Related provisions for SUP 11.7.1
241 - 260 of 624 items.
6SUP 3.3.2 R applies to every firm to which this section applies. That includes a firm which is under an obligation to appoint an auditor under an enactment other than the Act, such as the Companies Act 1985 or the Companies Act 2006, as appropriate. Such a firm is expected to wish to have a single auditor who is appointed to fulfil both obligations. SUP 3.3.2 R is made under section 137A of the Act (The FCA's general rules), in relation to such firms, and under section 340(1)
(1) Paragraph (2) applies to a firm which is not under an obligation to appoint an auditor imposed by an enactment other than the Act.(2) If a firm fails to appoint an auditor within 28 days of a vacancy arising, the appropriate regulator may appoint an auditor for it on the following terms:(a) the auditor to be remunerated by the firm on the basis agreed between the auditor and firm or, in the absence of agreement, on a reasonable basis; and(b) the auditor to hold office until
Another consequence of a breach of section 21 of the Act is that certain agreements could be unenforceable (see section 30 of the Act (Enforceability of agreements resulting from unlawful communications)). This applies to agreements entered into by a person as a customer as a consequence of a communication made in breach of section 21.
(1) Section 283A(1) (Master-feeder structures) of the Act, in implementation of article 59(1) of the UCITS Directive, provides that the operator of a UCITS scheme may not invest a higher proportion of scheme property in units of another UCITS than is permitted by rules made by the FCA implementing article 55 of the UCITS Directive, unless the investment is approved by the FCA in accordance with that section.(2) The FCA has implemented article 55(1) of the UCITS Directive in
(1) An application for approval of an investment in a master UCITS under section 283A of the Act must be accompanied by the following documents:(a) the instrument constituting the fund1 of the feeder UCITS and of the master UCITS;1(b) the prospectus and the key investor information referred to in COLL 4.7.2 R (Key investor information) of the feeder UCITS and of the master UCITS;(c) the master-feeder agreement or the internal conduct of business rules in accordance with COLL 11.3.2R
4The FCA also has measures available to it where it considers it is appropriate to take protective or remedial action. These include: (1) where a firm's continuing ability to meet the threshold conditions or where an approved person's or other individual’s1 fitness and propriety1 are called into question: (a) varying and/or cancelling of permission and the withdrawal of a firm’s authorisation (see chapter 8); and (b) the withdrawal of an individual’s status as an approved person
1BIPRU 1.3.10 G sets out the appropriate regulator approach to the granting of waivers. The conditions in BIPRU 9.5.1BD are minimum requirements. Satisfaction of those does not automatically mean the appropriate regulator will grant the relevant waiver. The appropriate regulator will in addition also apply the tests in section 138A (Modification or waiver of rules) of the Act.
1In the event that the appropriate regulator decides that the possible reduction in risk weighted exposure amounts which the originatorcredit institution would achieve by the securitisation referred to in BIPRU 9.5.1R (6) is not justified by a commensurate transfer of credit risk to third parties, it will use its powers under section 55J (Variation etc on the Authority's own initiative) of the Act to require the firm to increase its risk weight exposure amount to an amount commensurate
1However, there may be circumstances in which the FCA will choose to use the powers under section 382 or section 383 of the Act to apply to the court for an order for restitution against a firm. Those circumstances may include, for example, where: (1) the FCA wishes to combine an application for an order for restitution with other court action against the firm, for example, where it wishes to apply to the court for an injunction to prevent the firm breaching a relevant requirement11;
1The effect of sections 20 (Authorised persons acting without permission) and 39(4) (Exemption of appointed representatives) of the Act is that the regulated activities covered by an appointed representative's appointment need to:(1) fall within the scope of the principal's permission; or(2) be excluded from being regulated activities when carried on by the principal, for example because they fall within article 28 of the Regulated Activities Order (Arranging transactions to which
(1) 10If an appointed representative's scope of appointment is to include MCD credit intermediation activity, the principal must notify the FCA of the appointment before the appointed representative commences that activity (see SUP 12.7.1 R (1)).(2) An appointed representative must not commence an MCD credit intermediation activity until they are included on the Financial Services Register. (3) If an appointed representative's scope of appointment is to include MCD credit intermediation
(1) 8A tied agent that is an appointed representative may not start to act as a tied agent until it is included on the applicable register (section 39(1A) of the Act). If the tied agent is established in the UK, the register maintained by the FCA is the applicable register for these purposes. If the tied agent is established in another EEA State, it should consult section 39(1B) of the Act to determine the applicable register.(2) A UK MiFID investment firm that appoints an FCA
1Section 365(6) of the Act makes it clear that the FCA may petition for the compulsory winding up of a company even if it is already in voluntary winding up. This power is already available to creditors and contributories of companies in voluntary winding up. For example, the court can be asked to direct the liquidator to investigate a transaction which the company undertook before the winding up. In some circumstances, this power may be used in respect of partnerships (section
1Factors which the FCA will consider when it decides whether to use this power (in addition to the factors identified in paragraphs 13.5.1 to 13.6.3 in relation to the FCA's decisions to seek compulsory winding up) include: (1) whether the FCA's concerns can properly and effectively be met by seeking a specific direction under section 365(2) of the Act;
(2) whether the affairs of the company require independent investigation of the kind which follows a compulsory
1The exceptional circumstances referred to above may arise where the matters under investigation have become the subject of public concern, speculation or rumour. In this case it may be desirable for the FCA to make public the fact of its investigation in order to allay concern, or contain the speculation or rumour. Where the matter in question relates to a takeover bid, the FCA will discuss any announcement beforehand with the Takeover Panel. Any announcement will be subject
1The FCA will not normally publish details of the information found or conclusions reached during its investigations. In many cases, statutory restrictions on the disclosure of information obtained by the FCA in the course of exercising its functions are likely to prevent publication (see section 348 of the Act). In exceptional circumstances, and where it is not prevented from doing so, the FCA may publish details. Circumstances in which it may do so include those where the fact
A person who is concerned to know whether his proposed activities may require authorisation will need to consider the following questions (these questions are a summary of the issues to be considered and have been reproduced, in slightly fuller form, in the flowchart in PERG 4.18):(1) will I be carrying on my activities by way of business (see PERG 4.3.3 G (The business test))?(2) if so, will my activities relate to regulated mortgage contracts (see PERG 4.4 (What is a regulated
An unauthorised person who intends to carry on activities connected with mortgages will also need to comply with section 21 of the Act (Restrictions on financial promotion). This guidance does not cover financial promotions that relate to mortgages. Persons should refer to the general guidance on financial promotion in Appendix 1 to the Authorisation manual, PERG 8 (Financial promotion and related activities)) and, in particular, to PERG 8.17 (Financial promotions concerning agreements
If it appears to the appropriate regulator3 that an auditor of a firm has failed to comply with a duty imposed on him under the Act, it may have the power to and3 may disqualify him under section 345 or 345A, respectively,3 of the Act.1 A list of persons who are disqualified may be found on the FCA's3 website (www.fca.org.uk).3313333
8As a result of section 404B of the Act, if the subject matter of a complaint falls to be dealt with (or has properly been dealt with) under a consumer redress scheme, the Ombudsman will determine the complaint by reference to what, in the opinion of the Ombudsman, the redress determination under the consumer redress scheme should be or should have been, unless the complainant and the respondent agree that the complaint should not be dealt with in accordance with the consumer
The purpose of BIPRU 7.9 is to provide guidance on the appropriate regulator's policy for granting CAD 1 model waivers under section 138A of the Act (Modification or waiver of rules). The policy recognises that CAD 1 models may vary across firms but, as a minimum, the appropriate regulator will need to be satisfied:(1) about the quality of the internal controls and risk management relating to the model (see BIPRU 7.9.19G - BIPRU 7.9.23G for further details);(2) about the quality
No changes should be made to a CAD 1 model unless the change is not material. Material changes to a CAD 1 model will require a renewed waiver to be issued. Materiality is measured from the time that the waiver is granted or, if the waiver has been varied in accordance with section 138A of the Act, any later time that may be specified in the waiver for these purposes. If a firm is considering making material changes to its CAD 1 model, then it should notify the appropriate regulator
If the CAD 1 model ceases to meet the requirements of the waiver, the firm should notify the appropriate regulator at once. The appropriate regulator may then revoke the waiver unless it is varied in accordance with section 138A of the Act. If the CAD 1 model waiver contains conditions it is a condition of using the CAD 1 model approach that the firm should continue to comply with those conditions.
1132In accordance with article 11 of the Regulated Activities Amendment Order, the Ombudsman can also consider under the Compulsory Jurisdiction:(1) a relevant existing credit-related complaint referred to the Financial Ombudsman Service before 1 April 2014 which was formerly being dealt with under the Consumer Credit Jurisdiction; and(2) a relevant new credit-related complaint referred to the Financial Ombudsman Service on or after 1 April 2014 which relates to an act or omission
8As a result of section 404B(11) of the Act, the Ombudsman can also consider under the Compulsory Jurisdiction a complaint from a complainant who:(1) is not satisfied with a redress determination made by a respondent under a consumer redress scheme; or(2) considers that a respondent has failed to make a redress determination in accordance with a consumer redress scheme.
(1) The FCA expects that the majority of requests it will receive for the winding up of an authorised fund (under regulation 21(1) of the OEIC Regulations or under sections1 256 or 261W1 of the Act) or termination of a sub-fund will be from authorised fund managers and depositaries who consider that the AUT, ACS1, ICVC or sub-fund in question is no longer commercially viable.(2) It is in consumers' interests to minimise, as far as possible, the period between which the FCA receives
The information referred to in COLL 7.5.1 G is listed below:(1) the name of the authorised fund or sub-fund;(2) the size of the authorised fund or sub-fund;(3) the number of unitholders; (4) whether dealing in units has been suspended;(5) why the request is being made; (6) what consideration has been given to the authorised fund or sub-fund entering into a scheme of arrangement with another regulated collective investment scheme and the reasons why a scheme of arrangement is not
However, where there is a market, the FCA does not consider that the test in section 236(3)(b) would be met if the price the investor receives for his investment is wholly dependent on the market rather than specifically on net asset value. In the FCA's view, typical market pricing mechanisms introduce too many uncertainties to be able to form a basis for calculating the value of an investment (linked to net asset value) of the kind contemplated by the satisfaction test. As a
This chapter applies to an incoming firm or a UCITS qualifier only in respect of a top-up permission. An incoming firm or a UCITS qualifier should refer to SUP 14 (Variation of passport rights by incoming EEA firms and ending authorisation) for the procedures for changes to permission granted under Schedules 3, 4 or 5 of the Act.
(1) 7In SUP 6 the "relevant regulator" is the regulator to which a firm with a Part 4A permission has made or can make (in accordance with SUP 6) an application to vary or cancel its Part 4A permission or to have imposed on it a new requirement or to vary or cancel any existing requirement (see SUP 6.2.3A G to SUP 6.2.3E G).(2) Where the PRA can only determine an application with the consent of the FCA, the FCA may request further information as if it were the relevant regulator.(3)
(1) This chapter sets out the requirements that a person must follow in applying for an authorisation order for a scheme under regulation 12 of the OEIC Regulations (Applications for authorisation),2section 242 of the Act (Applications for authorisation of unit trust schemes) or section 261C of the Act (Applications for authorisation of contractual schemes)2.2(2) COLLG 3A (The FCA’s responsibilities under the Act) and COLLG 4A (The FCA’s responsibilities under the OEIC Regulations)
1An EEA UCITS management company that proposes to act as the authorised fund manager2 of an AUT, ACS or2ICVC that is a UCITS scheme, should be aware that it is required under paragraph 15A(1) of Schedule 3 to the Act to apply to the appropriate regulator for approval to do so. The form that the firm must use for this purpose is set out in SUP 13A Annex 3 R (EEA UCITS management companies: application for approval to manage a UCITS scheme established in the United Kingdom). In
In cases against individuals, including market abuse cases, the FCA3 may make a prohibition order under section 56 of the Act or withdraw an individual’s approval under section 63 of the Act, as well as impose a financial penalty. Such action by the FCA3 reflects the FCA's3 assessment of the individual’s fitness to perform regulated activity or suitability for a particular role, and does not affect the FCA's3 assessment of the appropriate financial penalty in relation to a breach.
2The FCA3 may withdraw a firm’s authorisation under section 33 of the Act, as well as impose a financial penalty. Such action by the FCA3 does not affect the FCA's3 assessment of the appropriate financial penalty in relation to a breach. However, the fact that the FCA3 has withdrawn a firm’s authorisation, as a result of which the firm may have less earning potential, may be relevant in assessing whether the penalty will cause the firm serious financial hardship.3333
If an approval is limited under MCOB 3A.4.6 R, and an unauthorised personcommunicates the financial promotion to persons not covered by the approval, the unauthorised person may commit an offence under section 21(1) of the Act (Restrictions on financial promotion). A firm giving a limited approval may wish to advise the unauthorised person accordingly.
A firm must not communicate or approve a financial promotion which relates to qualifying credit provided by an overseas person, unless:(1) the financial promotion of qualifying credit makes clear which firm has approved or communicated it and, where relevant, explains:(a) that the rules made under the Act for the protection of customers do not apply;(b) the extent and level to which the compensation scheme will be available or, if the scheme will not be available, a statement