Related provisions for CONC 8.7.7
521 - 540 of 587 items.
21The provisions in SYSC should be read in conjunction with GEN 2.2.23 R to GEN 2.2.25 G. In particular:(1) [deleted]9(2) Provisions made by the FCA, and by the9PRA in the PRA Rulebook,9 may be applied by both regulators to PRA-authorised persons. Such provisions are applied by each regulator to the extent of its powers and regulatory responsibilities.95(3) 5For Solvency II firms, the FCA considers that the requirements and guidance in Chapters 2, 3, 12 to 18 and 21 of SYSC are
Section 39 of the Act (Exemption of appointed representatives) exempts appointed representatives from the need to obtain authorisation (or, in relation to an appointed representative with a limited permission, provides that sections 20(1) and (1A) and 23(1A) of the Act do not apply in relation to the carrying on of the regulated activity which is comprised in the business for which his principal has accepted responsibility and for which he does not have limited permission)1. An
The notice required by CONC 7.17.4 R must contain the following information:(1) a form of wording to the effect that the notice is given in compliance with the rules because the borrower is behind with the sums payable under the agreement;(2) a form of wording encouraging the borrower to discuss the state of his account with the firm;(3) the date of the notice;(4) (a) the name, telephone number or numbers, the postal address, and, where appropriate, any other address of the firm;
(1) 1A Solvency II firm (including a large non-directive insurer)2 must have, and maintain, a governance map which satisfies the following conditions:(a) it complies, as applicable,2 with PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Insurance – Allocation of Responsibilities, 5.1 and 5.2, or PRA Rulebook: Large Non-Solvency II firms – Allocation of Responsibilities, 5.1 and 5.2,2 as if those rules had been made by the FCA; (b) it includes details relating to all persons carrying out a significant
4CONC 3 contains rules about financial promotions relating to credit-related regulated activity. CONC 3 does not apply, however, to the communication, or approval for communication, of a financial promotion to the extent it concerns qualifying credit. MCOB 3A5 applies to the communication or approval of a financial promotion of qualifying credit. This means that a financial promotion about credit will not usually be subject to both MCOB 3A5 and CONC 3 unless it is about secured
The amount of credit provided under an agreement for high-cost short-term credit for the purposes of CONC 5A.3.3 R (Initial cost cap) is the amount of credit outstanding on the day in question under the agreement, disregarding for the purposes of that rule the effect of the borrower discharging all or part of the borrower's indebtedness in accordance with section 94 of the CCA (right to complete payments ahead of time) by repayment of credit before the date provided for in the
(1) This section sets out the rules about management responsibilities maps for branches maintained in the United Kingdom by: (a) third-country relevant authorised persons (see SYSC 4.6.6R to SYSC 4.6.14G and SYSC 4.6.29G);(b) EEA relevant authorised persons (see SYSC 4.6.15R to SYSC 4.6.28G and SYSC 4.6.29G).(2) This section is not intended to extend the application of the common platform requirements to matters which are reserved by an EU instrument to the firm’sHome State regulator
Some of the distinguishing features of notices given under enactments other than the Act are as follows: (1) [deleted]66(2) [deleted]66(3) Friendly Societies Act 1992, section 58A1: The warning notice and decision notice must set out the terms of the direction which the FCA6 proposes or has decided to give and any specification of when the friendly society is to comply with it. A decision notice given under section 58A(3) must give an indication of the society's right, given by
(1) Subject to (2), a CASS debt management firm must make and retain an appropriate record of the person to whom responsibility is allocated in accordance with, as applicable, CASS 11.3.1 R, CASS 11.3.2 R, and CASS 11.3.4 R.(2) A CASS small debt management firm must make and retain such a record only where it allocates responsibility to a person other than the person in that firm who performs the compliance oversight function.(3) A CASS debt management firm must ensure that a
In assessing the threshold conditions set out in paragraphs 2C and 3B of Schedule 6 to the Act6, factors which the FCA6 will take into consideration include, among other things, whether: 6(1) it is likely that the FCA6 will receive adequate information from the firm, and those persons with whom the firm has close links, to enable it to determine whether the firm is complying with the requirements and standards under the regulatory system for which the FCA is responsible6 and to
The aspects of complaint handling dealt with in this appendix are how the firm should:(1) assess a complaint in order to establish whether the firm's conduct of the sale failed to comply with the rules, or was otherwise in breach of the duty of care or any other requirement of the general law (taking into account relevant materials published by the FCA, other relevant regulators, the Financial Ombudsman Service and former schemes). In this appendix this is referred to as a "breach
(1) If a scheme of arrangement is entered into in relation to an authorised fund ("transferor fund") or a sub-fund of a scheme which is an umbrella ("transferor sub-fund"), an authorised fund manager must ensure that the unitholders of the transferor fund or sub-fund do not become unitholders of units in a collective investment scheme other than a regulated collective investment scheme.(2) For a UCITS scheme or a sub-fund of a UCITS scheme, (1) applies as if the reference to a
(1) It is an offence for a person carrying on the business of debt counselling, debt adjusting or providing credit information services to canvass its services off trade premises under section 154 of the CCA. The definition of canvassing in section 153 of the CCA would include an unsolicited personal visit to a customer's home. [Note: paragraph 3.13 of DMG](2) Where a long telephone call is required, the firm should ensure the call is not made on a premium rate number.(3) It is
Where a UK recognised body is to circulate any notice or other document proposing any amendment to its memorandum or articles of association (or other similar agreement or document relating to its constitution) to:(1) its shareholders (or any group or class of them); or(2) its members (or any group or class of them); or(3) any other group or class of persons which has the power to make that amendment or whose consent or approval is required before it may be made;that UK recognised
There are other pre-contract information requirements outside this chapter, including:(1) for financial promotions, inthe financial promotion rules;55(2) for designated investment business, inCOBS 8 (Client agreements), COBS 5 (Distance Communications), COBS 6 (Information about the firm, its services and remuneration), COBS 13 and 14 (which relate to product information)5 and CASS (Client assets);5(3) for non-investment insurance contracts3, distance communication requirements
(1) This rule applies to a closed-ended investment fund that has no executive directors.(2) A closed-ended investment fund's statement required by LR 9.8.6R (6) need not include details about the following principles and provisions of the UK Corporate Governance Code3 except to the extent that those principles or provisions relate specifically to non-executive directors:3(a) Principle D.12 (including Code Provisions D.1.12 to D.1.5):2 and222(b) Principle D.22 (including Code Provisions
(1) 1A firm must not enter into arrangements for securities financing transactions in respect of
safe custody assets2
held by it on behalf of a client or otherwise use such
safe custody assets2
for its own account or the account of another client of the firm, unless:22(a) the client has given express prior consent to the use of the
safe custody assets2
on specified terms; and2(b) the use of that client'ssafe custody assets2
is restricted to the specified terms to which the
Section 351A (Disclosure under the UCITS directive) of the Act provides that where a trustee of an AUT or the depositary of an ACS1 which is a master UCITS or a feeder UCITS, or any person acting on their behalf, makes a disclosure to comply with rules implementing Chapter VIII of the UCITS Directive, that disclosure is not to be taken as a contravention of any duty to which the person making the disclosure is subject. The OEIC Regulations (see regulation 83A) contain corresponding