Related provisions for BIPRU 11.5.21

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MAR 5.3.8RRP
1Where a transferable security, which has been admitted to trading on a regulated market, is also traded on an MTF without the consent of the issuer, the firm operating the MTF must not make the issuer subject to any obligation relating to initial, ongoing or ad hoc financial disclosure with regard to that MTF.[Note: Article 14(6) of MiFID]
EG 19.5.5RP
1Under Part III RIPA the FCA is able to require a person who holds “protected” electronic information (that is, information which is encrypted) to put that information into an intelligible form and, where the person has a key to the encrypted information, to require the person to disclose the key so that the data may be put into an intelligible form. The FCA may impose such a requirement where it is necessary for the purpose of preventing or detecting crime or where it is necessary
COLL 11.4.5GRP
Section 351A (Disclosure under the UCITS directive) of the Act provides that where a trustee of an AUT or the depositary of an ACS1 which is a master UCITS or a feeder UCITS, or any person acting on their behalf, makes a disclosure to comply with rules implementing Chapter VIII of the UCITS Directive, that disclosure is not to be taken as a contravention of any duty to which the person making the disclosure is subject. The OEIC Regulations (see regulation 83A) contain corresponding
SUP 10A.14.19GRP
Failing to disclose relevant information to the FCA may be a criminal offence under section 398 of the Act.
ICOBS 7.2.10GRP
A consumer's notice to cancel a distance contract may also operate to cancel any attached contract which is also a distance financial services contract. This is unless the consumer gives notice that cancellation of the contract is not to operate to cancel the attached contract. (See the Distance Marketing Regulations.) Where relevant, this should be disclosed to the consumer along with other information on cancellation.
COBS 15.5.4GRP
When a consumer cancels a distance contract under this chapter, his notice may also operate to cancel any attached contract which is also a distance financial services contract unless the consumer gives notice that cancellation of the main contract is not to operate to cancel the attached contract (see regulation 12 of the Distance Marketing Regulations). Where relevant, this should be disclosed to the consumer along with other information on cancellation.
SUP 13.4.7GRP
10A UK firm seeking to provide collective portfolio management services in another EEA State under the freedom to provide cross border services, is advised that it will need to refer to the rules of the competent authority of the UCITS Home State implementing article 20 of the UCITS Directive which will require it to submit to that competent authority information relating to its depositary agreement and certain delegation arrangements.
SUP 2.4.5GRP
1The FCA may use the information it obtains from mystery shopping in support of both its supervisory functions and its enforcement functions. This includes sharing any information so obtained with firms and approved persons.
COBS 21.2.4BGRP
To comply with the requirements of COBS 21.2.4A R, a firm should:(1) disclose to policyholders the implications of any credit-risk exposure they may face in relation to the solvency of the reinsurer; and(2) suitably monitor the way the reinsurer manages the business in order to discharge its continuing responsibilities to policyholders.
MCOB 6.1.4RRP
In relation to a lifetime mortgage3, this chapter, MCOB 6, is modified by MCOB 9 (Equity release3: product disclosure).233
BIPRU 3.3.5GRP
The list of eligible ECAIs is published on the appropriate regulator website. When the appropriate regulator recognises an ECAI as an eligible ECAI, it publishes that decision by amending the list of eligible ECAIs on the appropriate regulator website to include the name of the eligible ECAI. When the appropriate regulator determines that the recognition of an ECAI should be revoked, it publishes that decision by deleting the name of the ECAI from the list on the appropriate regulator
SYSC 10.2.3GRP
SYSC 10.2.2 R is made under section 137P6 of the Act (Control of information rules). It has the following effect:6(1) acting in conformity with SYSC 10.2.2 R (1) provides a defence against proceedings brought under sections89(2), 90(1) and 91(1) 4of the Financial Services Act 2012 (Misleading statements, Misleading impressions and Misleading statements etc. in relation to benchmarks) - see sections 89(3)(b), 90(9)(c) and 91(3)(b).444(2) behaviour in conformity with SYSC 10.2.2
BIPRU 1.1.3GRP
In the main BIPRU only applies to a collective portfolio management investment firm7 in respect of designated investment business (excluding managing an AIF and managing a UCITS).7 However BIPRU 2.2 (Internal capital adequacy standards), BIPRU 2.3 (Interest rate risk in the non-trading book), BIPRU 8 (Group risk - consolidation) and BIPRU 11 (Disclosure) apply to the whole of its business.77
CONC 8.9.4RRP
A firm must take reasonable steps, where it has agreed to accept sales leads from a lead generator for debt counselling or debt adjusting or providing credit information services, to ensure that the lead generator: (1) where it does not have a Part 4A permission for debt counselling and is not an appointed representative of a firm with such permission, does not carry on debt counselling in obtaining or passing on sales leads to the firm;(2) where it carries on debt counselling,
MCOB 2.3.8GRP
(1) Quantification of any material inducement offered by the mortgage lender or reversion provider2 supports the disclosure requirements elsewhere in MCOB. Further guidance on the disclosure of any inducement in cash terms is provided in MCOB 5.6.118 G for regulated mortgage contracts other than lifetime mortgages, MCOB 9.4.124 G for lifetime mortgages and MCOB 9.4.173 G for home reversion plans.2(1A) Quantification of any material inducement offered by a SRB agreement provider
COLL 8.5.14GRP
An affected person is not liable to account to another affected person or to the unitholders of the scheme for any profits or benefits it makes or receives that are made or derived from or in connection with:(1) dealings in the units of a scheme; or(2) any transaction in scheme property; or(3) the supply of services to the scheme;where disclosure of the non-accountability has been made in the prospectus of the scheme.
REC 3.15.2ARRP
1When a UK RIE suspends trading on a regulated market in any financial instrument, it must immediately give the FCA3notice of that event and relevant information including particulars of that financial instrument and the reasons for the action taken. [Note: Article 41(1), paragraph 2 of MiFID]3
TC App 5.1.1GRP

1Introduction

1.

TC Appendix 4E contains a list of appropriate qualifications for the purposes of TC 2.1.10 E.

2.

This Appendix sets out:

(1)

the criteria which the FCA may take into account when assessing a qualification provider; and

(2)

the information the FCA will expect the qualification provider to provide if it asks the FCA to add a qualification to the list of appropriate qualifications in TC Appendix 4 E.

Criteria for assessing a qualification provider

3.

The FCA will expect the qualification provider of an appropriate qualification to have, in the FCA's opinion:

(1)

assessors and qualification developers who are trained and qualified;

(2)

valid, reliable and robust assessment methods;

(3)

robust governance and a clear separation of function between its qualification services and any other services it performs, including effective procedures for managing any conflicts of interest;

(4)

procedures for reviewing and refreshing its syllabus and question banks to ensure that they are relevant and up to date;

(5)

robust and credible procedures for assessing a candidate's demonstration of the learning outcomes specified in the relevant examination standards;

(6)

robust arrangements for contingency and business continuity planning in relation to its qualification services;

(7)

appropriate records management procedures in relation to its qualification services;

(8)

procedures for dealing with inappropriate conduct by candidates, for example, attempting to obtain or obtaining qualifications dishonestly;

(9)

robust procedures for the setting of assessments and marking of results; and

(10)

adequate resources in order to be financially viable.

Information about the qualification to be provided to the FCA

4.

If a qualification provider asks the FCA to add a qualification to the list of appropriate qualifications in TC Appendix 4 E, the FCA will expect the qualification provider to:

(1)

where relevant, specify the qualifications framework within which the qualification is placed;

(2)

specify the activity in TC Appendix 1 to which the qualification relates;

(3)

set out the recommended prior knowledge, attainment or experience for candidates;

(4)

where relevant, set out the exemption policy for a candidate's prior learning or achievement;

(5)

provide the relevant learning materials to the FCA together with an explanation of how those learning materials correspond to the content of the most recent examination standards. Any content of the examination standards which has been excluded from the learning materials must be justified;

(6)

where applicable, explain how grading is applied;

(7)

where applicable, explain the provider's rules of combination;

(8)

provide details of expected learning hours or any other similar arrangements;

(9)

where applicable, specify the level of the overall qualification with reference to the relevant qualification framework or, if there is no relevant qualification framework, the European Qualifications Framework and the percentage of the qualification at that level, as well as the percentages and the levels for the remainder of the qualification;

(10)

provide details of any credit for prior learning included in the qualification together with an explanation of how it meets the most recent examination standards; and

(11)

provide an explanation of how the qualification compares in quality and standard to other similar qualifications.

Information about the qualification provider to be provided to the FCA

5.

When considering whether to include or retain a qualification in the list of appropriate qualifications, the FCA may consider, where relevant:

(1)

whether the qualification provider has in place suitable arrangements for:

(a)

meeting its statutory duties in relation to equality and diversity; and

(b)

reducing barriers to learning, for example, for candidates with learning difficulties;

(2)

any concerns, issues or investigations which have been raised by the qualification provider's qualifications regulator;

(3)

the annual pass rates of each of the relevant qualifications;

(4)

the quality of the service the qualification provider provides to candidates in relation to qualifications and its complaints procedures;

(5)

how the qualification provider maintains its qualifications to ensure they remain comparable to other qualifications in the same sector; and

(6)

whether the qualification provider gives candidates reasonable notice of any syllabus change, change in method of assessment or pass standards;

(7)

information supporting the criteria in TC Appendix 5G paragraph 3.
SUP 12.8.3RRP
If a contract with an appointed representative is terminated, or if it is amended in a way which gives rise to a requirement to notify under SUP 12.8.1R, a firm must take all reasonable steps to ensure that:(1) if the termination is by the firm, the appointed representative is notified in writing before, or if not possible, immediately on, the termination of the contract and informed that it will no longer be an exempt person for the purpose of the Act because of the contract
DISP 3.5.9RRP
15The Ombudsman may:(1) exclude evidence that would otherwise be admissible in a court or include evidence that would not be admissible in a court;(2) accept information in confidence (so that only an edited version, summary or description is disclosed to the other party) where he considers it appropriate;(3) reach a decision on the basis of what has been supplied and take account of the failure by a party to provide information requested; and(4) treat the complaint as withdrawn