Related provisions for PERG 6.5.2

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CASS 10.1.2GRP
The purpose of the CASS resolution pack is to ensure that a firm maintains and is able to retrieve information that would, in the event of its insolvency, assist an insolvency practitioner in achieving a timely return of client money and safe custody assets held by the firm to that firm'sclients.
CASS 10.1.7RRP
In relation to each document in a firm'sCASS resolution pack a firm must:(1) put in place adequate arrangements to ensure that an administrator, receiver, trustee, liquidator or analogous officer appointed in respect of it or any material part of its property is able to retrieve each document as soon as practicable and in any event within 48 hours of that officer’s appointment; and(2) ensure that it is able to retrieve each document as soon as practicable, and in any event within
CASS 10.1.16RRP
A firm must notify the FCA in writing immediately if it has not complied with, or is unable to comply with, CASS 10.1.3 R.
COBS 12.2.11GRP
The FCA would expect a firm'sconflicts of interest policy to provide for investment research to be published or distributed to its clients in an appropriate manner. For example, the FCA considers it will be:(1) appropriate for a firm to take reasonable steps to ensure that its investment research is published or distributed only through its usual distribution channels; and(2) inappropriate for an employee (whether or not a financial analyst) to communicate the substance of any
COBS 12.2.12GRP
The FCA would expect a firm to consider whether or not other business activities of the firm could create the reasonable perception that its investment research may not be an impartial analysis of the market in, or the value or prospects of, a financial instrument. A firm would therefore be expected to consider whether its conflicts of interest policy should contain any restrictions on the timing of the publication of investment research. For example, a firm might consider whether
COBS 12.2.13GRP
The FCA considers that the significant conflicts of interest which could arise are likely to mean it is inappropriate for a financial analyst or other relevant person to prepare investment research which is intended firstly for internal use for the firm's own advantage, and then for later publication to its clients (in circumstances in which it might reasonably be expected to have a material influence on its clients' investment decisions).
EG 7.1.1RP
3Financial penalties, suspensions, restrictions, conditions, limitations1 and public censures are important regulatory tools. However, they are not the only tools available to the FCA, and there will be many instances of non-compliance which the FCA considers it appropriate to address without the use of formal disciplinary sanctions. Still1, the effective and proportionate use of the FCA's powers to enforce the requirements of the Act, the rules, COCON1 and the Statements of
EG 7.1.2RP
3The FCA has the following powers to impose a financial penalty and to publish a public censure. (1) It may publish a statement: (a) against an approved person or conduct rules staff1 under section 66 of the Act; (b) against an issuer under section 87M of the Act; (c) against a sponsor under section 88A of the Act; (ca) against a primary information provider under section 89Q of the Act;
EG 7.1.3RP
3Section 415B of the Act requires the FCA to consult with the PRA before it takes certain enforcement action in relation to a PRA-authorised person or someone who has a qualifying relationship (as defined in section 415B(4) of the Act) with a PRA-authorised person. Further detail on when the FCA is required to consult the PRA, and when it has agreed to notify the PRA of certain matters, is set out in the Memorandum of Understanding between the PRA and the FCA.
PERG 9.10.4GRP
The restrictions mentioned in PERG 9.10.3 G are subject to a number of exemptions. For example, the controls in sections 238 and 240 do not apply to financial promotions about certain kinds of collective investment scheme. These are:(1) open-ended investment companies formed in Great Britain and authorised by the FCA under the Open-ended Investment Companies Regulations 2001;(2) authorised unit trust schemes;6(2A) authorised contractual schemes; and6(3) collective investment schemes
PERG 9.10.6GRP
The FCA has also made rules under section 238(5) which allow authorised persons to communicate or approve a financial promotion for an open-ended investment company that is an unregulated collective investment scheme (that is, one that does not fall within PERG 9.10.4 G). The circumstances in which such a communication or approval is allowed are explained in COBS 4.12.4 R535
PERG 9.10.10GRP
7(1) A person carrying on the regulated activity of establishing, operating or winding up a collective investment scheme that is constituted as an open-ended investment company will need permission for those activities. In line with section 237(2) of the Act (Other definitions), the operator of a collective investment scheme that is an open-ended investment company is the company itself and therefore the starting point for an open-ended investment company that is incorporated
DTR 6.3.3BRRP
(1) 4An issuer or person to which this rule applies must provide an annual written confirmation to the FCA that all regulated information disseminated by an RIS not specified in DTR 6.3.3A R (1) to DTR 6.3.3A R (3) in the previous financial year was disseminated in accordance with the minimum standards contained in DTR 6.3.4 R to DTR 6.3.8 R.(2) The confirmation required by DTR 6.3.3B R (1) must:(a) be provided by:(i) in the case of an issuer, the audit committee or the body referred
DTR 6.3.3CGRP
4In addition to the annual confirmation referred to in DTR 6.3.3B R, the FCA may request information from an issuer or person under section 89H of the Act on an ad hoc basis to verify that regulated information disseminated by an RIS not specified in DTR 6.3.3 R (1) to (3) has been disseminated in accordance with DTR 6.3.4 R to DTR 6.3.8 R.
DTR 6.3.8RRP
Upon request, an issuer or other person must be able to communicate to the FCA, in relation to any disclosure of regulated information:(1) the name of the person who communicated the regulated information to the RIS;(2) the security validation details;(3) the time and date on which the regulated information was communicated to the RIS;(4) the medium in which the regulated information was communicated; and(5) details of any embargo placed by the issuer on the regulated information,
IPRU-INV 13.1.22GRP
(1) The FSA considers it reasonable for a firm's policy to exclude cover for:(a) specific business lines if that type of business has not been carried out by the firm in the past and will not be carried out by the firm during the life of the policy; or (b) specific claims that have been previously notified to the firm'sinsurer and claimed for under another policy. (2) The FSA does not consider it reasonable for a firm's policy to treat legal defence
IPRU-INV 13.1.28RRP
A firm must notify the FSA immediately if it becomes aware, or has information which reasonably suggests, that any of the following matters in relation to its professional indemnity insurance has occurred, may have occurred or may occur in the foreseeable future: (1) professional indemnity insurance cannot be obtained within 28 days of the inception or renewal date; (2) professional indemnity insurance is cancelled; (3) the amount of aggregate cover is exhausted;
IPRU-INV 13.1.29GRP
For the purposes of the provisions relating to professional indemnity insurance, "additional capital resources" means readily realisable own funds. The FCA expects items included in own funds to be regarded as "readily realisable" only if they can be realised, at any given time, within 90 days.
PERG 8.11.4GRP
In a few instances, the requirements of a particular exemption may affect the practicality of its being combined with another. These are article 12 (Communications to overseas recipients) and article 52 (Common interest group of a company). Article 12, for example, requires that financial promotions must be made to or directed only at overseas persons and certain persons in the United Kingdom. This presents no difficulty with article 12 being combined with other exemptions in
PERG 8.11.5GRP
A number of exemptions require that a financial promotion must be accompanied by certain indications. Article 9 of the Financial Promotion Order states that indications must be presented in a way that can be easily understood and in such manner as is ‘best calculated’ to bring the matter to the recipient’s attention. In the FCA's opinion, the expression ‘best calculated’ should be construed in a sensible manner. It does not, for instance, demand that the indication be presented
PERG 8.11.6GRP
Some exemptions are based on the communicator believing on reasonable grounds that the recipient meets certain conditions. For example, articles 19(1)(a), 44, 47 and 49. What are reasonable grounds for these purposes will be a matter for the courts to decide. In the FCA's view, it would be reasonable for a communicator to rely on a statement made by a potential recipient that he satisfies relevant conditions. This is provided that there is no reason to doubt the accuracy of the
COLL 6.4.6RRP
(1) Every unitholder of an AUT1 is entitled to transfer units held on the register by an instrument of transfer in any form that the person responsible for the register may approve, but that person is under no duty to accept a transfer unless:(a) it is permitted by the trust deed or prospectus; and(b) the transfer is excluded by Schedule 19 of the Finance Act 1999 from a charge to stamp duty reserve tax, or there has been paid to the trustee, for the account of the AUT, an amount
COLL 6.4.6ARRP
(1) 1Where transfer of units in an ACS is allowed by its contractual scheme deed and prospectus in accordance with the conditions specified by FCArules, the authorised contractual scheme manager of the ACS must take reasonable care to ensure that units are only transferred if the conditions specified by the FCA under (2) are met.(2) The FCA specifies that for the purposes of (1), and for the purposes of COLL 3.2.6 R(27G) (ACSs: UCITS and NURS transfer of units) and COLL 4.2.5
COLL 6.4.6BGRP
1The FCA recognises that some transfers of units arise by operation of law (such as upon death or bankruptcy of the unitholder, or otherwise) and are accordingly outside the control of the authorised contractual scheme manager. The authorised contractual scheme manager is expected to comply with its responsibilities under COLL 6.6.3B R (Redemption of ACS units by an authorised contractual scheme manager) in such cases by redeeming such units.
10A.8.1ARRP
2For a Solvency II firm which is an insurance special purpose vehicle or a third-country insurance or reinsurance undertaking, the systems and controls function is modified as follows:(1) it does not include any of the activities described in any PRA controlled function if that controlled function applies to the firm;(2) it does not include activities allocated to and carried on by another person who is a PRA approved person; and(3) it only includes that part of the function that
SUP 10A.8.3GRP
(1) The systems and controls function does not apply in relation to a PRA-authorised person. PRA approval is required instead.2(2) The exception is a Solvency II firm which is an insurance special purpose vehicle or a third-country insurance or reinsurance undertaking. For such firms, FCA approval may be required but only to the extent that the activities are not already covered by a PRA controlled function that applies to the firm or are not activities allocated to and carried
SUP 10A.8.4GRP
Where an employee performs the systems and controls function the FCA would expect the firm to ensure that the employee had sufficient expertise and authority to perform that function effectively. A director or senior manager would meet this expectation.
SYSC 6.1.1AGRP
10The FCA provides guidance on steps that a firm can take to reduce the risk that it might be used to further financial crime in FC (Financial crime: a guide for firms).
SYSC 6.1.2RRP
A common platform firm and a management company8 must, taking into4account the nature, scale and complexity of its business, and the nature and range of financial services and activities8 undertaken in the course of that business, establish, implement and maintain adequate policies and procedures designed to detect any risk of failure by the firm to comply with its obligations under the regulatory system, as well as associated risks, and put in place adequate measures and procedures
SYSC 6.1.4-CGRP
(1) 15This guidance is relevant to a relevant authorised person required to appoint a compliance officer under SYSC 6.1.4R.(2) Taking account of the nature, scale and complexity of its activities, the firm should have appropriate procedures to ensure that the removal or any other disciplinary sanctioning of the compliance officer does not undermine the independence of the compliance function.(3) In the FCA's view, it will be appropriate, in many cases, for the removal or any other
PERG 6.6.2GRP
The 'assumption of risk' by the provider is an important descriptive feature of all contracts of insurance. The 'assumption of risk' has the meaning in (1) and (3), derived from the case law in (2) and (4) below. The application of the 'assumption of risk' concept is illustrated in PERG 6.7.2 G (Example 2: disaster recovery business).(1) Case law establishes that the provider's obligation under a contract of insurance is an enforceable obligation to respond (usually, by providing
PERG 6.6.3GRP
Contracts, under which the amount and timing of the payments made by the recipient make it reasonable to conclude that there is a genuine pre-payment for services to be rendered in response to a future contingency, are unlikely to be regarded as insurance. In general, the FCA expects that this requirement will be satisfied where there is a commercially reasonable and objectively justifiable relationship between the amount of the payment and the cost of providing the contract
PERG 6.6.7GRP
Under most commercial contracts with a customer, a provider will assume more than one obligation. Some of these may be insurance obligations, others may not. The FCA will apply the principles in PERG 6.5.4 G, in the way described in (1) to (3) to determine whether the contract is a contract of insurance.(1) If a provider undertakes an identifiable and distinct obligation that is, in substance an insurance obligation as described in PERG 6.5.4 G, then, other things being equal,
MCOB 5.9.1RRP
(1) 1A firm must, as soon as a customer expresses an interest in becoming a SRB agreement seller, ensure that the 2disclosures and warnings set out in (1A) are 2made to the customer2, both orally and confirmed in writing, and he is given an adequate opportunity to consider them. The firm must not demand or accept any fees, charges or other sums from the customer, or undertake any action that commits the customer in any way to entering into a specific agreement, until:2222(a) 2the
MCOB 5.9.3RRP
(1) A SRB intermediary2must ensure that, on first making contact with a prospective SRB agreement seller, whether or not he is the firm'scustomer, who is proposing to enter into a regulated sale and rent back agreement with an unauthorised SRB agreement provider, it provides him with the written warning in (2) before he enters into any such agreement.2(2) The warning in (1) is that:(a) the agreement provider is not authorised or regulated by the FCA, and that key protections under
MCOB 5.9.5GRP
A person may enter into a regulated sale and rent back agreement as agreement provider without being regulated by the FCA (or an exempt person) if the person does not do so by way of business. However, a SRB intermediary should at all times be conscious of its obligations under Principle 6 (Customers' interests). Should the firm have any reason to believe or entertain any suspicions that the SRB agreement seller may be proposing to enter into a regulated sale and rent back agreement
PR 1.2.1UKRP

Sections 85 and 86 of the Act provide for when a prospectus approved by the FCA will be required:

85

(1)

It is unlawful for transferable securities to which this subsection applies to be offered to the public in the United Kingdom unless an approved prospectus has been made available to the public before the offer is made.

(2)

It is unlawful to request the admission of transferable securities to which this subsection applies to trading on a regulated market situated or operating in the United Kingdom unless an approved prospectus has been made available to the public before the request is made.

(3)

A person who contravenes subsection (1) or (2) is guilty of an offence and liable –

(a)

on summary conviction, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum or both;

(b)

on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or a fine or both.

(4)

A contravention of subsection (1) or (2) is actionable, at the suit of a person who suffers loss as a result of the contravention, subject to the defences and other incidents applying to actions for breach of statutory duty.

(5)

Subsection (1) applies to all transferable securities other than –

(a)

those listed in Schedule 11A;

(b)

such other transferable securities as may be specified in prospectus rules [see PR 1.2.2 R].

(6)

Subsection (2) applies to all transferable securities other than –

(a)

those listed in Part 1 of Schedule 11A;

(b)

such other transferable securities as may be specified in prospectus rules [see PR 1.2.3 R].

(7)

"Approved prospectus" means, in relation to transferable securities to which this section applies, a prospectus approved by the competent authority of the home State in relation to the issuer of the securities.

86

Exempt offers to the public

(1)

A person does not contravene section 85(1) if –

(a)

the offer is made to or directed at qualified investors only;

(b)

the offer is made to or directed at fewer than 1502 persons, other than qualified investors, per EEA State;

(c)

the minimum consideration which may be paid by any person for transferable securities acquired by him pursuant to the offer is at least 100,0003 euros (or an equivalent amount);

3

(d)

the transferable securities being offered are denominated in amounts of at least 100,0003 euros (or equivalent amounts);

33

(e)

the total consideration for the transferable securities being offered in the EEA states3 cannot exceed 100,000 euros (or an equivalent amount); or3

3

3(f)

the offer falls within subsection (1A).

3(1A)

An offer (“the current offer”) falls within this subsection where transferable securities are resold or placed through a financial intermediary where:

3(a)

the transferable securities have previously been the subject of one or more offers to the public;

3(b)

in respect of one or more of those previous offers, any of paragraphs (a) to (e) of subsection (1) applied;

3(c)

a prospectus is available for the securities which has been approved by the FCA and meets either of the conditions in subsection (1B);4 and

4

3(d)

the issuer or other person who was responsible for drawing up the prospectus has given written consent to the use of the prospectus for the purpose of the current offer.4

4(1B)

The conditions referred to in subsection (1A)(c) are:

(a)

that the prospectus was approved by the FCA no earlier than 12 months before the date the current offer is made, and is supplemented by every supplementary prospectus which was required to be submitted under section 87G; or

(b)

in the case of non-equity transferable securities falling within article 5(4)(b) of the prospectus directive, that the securities concerned have not ceased to be issued in a continuous or repeated manner.

(2)

Where -

(a)

a person who is not a qualified investor ("the client") has engaged a qualified investor falling within point (1) of Section 1 of Annex II to the markets in financial instruments directive3 to act as his agent; and

3

(b)

the terms on which the qualified investor is engaged enable him to make decisions concerning the acceptance of offers of transferable securities on the client's behalf without reference to the client,

an offer made to or directed at the qualified investor is not to be regarded for the purposes of subsection (1) as also having been made to or directed at the client.

(3)

For the purposes of subsection (1)(b), the making of an offer of transferable securities to –

(a)

trustees of a trust,

(b)

members of a partnership in their capacity as such, or

(c)

two or more persons jointly,

is to be treated as the making of an offer to a single person.

(4)

In determining whether subsection (1)(e) is satisfied in relation to an offer ("offer A"), offer A is to be taken together with any other offer of transferable securities of the same class made by the same person which –

(a)

was open at any time within the period of 12 months ending with the date on which offer A is first made; and

(b)

had previously satisfied subsection (1)(e).

(5)

For the purposes of this section, an amount (in relation to an amount denominated in euros) is an "equivalent amount" if it is an amount of equal value denominated wholly or partly in another currency or unit of account.

(6)

The equivalent is to be calculated at the latest practicable date before (but in any event not more than 3 working days before) the date on which the offer is first made.

(7)

"Qualified investor" in relation to an offer of transferable securities,3 means –

(a)

a person described in points (1) to (4) of Section I of Annex II to the markets in financial instruments directive, other than a person who, before the making of the offer, has agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II to that directive;3

3

(b)

a person who has made a request to one or more relevant firms to be treated as a professional client in accordance with Section II of Annex II to that directive and has not subsequently, but before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with that relevant firm (or each of those relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II to that directive;3

3

(c)

a person who is recognised as an eligible counterparty in accordance with article 24 of that directive and has not, before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II of that directive;3

3

3(d)

a person whom any relevant firm is authorised to continue to treat as a professional client in accordance with article 71(6) of that directive.

3(8)

In subsection (7) “relevant firm” means an investment firm or credit institution acting in connection with the offer.

3(9)

Investment firms and credit institutions must communicate their classification of their clients as being or not being qualified investors on request to an issuer, subject to complying with the Data Protection Act 1998 or any directly applicable EU legislation relating to data protection.

3(10)

In subsections (8) and (9) -

“credit institution” means -

(a) a credit institution authorised under the banking consolidation directive; or

(b) an institution which would satisfy the requirements for authorisation as a credit institution under that directive if it had its registered office (or if it does not have one, its head office) in an EEA State.
PR 1.2.2RRP
In accordance with section 85(5)(b) of the Act, section 85(1) of the Act does not apply to offers of the following types of transferable securities:(1) shares issued in substitution for shares of the same class already issued, if the issue of the new shares does not involve any increase in the issued capital;(2) transferable securities offered in connection with a takeover by means of an exchange offer, if a document is available containing information which is regarded by the
PR 1.2.3RRP
In accordance with section 85(6)(b) of the Act, section 85(2) of the Act does not apply to the admission to trading of the following types of transferable securities:(1) shares representing, over a period of 12 months, less than 10 per cent of the number of shares of the same class already admitted to trading on the same regulated market;(2) shares issued in substitution for shares of the same class already admitted to trading on the same regulated market, if the issue of the
SUP 4.3.8GRP
The FCA9 is concerned to ensure that every actuary appointed by a firm under PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act or for the purposes of PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, 6,9 has the necessary skill and experience to provide the firm with appropriate actuarial advice from a conduct perspective9. SUP 4.3.9 R to SUP 4.3.10 G set out the FCA’s9 rules and guidance aimed at achieving this.11
SUP 4.3.11RRP
A firm must not appoint under PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act or for the purposes of9 rule 6.1 of the PRA9 Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business,9 an actuary who is disqualified by the FCA10 under section 345 of the Act (Disciplinary measures: FCA) or the PRA under section 345A of the Act (Disciplinary measures: PRA10) from acting as an actuary either for that firm or for a relevant class of firm. 1181010
SUP 4.3.12GRP
If it appears to the FCA9 that an actuary1 has failed to comply with a duty imposed on him under the Act, it has9 the power to and10 may disqualify him under section 3459 of the Act. A list of actuaries who are disqualified may be found on the FCA10 website (http://www.fca.org.uk10).101011055110101010
LR 18.2.6GRP
The FCA may modify LR 18.2.5 R to allow partly paid securities if it is satisfied that their transferability is not restricted and investors have been provided with appropriate information to enable dealings in the securities to take place on an open and proper basis. [Note: Articles 46 and 54 CARD]
LR 18.2.7GRP
The FCA may, in exceptional circumstances, modify or dispense with LR 18.2.5 R where the issuer has the power to disapprove the transfer of securities if the FCA is satisfied that this power would not disturb the market in those securities.
LR 18.2.9GRP
The FCA may modify LR 18.2.8 R to accept a percentage lower than 25% if it considers that the market will operate properly with a lower percentage in view of the large number of certificates of the same class and the extent of their distribution to the public. For that purpose, the FCA may take into account certificates of the same class that are held (even though they are not listed) in states that are not EEA States. 1[Note: Article 48 CARD]
MIPRU 2.2.2RRP
The firm may allocate the responsibility for its insurance mediation activity or MCD credit intermediation activity54 to an approved person (or persons) who is:5(1) (if the firm is not a relevant authorised person): 5(a) performing:5(i) an FCA governing function; or5(ii) a PRA governing function;5(other than a person who is a5non-executive director of the firm5); or(b) performing5 the apportionment and oversight function; or(c) performing5 the significant management function in
MIPRU 2.2.3GRP
(1) Typically a firm will appoint a director who is an approved person of that firm5 to direct its insurance mediation activity or MCD credit intermediation activity45. A firm that is not a relevant authorised person may also appoint a person performing another FCA governing function or PRA governing function.5(1A) A firm should not appoint someone performing one of the FCA’s or PRA’s non-executive directorcontrolled functions or any other non-executive director.5(1B) Where5 responsibility
MIPRU 2.2.5GRP
The FCA will specify in the Financial Services Register the name of the persons to whom the responsibility for the firm'sinsurance mediation activity or MCD credit intermediation activity4 has been allocated. by inserting after the relevant controlled function the words "(insurance mediation)" or “(MCD intermediation)”.4 In the case of a sole trader, the FCA will specify in the Financial Services Register the name of the sole trader as the 'contact person' in the firm.
SYSC 19D.1.7GRP
(1) The dual-regulated firms Remuneration Code does not contain specific notification requirements. However, general circumstances in which the FCA expects to be notified by firms of matters relating to their compliance with requirements under the regulatory system are set out in SUP 15.3 (General notification requirements).(2) For remuneration matters in particular, those circumstances should take into account unregulated activities, as well as regulated activities and the activities
SYSC 19D.1.8GRP
The FCA's policy on individual guidance is set out in SUP 9. Firms should particularly note the policy on what the FCA considers to be a reasonable request for guidance (see SUP 9.2.5G). For example, where a firm is seeking guidance on a proposed remuneration structure, the FCA will expect the firm to provide a detailed analysis of how the structure complies with the dual-regulated firms Remuneration Code, including the general requirement for remuneration policies, procedures
LR 15.4.8RRP
Unless LR 15.4.8A R applies, a6closed-ended investment fund must :666166(1) submit any proposed material change to its published investment policy to the FCA for approval; and6(2) having obtained the FCA's approval, obtain the prior approval of its shareholders to any material change to its published investment policy.6
LR 15.4.8ARRP
6A closed-ended investment fund is not required to seek the FCA’s approval for a material change to its published investment policy if:(1) the change is proposed to enable the winding up of the closed-ended investment fund; and(2) the winding up: (a) is in accordance with the constitution of the closed-ended investment fund; and(b) will be submitted for approval by the shareholders of the closed-ended investment fund at the same time as the proposed material change to the investment
LR 15.4.28RRP
(1) 5A closed-ended investment fund is not required to comply with LR 9.2.23 R in so far as it relates to LR 9.2.2A R, LR 9.2.2E R and LR 9.2.2F R.(2) A closed-ended investment fund is not required to comply with LR 9.2.24 R to LR 9.2.25 R.
SUP 6.1.3AGRP
(1) 7In SUP 6 the "relevant regulator" is the regulator to which a firm with a Part 4A permission has made or can make (in accordance with SUP 6) an application to vary or cancel its Part 4A permission or to have imposed on it a new requirement or to vary or cancel any existing requirement (see SUP 6.2.3A G to SUP 6.2.3E G).(2) Where the PRA can only determine an application with the consent of the FCA, the FCA may request further information as if it were the relevant regulator.(3)
SUP 6.1.5GRP
This chapter also outlines the relevant regulator's powers to withdraw authorisation from a firm whose Part 4A permission7 has been cancelled at the firm's request.727
SUP 6.1.6GRP
7This chapter does not cover the FCA's use of its own-initiative variation power to vary or cancel a firm'sPart 4A permission or its own-initiative requirement power to impose, vary or cancel a requirement (see SUP 7 (Individual requirements) and EG 8 (Variation and cancellation of permission on the FCA's own initiative and intervention against incoming firms)).
COLL 6.5.2AGRP
4COLL 6.6A and COLL 6.6B set out additional FCArules and guidance applicable to the authorised fund manager and depositary of a UCITS scheme in relation to the appointment and duties of the depositary.
COLL 6.5.3RRP
(1) The directors (or director) of an ICVC must take all practicable steps to ensure the ICVC has at all times as its ACD a person who is qualified to act as ACD.(2) If the ICVC ceases to have any director, the depositary must exercise its powers, under the OEIC Regulations, to appoint a person to be an ACD of the ICVC.(3) For an ICVC that holds annual general meetings under the OEIC Regulations, the1 appointment of an ACD (other than the first ACD), under (1) or (2), must terminate
COLL 6.5.10RRP
(1) The depositary of an authorised fund may not retire voluntarily except upon the appointment of a new depositary.(2) The depositary of an authorised fund must not retire voluntarily unless, before its retirement, it has ensured that the new depositary has been informed of any circumstance of which the retiring depositary has informed the FCA.(3) When the depositary of an authorised fund wishes to retire or ceases to be an authorised person, the authorised fundmanager may, subject