Related provisions for PERG 6.4.3
1001 - 1020 of 1061 items.
Other relevant parts of HandbookNote: Other parts of the Handbook that may also be relevant to persons to whom the transparency rules apply include DEPP (Decision Procedure and Penalties Manual) and 2Chapter 9 of SUP (the Supervision manual).The following Regulatory Guides are also relevant:21. The Enforcement Guide (EG)22. [intentionally blank]23Note: A list of regulated markets can be found on the FCA website.22
1The insurance client money chapter2 does not apply to an authorised professional firm with respect to its non-mainstream regulated activities, which are insurance mediation activities, if:2(1) the firm's designated professional body has made rules which implement article 4 of the Insurance Mediation Directive;33(2) those rules have been approved by the FCA under section 332(5) of the Act; and(3) the firm is subject to the rules in the form in which they were approved.
21The provisions in SYSC should be read in conjunction with GEN 2.2.23 R to GEN 2.2.25 G. In particular:(1) [deleted]9(2) Provisions made by the FCA, and by the9PRA in the PRA Rulebook,9 may be applied by both regulators to PRA-authorised persons. Such provisions are applied by each regulator to the extent of its powers and regulatory responsibilities.95(3) 5For Solvency II firms, the FCA considers that the requirements and guidance in Chapters 2, 3, 12 to 18 and 21 of SYSC are
(1) does not envisage that an issuer will: DTR 2.5.3 R (1) does
not allow an issuer to delay
public disclosure of the fact that it is in financial difficulty or of its
worsening financial condition and is limited to the fact or substance of the
negotiations to deal with such a situation. An issuer cannot
delay disclosure of inside information on
the basis that its position in subsequent negotiations to deal with the situation
will be jeopardised by the disclosure of its financial
The notice required by CONC 7.17.4 R must contain the following information:(1) a form of wording to the effect that the notice is given in compliance with the rules because the borrower is behind with the sums payable under the agreement;(2) a form of wording encouraging the borrower to discuss the state of his account with the firm;(3) the date of the notice;(4) (a) the name, telephone number or numbers, the postal address, and, where appropriate, any other address of the firm;
Under article 64 of the Regulated Activities Order (Agreeing to carry on specified kinds of activity), in addition to the regulated activities of:(1) dealing in investments as agent;(2) arranging (bringing about) deals in investments;(3) making arrangements with a view to transactions in investments;(4) assisting in the administration and performance of a contract of insurance; and(5) advising on investments;agreeing to do any of these things is itself a regulated activity. In
(1) The periodic fees for collective investment schemes reflect the estimated costs to the FCA of considering proposals to change regulated collective investment schemes, maintaining up to date records about them, and related policy work.(2) [deleted]828(3) The periodic fees for fee-paying payment service providers, fee-paying electronic money issuers, CBTL firms12and issuers of regulated covered bonds7are set out in FEES 4 Annex 11R12. This annex sets out the activity groups,
4SUP 13.5.2 R does not apply to13UK firms exercising an EEA right under the auction regulation7 as they have automatic passport rights on the basis of their Home State authorisation under 13the auction regulation. However, the information required by SUP 13.5.2-A R assists the FCA’s13 supervision of a UK firm's provision of a service in another EEA state under the auction regulation.71111
(1) 6SYSC 14.1.29G(6) does not apply to a Solvency II firm.(2) SYSC 14.1.29G(7) does not apply to a Solvency II firm, but only in relation to references to the internal audit function. It does apply to a Solvency II firm in relation to references to the internal audit committee.(3) For Solvency II firms, the PRA has made rules implementing the governance provisions of the Solvency II Directive relating to internal controls (article 46), see PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions
For the purpose of BIPRU 3.2.25R (1)(e) (Prompt transfer of capital resources): 22(1) 2in the case of an undertaking that is a firm the requirement in BIPRU 3.2.25R (1)(e) for the prompt transfer of capital resources refers to capital resources in excess of the capital and financial resources requirements to which it is subject under the regulatory system; and2(2) 44[deleted](3) 4the FCA will consider the following criteria:(a) the speed with which funds can be transferred or
Principles 3, 4 and (in so far as it relates to disclosing to the appropriate regulator) 11 (and this chapter) also:(1) apply with respect to the carrying on of unregulated activities (for Principle 3 this is only in a prudential context); and(2) take into account any activity of other members of a group of which the firm is a member.
A person will only need authorisation or exemption if he is carrying on a regulated activity 'by way of business' (see section 22 of the Act (Regulated activities)). There are, in fact, three different forms of business test applied to the regulated mortgage activities. In the FCA's view, however, the difference in the business tests should have little practical effect.
The aspects of complaint handling dealt with in this appendix are how the firm should:(1) assess a complaint in order to establish whether the firm's conduct of the sale failed to comply with the rules, or was otherwise in breach of the duty of care or any other requirement of the general law (taking into account relevant materials published by the FCA, other relevant regulators, the Financial Ombudsman Service and former schemes). In this appendix this is referred to as a "breach
(1) A proposal that an authorised fund should be involved in a scheme of arrangement is subject to written notice to and approval by the FCA under section 251 of the Act (Alteration of schemes and changes of manager or trustee), section 261Q of the Act (Alteration of contractual schemes and changes of operator or depositary)2 or regulation 21 of the OEIC Regulations (The Authority's approval for certain changes in respect of a company). Effect cannot be given to such a change