts of insurance.

Market makers in TEPs

Yes, although the exclusion in article 28 may apply.

Unauthorised market makers can continue to make use of the exclusions in articles 15 (Absence of holding out etc.) and 16 (Dealing in contractually based investments), where appropriate. In order to avoid the need for authorisation in respect of arranging they may be able to rely upon article 28 (see PERG 5.6.12 G).

ASSISTING POLICYHOLDER WITH MAKING A CLAIM

Merely providing information to the insured to help him complete a claim form

No.

Of itself, this is likely to amount to assisting in the administration but not the performance of a contract of insurance. In the FCA's view, the provision of information in these circumstances is more akin to facilitating performance of a contract of insurance rather than assisting in the performance (see PERG 5.7.3 G to PERG 5.7.5 G)

Completion of claim form on behalf of insured

Potentially.

This activity amounts to assisting in the administration of a contract of insurance. Whether this activity amounts to assisting in the administration and performance of a contract of insurance will depend upon whether a person's assistance in filling in a claims form is material to whether performance of the contractual obligation to notify a claim takes place (see PERG 5.7.2 G to PERG 5.7.3 G).

Notification of claim to insurance undertaking and helping negotiate its settlement on the policyholder's behalf

Yes.

This activity amounts to assisting in the administration and performance of a contract of insurance (see PERG 5.7.4 G).

ASSISTING INSURANCE UNDERTAKING WITH CLAIMS BY POLICYHOLDERS

Negotiation of settlement of claims on behalf of an insurance undertaking

No.

Claims management on behalf of an insurance undertaking does not amount to assisting in the administration and performance of a contract of insurance by virtue of the exclusion in article 39B (see PERG 5.7.7 G).

Providing information to an insurance undertaking in connection with its investigation or assessment of a claim

No.

This activity does not amount to assisting in the administration and performance of a contract of insurance.

Loss adjusters and claims management services (for example, by administration outsourcing providers)

Potentially.

These activities may amount to assisting in the administration and performance of a contract of insurance. Article 39B excludes these activities, however, when undertaken on behalf of an insurance undertaking only (see PERG 5.7.7 G).

Providing an expert appraisal of a claim

No.

This activity does not amount to assisting in the administration and performance of a contract of insurance whether carried out on behalf of an insurance undertaking or otherwise.

Jeweller repairs customer’s jewellery pursuant to a policy which permits the jeweller to carry out repairs

No.

This activity does not amount to assisting in the administration and performance of a contract of insurance. It amounts to managing claims on behalf of an insurance undertaking and so falls within the exclusion in article 39B (see PERG 5.7.7 G).

PERG 5.15.6GRP
Flow Chart: Introducers.
PERG 5.15.8GRP
Flow chart: am I carrying on regulated activities in the United Kingdom?
SUP 6.5.2AGRP
1If the FCA concludes that it should grant an FCA-authorised person's application for cancellation of permission and end its authorisation, the FCA will:(1) cancel the firm'sPart 4A permission under section 55H(3) of the Act;(2) withdraw the firm'sauthorised status under section 33(2) of the Act by giving the firm a direction in writing; and(3) update the firm's entry in the Financial Services Register to show it has ceased to be authorised.
PERG 4.14.2GRP
In the FCA's view, the following exclusions are likely, in many cases, to exclude the normal activities of professional firms from amounting to regulated mortgage activities:(1) article 67 of the Regulated Activities Order (Activities carried on in the course of a profession or non-investment business), which applies in relation to the advising and arranging activities (see PERG 4.10.1 G);(2) article 66 of the Regulated Activities Order (Trustees, nominees and personal representatives)
PERG 4.14.3GRP
In addition, a professional firm may, in certain circumstances, be able to use the Part XX exemption to avoid any need for authorisation. PROF 2 (Status of exempt professional firm) contains general guidance on the Part XX exemption. In particular, PROF 2.1.9 G explains that the Treasury have specified certain regulated activities to which the Part XX exemption cannot apply in the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Professions) (Non-Exempt Activities Order 2001 ("the Non-Exempt
PERG 4.14.4GRP
Arranging (bringing about) a regulated mortgage contract and making arrangements with a view to a regulated mortgage contract have not been specified in the Non-Exempt Activities Order. Accordingly, a professional firm may carry on these regulated activities without authorisation, provided the other conditions of the Part XX exemption are complied with.
PERG 4.14.5GRP
Advising on regulated mortgage contracts has been specified in the Non-Exempt Activities Order. However, a professional firm is prevented from using the Part XX exemption to advise on regulated mortgage contracts only if the advice it gives consists of a recommendation. This will be the case if the recommendation is made to an individual to enter into a regulated mortgage contract with a lender who would, in entering into the contract, carry on the regulated activity of entering
PERG 4.2.1GRP
In most cases, any person who carries on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom by way of business must either be an authorised person or an exempt person. Otherwise, the person commits a criminal offence and certain agreements may be unenforceable. PERG 2.2 (Introduction) contains further guidance on these consequences.2
PERG 4.2.2GRP
Certain professional firms are allowed to carry on some regulated activities without authorisation so long as they comply with specified conditions (see PERG 4.14 (Mortgage activities carried on by professional firms)).
PERG 4.2.3GRP
A person who is concerned to know whether his proposed activities may require authorisation will need to consider the following questions (these questions are a summary of the issues to be considered and have been reproduced, in slightly fuller form, in the flowchart in PERG 4.18):(1) will I be carrying on my activities by way of business (see PERG 4.3.3 G (The business test))?(2) if so, will my activities relate to regulated mortgage contracts (see PERG 4.4 (What is a regulated
PERG 4.2.5GRP
An unauthorised person who intends to carry on activities connected with mortgages will also need to comply with section 21 of the Act (Restrictions on financial promotion). This guidance does not cover financial promotions that relate to mortgages. Persons should refer to the general guidance on financial promotion in Appendix 1 to the Authorisation manual, PERG 8 (Financial promotion and related activities)) and, in particular, to PERG 8.17 (Financial promotions concerning agreements
PERG 5.12.1GRP
Section 19 of the Act (The general prohibition) provides that the requirement to be authorised under the Act only applies in relation to regulated activities which are carried on 'in the United Kingdom'. In many cases, it will be quite straightforward to identify where an activity is carried on. But, when there is a cross-border element, for example because a customer is outside the United Kingdom or because some other element of the activity happens outside the United Kingdom,
PERG 5.12.2GRP
Even if a person concludes that he is not carrying on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom, he will need to ensure that he does not contravene other provisions of the Act that apply to unauthorised persons. These include the controls on financial promotion (section 21 (Financial promotion) of the Act) (see PERG 8 (Financial promotion and related activities)), and on giving the impression that a person is authorised (section 24 (False claims to be authorised or exempt)).
PERG 5.12.4GRP

Table Territorial issues relating to overseas insurance intermediaries carrying on insurance mediation activities in or into the United Kingdom

Needs Part 4A permission

Schedule 3 EEA passport rights available

Overseas persons exclusion available

Registered EEA-based intermediary with UK branch (registered office or head office in another EEA State)

No

Yes

No

Registered EEA-based intermediary with no UK branch providing cross-border services

No

Yes

Potentially available [see Note]

Third country intermediary operating from branch in the UK

Yes

No

No

Third country intermediary providing services in (or into) the UK

Yes unless overseas persons exclusion applies

No

Potentially available

This does not, however, affect the firm'sauthorisation under Schedule 3 to the Act (see PERG 5.12.9 G to PERG 5.12.10 G (Passporting)).

3For EEA-based intermediaries this table assumes that the insurance mediation activities are within the scope of the Insurance Mediation Directive.

PERG 5.12.12GRP
Non-UK-based persons wishing to carry on insurance mediation activities in the United Kingdom must:(1) qualify for authorisation by exercising passport rights (see section 31 (Authorised persons) and schedule 3 (EEA passport rights) to the Act and PERG 5.12.13 G to PERG 5.12.14 G (Passporting)); or(2) make use of the overseas persons exclusion (which then has the effect that activities are deemed not to be regulated activities carried on in the United Kingdom); or(3) seek Part
PERG 5.12.13GRP
The effect of the IMD is that any EEA-based insurance intermediaries doing business within the Directive’s scope4 must first be registered in their home EEA State before carrying on insurance mediation in that EEA State or other EEA States. For these purposes, an EEA-based insurance intermediary is either:(1) a legal person with its registered office or head office in an EEA State other than the United Kingdom; or(2) a natural person resident in an EEA State other than the United
PERG 4.16.2GRP
The government's intention behind the regulatory regime for mortgages was "to ensure that, at any one time, it would be possible for each mortgage to be linked to one and only one authorised firm (with mortgage permission) to have the ongoing regulatory responsibility towards consumers" (HM Treasury, Regulating Mortgages, February 2002, paragraph 47). In other words, it should be possible to arrange a securitisation transaction so that the SPV and other third parties do not carry
PERG 4.16.3GRP
A SPV does not carry on the regulated activity of entering into a regulated mortgage contract (or agreeing to do so), merely by acquiring the legal or beneficial interest in the contract from the original lender, or by providing funding to the original lender. If the contract is subsequently varied, a SPV should take care to avoid the original contract being replaced with a new regulated mortgage contract (see PERG 4.4.4 G). The original lender is, of course, likely to require
PERG 4.16.4GRP
If an unauthorised SPV arranges for an authorised person with permission to administer a regulated mortgage contract to administer its regulated mortgage contracts, it can avoid carrying on the regulated activities of:(1) administering a regulated mortgage contract, because of the exclusion in article 62 of the Regulated Activities Order (described in PERG 4.8.4 G);(2) arranging (bringing about) or making arrangements with a view to regulated mortgage contracts, because any arrangements
SUP 13A.5.2GRP
An EEA firm3(other than7 an EEA firm that received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation)31should note that the requirement under the Single Market Directives to give a notice of intention to provide cross border services applies whether or not:(1) it has established a branch in the United Kingdom; or(2) those cross border services are regulated activities.
SUP 13A.5.3GRP
(1) Before an EEA firm (other than7 an EEA firm that has received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation)3 exercises an EEA right to provide cross border services into the United Kingdom, the Act requires it to satisfy the service conditions, as set out in paragraph 14 of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act. 1(2) For the purposes of paragraph 14(1)(b) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, the information to be contained in the regulator's notice has been prescribed
SUP 13A.5.4GRP
(1) Unless the EEA firm3(other than7 an EEA firm that received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation)331is passporting under the Insurance Mediation Directive, if the appropriate UK regulator9 receives a regulator's notice or, where no notice is required , is informed of the EEA firm's intention to provide cross border services into the United Kingdom, the appropriate UK regulator9 will, under paragraphs 14(2) and 14(3) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, notify
SUP 13A.5.5GRP
An EEA firm (other than an EEA UCITS management company)2 that has satisfied the service conditions in paragraph 14 of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act is entitled to start providing cross border services into the United Kingdom. In the case of an EEA UCITS management company, FCA9 approval must first be obtained, as explained in SUP 13A.5.3 G (see also SUP 13A.3.1C G).2 However, an EEA firm that wishes to start providing cross border services but has not yet received notification
PERG 2.7.3GRP
The activities of effecting a contract of insurance or carrying out a contract of insurance are separate regulated activities, each requiring authorisation. But this only applies where they are carried on by a person who is acting as principal. This means that the activities of agents, such as loss adjusters, will not constitute this regulated activity. The activities of some agents may, however, be regulated as insurance mediation activities (see PERG 5 (Guidance on insurance
PERG 2.7.6BGRP
11The RAO and the auction regulation together generate three broad categories of person in relation to bidding for emissions allowances on an auction platform:(1) The first category consists of an investment firm to which MiFID applies and a BCD credit institution where either firm is bidding on behalf of its clients for emissions auction products or bidding on its own account for emissions auction products that are financial instruments. This category also consists of a person
PERG 2.7.6CGRP
11A person may fall into both the first and the second category. For example, a person might be both exempt from MiFID under article 2(1)(i) (within the first category) and be a group entity of an operator (within the second category). In this case, that person does not require permission for activities that cause that person to fall into the second category because those activities are excluded from the activity of bidding in emissions auctions.
PERG 2.7.13FGRP
16An open-ended investment company will, once it is authorised under regulations made under section 262 of the Act, become an authorised person in its own right under Schedule 5 to the Act (Persons concerned in Collective Investment Schemes). Under ordinary principles, a company operates itself and an authorisedopen-ended investment company will be operating the collective investment scheme constituted by the company. It is not required to go through a separate process of authorisation
PERG 2.7.20LGRP
(1) 15Furnishing of persons with information relevant to the financial standing of individuals is a regulated activity if the person has collected the information for that purpose.(2) A person requires authorisation for this activity only if its business primarily consists of the activities in (1). (3) This activity does not include an activity in so far as it is operating an electronic system in relation to lending.
PERG 2.7.21GRP
Agreeing to carry on most regulated activities is itself a regulated activity. But this is not the case if the underlying activities to which the agreement relates are those of accepting deposits, issuing electronic money,10effecting or carrying out contracts of insurance, operating a multilateral trading facility, managing dormant account funds, the meeting of repayment claims75, managing a UCITS, acting as depositary or trustee of a UCITS, managing an AIF, acting as trustee