Related provisions for SUP App 3.3.8
41 - 60 of 305 items.
If a person established in the EEA: (1) does not have an EEA right; (2) does not have permission as a UCITS qualifier; and(3) does not have, or does not wish to exercise, a Treaty right (see SUP 13A.3.4 G to SUP 13A.3.11 G);to carry on a particular regulated activity in the United Kingdom, it must seek Part 4A permission from the appropriate UK regulator3 to do so (see the appropriate UK regulator's website: http://www.fca.org.uk/firms/about-authorisation/getting-authorised for
Where theappropriate UK regulator3 grants a top-up permission to an incoming EEA firm to carry on regulated activities for which it has neither an EEA right nor a Treaty right, the appropriate UK regulator3 is responsible for the prudential supervision of the incoming EEA firm, to the extent that the responsibility is not reserved to the incoming EEA firm'sHome State regulator. 33
For guidance on how to apply for Part 4A permission3 under the Act, see the appropriate UK regulator's website: http://www.fca.org.uk/firms/about-authorisation/getting-authorised for the FCA and www.bankofengland.co.uk/pra/Pages/authorisations/newfirm/default.aspx for the PRA.31 If an EEA firm or Treaty firm wishes to make any subsequent changes to its top-up permission, it can make an application for variation of that permission (see SUP 6 (Applications to vary and cancel Part
(1) 1This section applies to a firm in relation to a communication to a client, including an excluded communication, that is a marketing communication within the meaning of the UCITS Directive.(2) This section does not apply to:(a) image advertising; or(b) the instrument constituting the fund2, the prospectus, the key investor information (or alternatively the simplified prospectus or EEA simplified prospectus) or the periodic reports and accounts of either a UCITS scheme or an
(1) A firm must ensure that a marketing communication that comprises an invitation to purchase units in a UCITS scheme or EEA UCITS scheme and that contains specific information about the scheme:(a) makes no statement that contradicts or diminishes the significance of the information contained in the prospectus and the key investor information document or EEA key investor information document for the scheme;(b) indicates that a prospectus exists for the scheme and that the key
A firm must ensure that a marketing communication (other than a key investor information document or EEA key investor information document) relating to a feeder UCITS contains a statement that the feeder UCITS permanently invests at least 85% in value of its assets in units of its master UCITS.[Note: article 63(4) of the UCITS Directive]
(1) This section applies to a motor vehicle liability insurer.(2) The rules in this section relating to the appointment of claims representatives apply:22(a) in relation to claims by injured parties resulting from accidents occurring in an EEA State other than the injured party'sEEA State of residence which are caused by the use of vehicles insured through an establishment in, and normally based in, an EEA State other than the injured party'sEEA State of residence; and2(b) in
A firm must ensure that each claims representative:(1) is responsible for handling and settling a claim by an injured party;(2) is resident or established in the EEA State where it is appointed;(3) collects all information necessary in connection with the settlement of a claim and takes the measures necessary to negotiate its settlement;(4) possesses sufficient powers to represent the firm in relation to an injured party and to meet an injured party's claim in full; and(5) is
(1) A firm must notify to the information centres of all EEA States:(a) the name and address of the claims representative which they have appointed in each of the EEA States;[Note: article 23(2) of the Consolidated Motor Insurance Directive](b) the telephone number and effective date of appointment; and(c) any material change to information previously notified.(2) Notification must be made within ten business days of an appointment or of a material change.
Under the Act and the Regulated Activities Order, the activities of effecting and carrying out contracts of insurance are treated as being carried on in the United Kingdom on the basis of legal tests under which the location of the risk is only one factor. If the risk is located in the United Kingdom, then (other relevant factors being taken into account) the activity will, in the vast majority of cases, also be viewed as carried on in the United Kingdom. There are exceptions,
So, the effect of App 3.12.1 is that an insurer may be carrying on insurance business in the United Kingdom which is to be treated as a regulated activity under article 10 to the Regulated Activities Order (Effecting and carrying out contracts of insurance) in circumstances where the risks covered are treated as located in another EEA State. In that event, the insurer is required by Schedule 3 to the Act to passport into the State concerned and may be subject to conduct of business
An insurer authorised in another EEA State who is insuring UK risks and so passports on a services basis under the Solvency II Directive7 into the United Kingdom may not be carrying on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom. But, if it passports into the United Kingdom, it will qualify for authorisation under paragraph 12 of Schedule 3 to the Act (Firms qualifying for authorisation). Where this is the case, the insurer will be subject to conduct of business requirements in
(1) This sourcebook, except for COLL 9 (Recognised schemes), applies to:(a) investment companies with variable capital (ICVCs);(b) ACDs, other directors and depositaries of ICVCs;3(c) managers and trustees of authorised unit trust schemes (AUTs); 34(cA) authorised fund managers, depositaries and nominated partners of authorised contractual schemes (ACSs); and4(d) to the extent indicated, UK UCITS management companies operating EEA UCITS schemes.3(2) COLL 9 applies to operators
3An EEA UCITS management company that is providing collective portfolio management services for a UCITS scheme from a branch in the United Kingdom, or under the freedom to provide cross border services, is advised that where it operates a UCITS scheme as its designated management company, it meets the Glossary definition of an "ACD" of an ICVC or a "manager" of an AUT or an authorised contractual scheme manager of an ACS,4 which in either case is a UCITS scheme. Such firms should
3COLL 12 provides for the application of COLL in relation to the management company passport under the UCITS Directive. It explains how the passporting regime applies to both UK UCITS management companies and EEA UCITS management companies when providing collective portfolio management services on a cross-border basis. It also explains how the product passport (for UCITS) operates and how UCITS schemes may be marketed in other EEA States.
Where an authorised fund manager of a feeder UCITS enters into a master-feeder agreement or, if applicable, internal conduct of business rules, with the management company of an EEA UCITS scheme, references in COLL 11 Annex 1 R and COLL 11 Annex 2 R to COLLrules implementing provisions in the UCITS Directive which are the responsibility of the EEA UCITS scheme'sHome State regulator should be read as referring to the corresponding provisions in the laws and regulations of that
(1) Where the feeder UCITS and the master UCITS are UCITS schemes, the master-feeder agreement must provide that the law of a specified part of the United Kingdom applies to the agreement and that both parties agree to the exclusive jurisdiction of the courts of that part of the United Kingdom.(2) Where the feeder UCITS and the master UCITS are established in different EEA States, the master-feeder agreement must provide that the applicable law shall be either:(a) the law of the
(1) The authorised fund managers of a master UCITS and its feeder UCITS must take appropriate measures to co-ordinate the timing of their net asset value calculation and publication, including the publication of dealingprices, in order to avoid market timing in their units, preventing arbitrage opportunities.(2) Where either the master UCITS or feeder UCITS is an EEA UCITS scheme managed by an EEA UCITS management company, the authorised fund manager must co-ordinate with that
Where the FCA is informed in accordance with COLL 11.3.9 R that a feeder UCITS which is an EEA UCITS scheme has invested in units of the master UCITS, section 261A and section 261Z41 (Information for home state regulator) of the Act and regulation 29A (Information for home state regulator) of the OEIC Regulations require the FCA to inform the Home State regulator of the feeder UCITS immediately.[Note: article 66(1) second sentence of the UCITS Directive]
11The RAO and the auction regulation together generate three broad categories of person in relation to bidding for emissions allowances on an auction platform:(1) The first category consists of an investment firm to which MiFID applies and a BCD credit institution where either firm is bidding on behalf of its clients for emissions auction products or bidding on its own account for emissions auction products that are financial instruments. This category also consists of a person
16The activity of managing a UCITS is derived from the UCITS Directive. A person will manage a UCITS where they carry on collective portfolio management of a UCITS. A UCITS is a type of collective investment scheme which is authorised by a competent authority in an EEA State as meeting the requirements under the UCITS Directive.
(1) 1This rule applies to a state, a regional or local authority and a public international body with listeddebt securities for whom the United Kingdom is its home Member State for the purposes of the Transparency Directive.(2) An issuer referred to in paragraph (1) that is not already required to comply with the transparency rules must comply with:(a) DTR 5.6.3 R (disclosure of changes in rights);(b) [deleted]2(c) DTR 6.1.3 R (2) (equality of treatment);(d) DTR 6.2 (Filing information
1Under section 312C of the Act, if a UK RIE wishes to make arrangements in an EEA State other than the UK to facilitate access to or use of a regulated market,2multilateral trading facility or auction platform2 operated by it, it must give the FCA3written notice of its intention to do so. The notice must:3(1) describe the arrangements; and(2) identify the EEA State in which the UK RIE intends to make them.
A person will only be an EEA firm or a Treaty firm if it has its head office in an EEA State other than the United Kingdom. EEA firms and Treaty firms are entitled to exercise both the right of establishment and the freedom to provide services under the Treaty. The difference, however, is that an EEA firm has a right to passport under a Single Market Directive or the auction regulation2, whereas a Treaty firm carries on activities for which the right to carry on those activities
Where:(1) an MCD regulated mortgage contract is denominated in the currency of the EEA State in which the consumer is resident ("currency A"); and(2) the consumer receives income or holds assets in currency A but also receives income or holds assets in another currency ("currency B");the MCD regulated mortgage contract will not be a foreign currency loan unless the credit is to be repaid wholly or in part from the income received or assets held in currency B.
The alternative currency referred to in MCOB 2A.3.1R (1) must be either:(1) the currency in which the consumer primarily receives income or holds assets from which the credit is to be repaid, as indicated at the time that the most recent affordability assessment in relation to the regulated mortgage contract was made; or(2) the currency of the EEA State in which the consumer either was resident at the time that the MCD regulated mortgage contract was entered into or is currently
1Under
section 312A of the Act, an EEA market operator may make arrangements
in the United Kingdom to facilitate
access to, or use of, a regulated market or multilateral trading facility operated by
it if:(1) the operator has given its Home State regulator notice of its intention
to make such arrangements; and(2) the Home
State regulator has given the FCA3 notice of the operator's intention.3
An EEA
market operator has exempt person status
as respects any regulated activity which
is carried on as a part of its business of operating a regulated
market or multilateral trading
facility if the operator made arrangements in the United Kingdom on or before 31 October 2007
to facilitate access to, or use of, that regulated
market or multilateral trading
facility.
(1) The amount payable by each firm will depend upon the category (or categories) of regulated activities or payment services7it is engaged in (fee-blocks)and whether it is issuing electronic money,10 and on the amount of business it conducts in each category (tariff base). The fee-blocks and tariffs are identified in FEES 4 Annex 1AR17 (and guidance on calculating certain of the tariffs is at FEES 4 Annex 12 G and 17FEES 4 Annex 13G15) 17while 27FEES 4 Annex 2AR sets 17 out
(1) A firm which becomes authorised or registered 7during the course of a fee year26 will be required to pay a proportion of the periodic fee which reflects the proportion of the year for which it will have a permission or the right to provide particular payment services or the right to issue electronic money107- see FEES 4.2.5 G and FEES 4.2.6 R.26(2) Similarly a firm which extends its permission or its right to provide particular payment services7so that its business then falls
(1) The FCA17recognises that its responsibilities in respect of an incoming EEA firm, an incoming Treaty firm, an EEA authorised payment institution or an EEA authorised electronic money institution are reduced compared with a firm which is incorporated in the United Kingdom.17(2) Accordingly the periodic fees which would otherwise be applicable to incoming EEA firms, incoming Treaty firms, EEA authorised payment institutions and EEA authorised electronic money institutions are
10For:10(-1) (a) a full credit institution which is a fee-paying payment service provider and an EEA firm; or(b) a full credit institution which is a fee-paying electronic money issuer and an EEA firm; or(c) an EEA authorised payment institution; or(d) an EEA authorised electronic money institution;the calculation required by FEES 4.3.3A R is modified as follows:(1) the tariffs set out in Part 5 of FEES 4 Annex 11 are only applied to the payment services or electronic money issuance10of
(1) A person performs the EEA branch senior manager function in relation to the branch in the United Kingdom of an EEA relevant authorised person if that person has significant responsibility for one or more significant business units of the branch that carry on any of the activities listed in (2).(2) The activities listed in this paragraph are:(a) designated investment business other than dealing in investments as principal, disregarding article 15 of the Regulated Activities
(1) The definition of the EEA branch senior manager function (SMF21) is similar to that of the significant management FCA-specified significant-harm function under SYSC 5.2.35R. However, only the former is an FCA-designated senior management function.(2) The main differences are:(a) SUP 10C.8.4R(2)(d) is not included in the significant management FCA-specified significant-harm function; and(b) the overriding requirements in SUP 10C.3 (General material about the definition of controlled
A person performing the EEA branch senior manager function could, for example, be: (1) the head of a significant business unit carrying on the activities in SUP 10C.8.4R(2); or(2) a member of a committee (that is, a person who, together with others, has authority to commit the branch) making decisions about those activities.
(1) The Compulsory Jurisdiction covers complaints about the activities of a firm (including its appointed representatives) , of a payment service provider (including agents of a payment institution), 11 of an electronic money issuer (including agents of an electronic money institution)12 of a CBTL firm, or of a designated credit reference agency12 carried on from an establishment in the United Kingdom.771111(2) The Compulsory Jurisdiction also covers complaints about:9779(a)
This:519(1) includes incoming EEA firms, incoming EEAauthorised payment institutions6, incoming EEA authorised electronic money institutions820 and incoming Treaty firms; but(2) excludes complaints about business conducted in the United Kingdom on a services basis from an establishment outside the United Kingdom (other than complaints about collective portfolio management services provided by an EEA UCITS management company in managing a UCITS scheme, and complaints about AIFM
The Voluntary Jurisdiction covers only complaints about the activities of a VJ participant carried on from an establishment:519(1) in the United Kingdom; or(2) elsewhere in the EEA if the following conditions are met:(a) the activity is directed wholly or partly at the United Kingdom (or part of it);(b) contracts governing the activity are (or, in the case of a potential customer, would have been) made under the law of England and Wales, Scotland or Northern Ireland; and(c) the
(1) This section applies to:(a) an authorised fund manager of an AUT, ACS1 or ICVC;(b) any other director of an ICVC; and(c) an ICVC;which is a UCITS scheme whose units may be marketed in another EEA State (the Host State).(2) The marketing of units of a UCITS scheme in the Host State may not commence until the FCA has, in accordance with paragraph 20B(5) (Notice of intention to market) of Schedule 3 to the Act, notified the authorised fund manager, in response to the application
The effect of article 58(4) (b) of the UCITS Directive is that a UCITS scheme that is a master UCITS which only has one or more feeder UCITS in another EEA State and therefore does not raise capital directly from the public in that EEA State will not thereby be exercising its right to market its units in that Host State in accordance with Chapter XI of the UCITS Directive.[Note: article 58(4)(b) of the UCITS Directive]
(1) 4A firm to which this rule applies must submit a Remuneration Benchmarking Information Report to the FCA annually.(2) The firm must complete the Remuneration Benchmarking Information Report in the format set out in SUP 16 Annex 33A.(3) The firm must submit the Remuneration Benchmarking Information Report to the FCA within four months of the firm'saccounting reference date.(4) A firm that:(a) is not part of a UK lead regulated group must complete that report on an unconsolidated
(1) A firm to which this rule applies must submit a High Earners Report to the FCA4 annually.104(2) The firm must submit that report to the FCA4 within four months of the end of the firm'saccounting reference date.104(3) A firm that is not part of a UK lead regulated group must complete that report on an unconsolidated basis in respect of remuneration awarded in the last completed financial year to all high earners of the firm who mainly undertook their professional activities
(1) A CAD Article 22 group means a UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group that meets the conditions in this rule.(2) There must be no bank, building society or2credit institution2 in the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group and any investment firm in the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group must not be subject to consolidated supervision under the EU CRR2.11(3) Each CAD investment firm in the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group which is an EEA firm
GENPRU 2.2 (Capital resources) says that a BIPRU firm1 with an investment firm consolidation waiver should calculate its capital resources on a solo basis using GENPRU 2 Annex 6 (Capital resources table for a BIPRU firm with a waiver from consolidated supervision). GENPRU 2 Annex 6 requires a BIPRU firm1 to deduct contingent liabilities in favour of other members of the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group. Therefore BIPRU 8.4.9R (5)(b) only imposes the requirement to deduct
If a firm has an investment firm consolidation waiver, it must:(1) ensure that each CAD investment firm in the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group which is a firm or an EEA firm has in place systems to monitor and control the sources of capital and funding of all the members in the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group;(2) notify the FCA of any serious risk that could undermine the financial stability of the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group, as soon as