Related provisions for PERG 6.5.2
201 - 220 of 1060 items.
(1) An overseas firm, which is not an incoming firm, must notify the FCA4 within 30 business days of any person taking up or ceasing to hold the following positions:88(a) the firm's worldwide chief executive (that is, the person who, alone or jointly with one or more others, is responsible under the immediate authority of the directors for the whole of its business) if the person is based outside the United Kingdom;(b) the person within the overseas firm with a purely strategic
SUP 15.4.1 R is not made under the powers conferred on the FCA4 by Part V of the Act (Performance of Regulated Activities). A person notified to the FCA4 under SUP 15.4.1 R is not subject to the Statements of Principle or Code of Practice for Approved Persons, unless he is also an approved person.8888
(1) A firm other than a credit union must submit the form in SUP 15 Ann 2 R online 8 using the FCA's4ONA5system.28885(2) A credit union must submit the form in SUP 15 Ann 2 R in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification).2(3) Where a firm is obliged to submit an application online under (1), if the FCA's4 information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, until such time as facilities for online
(1) If the FCA's4 information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, the FCA4 will endeavour to publish a notice on its website confirming that online submission is unavailable and that the alternative methods of submission set out in SUP 15.4.3R(3) and SUP 15.7.4R to SUP 15.7.9G (Form and method of notification) should be used.28888(2) Where SUP 15.4.3R (3) applies to a firm, GEN 1.3.2 R (Emergency) does not apply.2
In the FCA's view the requirements relating to risk management policy and risk measurement set out in this section are the regulatory responsibility of the management company'sHome State regulator but to the extent that they constitute fund application rules, are also the responsibility of the UCITS'Home State regulator. As such, these responsibilities may overlap between the competent authorities of the Home and Host States. EEA UCITS management companies providing collective
(1) 3(a) An authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme or a UK UCITS management company of an EEA UCITS scheme must use a risk management process enabling it to monitor and measure at any time the risk of the scheme's positions and their contribution to the overall risk profile of the scheme.3(b) In particular, an authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme or a UK UCITS management company of an EEA UCITS scheme must not solely or mechanistically rely on credit ratings issued by
(1) An authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme or a UK UCITS management company of an EEA UCITS scheme must assess, monitor and periodically review:(a) the adequacy and effectiveness of the risk management policy and of the arrangements, processes and techniques referred to in COLL 6.12.5 R;(b) the level of compliance by the authorised fund manager or the UK UCITS management company with the risk management policy and with those arrangements, processes and techniques referred
UK UCITS management companies are advised that when they applied for authorisation from the FCA under the Act, their ability to comply with the requirements in COLL 6.12.7 R would have been assessed by the FCA as an aspect of their fitness and properness in determining whether the threshold conditions set out in Schedule 6 (Threshold conditions) of the Act were met. Firms are further advised that their compliance with these requirements is subject to review by the FCA on an ongoing
Some of these tools, for example
the use of public statements to deliver messages to firms or consumers of financial services, do not involve
the FCA in direct oversight
of the business of firms. In
contrast, other tools do involve a direct relationship with firms.
The FCA also has powers to
act on its own initiative to impose or vary individual requirements on
a firm (see SUP 7) and to ban or impose requirements in relation to
specific financial promotions. The FCA may
also
The FCA uses
a variety of tools to monitor whether a firm,
once authorised, remains in compliance
with regulatory requirements. These tools include (but are not limited to):(1) desk-based reviews;(2) liaison with other agencies or
regulators;(3) meetings with management and other
representatives of a firm;(4) on-site inspections;(5) reviews and analysis of periodic
returns and notifications;(6) reviews of past business;(7) transaction monitoring;(8) use of auditors; and(9) use
The FCA also
uses a variety of tools to address specific risks identified in firms. These tools include:(1) making recommendations for preventative
or remedial action;(2) giving other individual guidance to a firm;(3) imposing individual requirements; and(4) varying a firm'spermission in another way.
The Principles are a general statement of the fundamental obligations of firms under the regulatory system. This includes provisions which implement the Single Market Directives.5 They derive their authority from the appropriate regulator's rule-making powers as set out in the Act and reflect the statutory objectives.3
Principles 3 (Management and control), 4 (Financial prudence) and (in so far as it relates to disclosing to the appropriate regulator) 11 (Relations with regulators) take into account the activities of members of a firm's group. This does not mean that, for example, inadequacy of a group member's risk management systems or resources will automatically lead to a firm contravening Principle 3 or 4. Rather, the potential impact of a group member's activities (and, for example, risk
As set out in PRIN 3.3 (Where?), Principles 1 (Integrity), 2 (Skill, care and diligence) and 3 (Management and control) apply to world-wide activities in a prudential context. Principle 5 (Market conduct) applies to world-wide activities which might have a negative effect on confidence in the UK financial system8. In considering whether to take regulatory action under these Principles in relation to activities carried on outside the United Kingdom, the appropriate regulator will
Breaching a Principle makes a firm liable to disciplinary sanctions. In determining whether a Principle has been breached it is necessary to look to the standard of conduct required by the Principle in question. Under each of the Principles the onus will be on the appropriate regulator to show that a firm has been at fault in some way. What constitutes "fault" varies between different Principles. Under Principle 1 (Integrity), for example, the appropriate regulator would need
The Principles are also relevant to the FCA's15 powers of information-gathering, to vary a firm'sPart 4A permission,15 and of investigation and intervention, and provide a basis on which the FCA15 may apply to a court for an injunction or restitution order or require a firm to make restitution. However, the Principles do not give rise to actions for damages by a private person (see PRIN 3.4.4 R).151515
When making a decision on an application
for registration under the RCB Regulations,
or in relation to material changes to the contractual terms of the regulated covered bond, or in relation to
a change of owner, or when
seeking to use direction, revocation or penalty powers, the RCB
Regulations require the FCA to give the subject of the intended
action a warning notice and
a decision notice. The recipient
of a warning notice has the
right to make representations to the decision
Regulation 44 of the RCB Regulations (Warning notices and decision
notices) applies Part XXVI of the Act (Notices)
in respect of notices that we give under the RCB
Regulations. This means that the provisions of section 393
of the Act (Third party rights)
and section 394 of the Act (Access
to Authority material) apply to penalty procedures under the RCB Regulations and that, if the matter
is not referred to the Tribunal,
then upon taking the action to which a decision
notice relates,
Decisions on applications for registration,
in relation to material changes to contractual terms of the regulated
covered bond, or in relation to a change of owner, or decisions
to issue a direction under the RCB Regulations or
to revoke an issuer's registration,
will be taken under executive procedures following
the process set out in DEPP 4.
(1) An issuer'slistedsecuritised derivatives must be admitted to trading on a RIE's market for listed securities at all times.(2) An issuer must inform the FCA in writing as soon as possible if it has:(a) requested a RIE to admit or re-admit any of its listedsecuritised derivatives to trading; or(b) requested a RIE to cancel or suspend trading of any of its listedsecuritised derivatives; or(c) been informed by a RIE that the trading of any of its listedsecuritised derivatives
A request by an issuer for the listing of its securities to be suspended or cancelled must be in writing and must include:(1) the issuer's name;(2) details of the securities to which it relates and the RIEs on which they are traded;(3) a clear explanation of the background and reasons for the request;(4) the date on which the issuer requests the suspension or cancellation to take effect;(5) for a suspension, the time the issuer wants the suspension to take effect;(6) if relevant,
Cancellations will only be specified to take effect when the market opens on a specified day. An issuer should therefore ensure that all accompanying information has been provided to the FCA well before the date on which the issuer wishes the cancellation to take effect and at the very latest by 3 p.m. on the business day before it is to take effect. If the information is received after 3:00 p.m. on the day before the issuer wishes the cancellation to take effect, it will normally
(1) If an issuer requests the FCA to suspend or cancel the listing of its securities, it may withdraw its request at any time before the suspension or cancellation takes effect. The withdrawal request should initially be made by telephone and then confirmed in writing as soon as possible, with an explanation of the reasons for the withdrawal.(2) Even if an issuer withdraws its request, the FCA may still suspend or cancel the listing of the securities if it considers it is necessary
4If an issuer requests the FCA to suspend or cancel the listing of its securities under LR 5.3.1 R and the FCA agrees to do so, the notification given by the FCA to the issuer will include the following information: (1) the date on which the suspension or cancellation took effect or will take effect;(2) details of the suspension or cancellation; and (3) in relation to requests for suspension, details of the issuer's right to apply for the suspension of its listed securities to
Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 9A
1(1) |
[A UK RIE] operating a multilateral trading facility must also operate a regulated market. |
|||
(2) |
[A UK RIE] operating a multilateral trading facility must comply with those requirements of- |
|||
(a) |
Chapter I of Title II of [MiFID], and |
|||
(b) |
||||
which are applicable to a market operator ... operating such a facility. |
||||
(3) |
The requirements of this paragraph do not apply for the purposes of section 292(3)(a) of the Act (requirements for overseas investment exchanges and overseas clearing houses). |
|||
1In determining whether a UK RIE operating a multilateral trading facility complies with those requirements of Chapter I of Title II of MiFID and the MiFID implementing Directive which are applicable to a market operator operating such a facility, the FCA2 will have regard to the compliance of the UK RIE with equivalent recognition requirements.2
Unless otherwise stated in the notification rule, a written notification required from a recognised body under any notification rule must be:(1) given to, or addressed for the attention of, the recognised body's usual supervisory contact at the FCA;11(2) delivered to the FCA1 by one of the methods in REC 3.2.3 R.1
Methods of notification
Method of delivery |
|
(1) |
Post to the address in REC 3.2.4 R |
(2) |
Leaving the notification at the address in REC 3.2.4 R and obtaining a time-stamped receipt |
(3) |
Electronic mail to an address for the recognised body's usual supervisory contact at the FCA1 and obtaining an electronic confirmation of receipt 1 |
(4) |
Hand delivery to the recognised body's usual supervisory contact at the FCA1 1 |
(5) |
Fax to a fax number for the recognised body's usual supervisory contact at the FCA,1provided that the FCA1 receives a copy of the notification by one of methods (1) - (4) in this table within five business days after the date of the faxed notification 11 |
If a notification rule requires notification within a specified period:(1) the recognised body must give the notification so as to be received by the FCA1 no later than the end of that period; and 1(2) if the end of that period falls on a day which is not a business day, the notification must be given so as to be received by the FCA1 no later than the first business day after the end of that period.1
Paragraph 12(1) of Part 2 of Schedule 1A to the Act enables the FCA to make rules requiring certain2authorised persons or payment service providers or electronic money issuers2 to pay to the FCA specified amounts or amounts calculated in a specified way in order to meet a proportion of:22(1) the expenses incurred by the FCA in establishing the CFEB, whenever these were incurred; and(2) the expenses incurred, or expected to be incurred, by the CFEB in connection with the discharge
(1) Paragraph 9 of Schedule 4 of FSBRA allows the FCA to make rules requiring participants2 in regulated payment systems to pay the FCA specified amounts or amounts calculated in a specified way to:(a) meet the relevant costs referred to in (2) below; and (b) enable the PSR to maintain adequate reserves.(2) The relevant costs in (1)(a) means:(a) the expenses incurred, or expected to be incurred, by the PSR in connection with the discharge of its functions;(b) the expenses incurred
(1) Given the complexity of issues raised by passporting, UK firms are advised to consult legislation and also to obtain legal advice at earliest opportunity. Firms are encouraged to contact their usual supervisory contact at the appropriate UK regulator5 to discuss their proposals. However, a UK firm which is seeking guidance on procedural or notification issues relating to passporting should contact the FCA and PRA authorisations teams, as and where appropriate.555(2) An applicant
The Society must, as soon as it is practical to do so, notify the FCA2of its intention to make any amendment which may alter the meaning or effect of any byelaw, including:2(1) any Lloyd's trust deed;(2) any standard form letter of credit prescribed by the Society from time to time; or(3) any standard form guarantee agreement prescribed by the Society from time to time.
The information provided to the 2FCA2by the Society under INSPRU 8.2.25 R must include:(1) a statement of the purpose of any proposed amendment or new Lloyd's trust deed and the expected impact, if any, on policyholders, managing agents, members, and potential members; and(2) a description of the consultation undertaken under INSPRU 8.2.26 R including a summary of any significant responses to that consultation.
Business and internal control risks vary from firm to firm, according to the nature and complexity of the business. The FCA's assessment of these risks is reflected in how its rules apply to different categories of firm as well as in the use of its other regulatory tools. One of the tools the FCA has available is to give a firm individual guidance on the application of the requirements or standards under the regulatory system in the firm's particular circumstances.
The FCA6 may give individual guidance to a firm on its own initiative if it considers it appropriate to do so. For example:6(1) the FCA6 may consider that general guidance in the Handbook does not appropriately fit a firm's particular circumstances (which may be permanent or temporary) and therefore decide to give additional individual guidance to the firm;6(2) some of the FCA's6 requirements are expressed in general terms; however, there may be times when the FCA6 will wish to
Under the investment condition, the reasonable investor is looking to satisfy two criteria. Both of these are fundamental to his decision to invest. But the thresholds referred to in PERG 9.6.1 G (1) and PERG 9.6.1 G (2) are different. In the FCA's view, a person expects something where he regards it as likely to happen or anticipates that events will turn out in a particular way. A person is satisfied of something where he has made up his mind or is persuaded that it is the case.
Section 236(3) of the Act states clearly that the investment condition must be met 'in relation to BC'. In the FCA's view, this means that the investment condition should not be applied rigidly in relation to specific events such as particular issues of shares or securities or in relation to particular points in time. The requirements of the investment condition must be satisfied in relation to the overall impression of the body corporate itself, having regard to all the circ
In the FCA's view, and within limits, the investment condition allows for the possibility that a body corporate that is an open-ended investment company may issue shares or securities with different characteristics. Some shares or securities may clearly satisfy the condition whereas others may not. The FCA considers that a reasonable investor contemplating investment in such a body corporate may still take the view, looking at the body corporate overall, that the investment condition
The FCA considers that the reference in PERG 9.6.5 G (3) to corresponding provisions in force in another EEA State will include provisions that derive from the maintenance of capital requirements of the Second Council Directive on co-ordination of safeguards which, for the protection of the interests of members and others, are required by Member States of companies (77/91/EEC).
The FCA's views on the following three elements of the investment condition are explained separately:(1) the 'reasonable investor' (see PERG 9.7 (The investment condition: the 'reasonable investor'));(2) the 'expectation' test (see PERG 9.8 (The investment condition: the 'expectation test' (section 236(3)(a) of the Act))); and(3) the 'satisfaction' test (see PERG 9.9 (The investment condition: the 'satisfaction test' (section 236(3)(b) of the Act)).
Recognition Requirements Regulations, Regulation 6
2(1) In considering whether a [UK recognised body] or applicant satisfiesrecognition requirements applying to it under these [Recognition Requirements Regulations], the [FCA]3 may take into account all relevant circumstances including the constitution of the person concerned and its regulatory provisions within the meaning of section 300E3 of the Act. 33 |
(2) Without prejudice to the generality of paragraph (1), a [UK recognised body] or applicant may satisfyrecognition requirements applying to it under these [Recognition Requirements Regulations] by making arrangements for functions to be performed on its behalf by any otherperson. |
(3) Where a [UK recognised body] or applicant makes arrangements of the kind mentioned in paragraph (2), the arrangements do not affect the responsibility imposed by the Act on the [UK recognised body] or applicant to satisfy recognition requirements applying to it under these [Recognition Requirements Regulations ], but it is in addition a recognition requirement applying to the [UK recognised body] or applicant that the person who performs (or is to perform) the functions is a fit and proper person who is able and willing to perform them. |
The FCA3 will usually expect :3(1) the constitution, regulatory provisions and practices of the UK recognised body or applicant;(2) the nature (including complexity, diversity and risk) and scale of the UK recognised body's or applicant's business; (3) the size and nature of the market which is supported by the UK recognised body's or applicant's facilities; (4) the nature and status of the types of investor who use the UK recognised body's or applicant's facilities or have an
It is the UK recognised body's responsibility to demonstrate to the FCA3 that a person who performs a function on behalf of the UK recognised body is fit and proper and able and willing to perform that function. The recognition requirement referred to in Regulation 6(3) applies to the UK recognised body and not to any person who performs any function on its behalf. In this context, for a person to be "fit and proper" does not necessarily imply that he is an authorised person,
In determining whether the UK recognised body meets the recognition requirement in Regulation 6(3), the FCA3 may have regard to whether that body has ensured that the person who performs that function on its behalf:3(1) has sufficient resources to be able to perform the function (after allowing for any other activities);(2) has adequate systems and controls to manage that function and to report on its performance to the UK recognised body;(3) is managed by persons of sufficient
In determining whether a UK recognised body continues to satisfy the recognition requirements where it has made arrangements for any function to be performed on its behalf by any person , the FCA3 may have regard, in addition to any of the matters described in the appropriate section of this chapter, to the arrangements made to exercise control over the performance of the function, including:3(1) the contracts (and other relevant documents) between the UK recognised body and the
1The guidance in COND 2.7 should be read as applying to both paragraph 2F of Schedule 6 to the Act and, as far as relevant to the discharge by the FCA of its functions under the Act in respect of firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity, paragraph 3E of Schedule 6 of the Act.
1The FCA's assessment of a firm's satisfaction of this threshold conditions set out in paragraphs 2F and 3E of Schedule 6 to the Act will not necessarily be limited to a firm'sregulated activities if the FCA believes the firm's other business activities, if any, may impact on a firm'sregulated activities.