Related provisions for MCOB 6A.3.12

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To access the FCA Handbook Archive choose a date between 1 January 2001 and 31 December 2004 (From field only).

MCOB 5.5.16RRP
Where MCOB 5.5.15 R(4) applies:(1) a firm must ask the customer relevant questions about his credit history or obtain information on his credit record from a credit reference agency;(2) a credit reference agency must not be used unless:(a) it would be quicker than asking the customer the relevant questions about his credit history; or(b) the customer is not able to provide sufficient information on his credit history.
SYSC 4.9.6GRP
The information and material in SYSC 4.9.4R that should be made available includes details:(1) about unresolved or possible breaches of the requirements of the regulatory system; and(2) of any unresolved concerns expressed by the FCA, the PRA or another regulatory body.
COLL 7.7.6GRP
(1) The requirements and the process which must be followed to give effect to a proposal for a UCITS merger as specified by Chapter VI of the UCITS Directive (see articles 37 to 48) have been implemented in the United Kingdom by the provisions of Part 4 of the UCITS Regulations 2011. The main features of the regime as set out in those provisions include:(a) the different types of merger operation that will be recognised for a UCITS merger;(b) the need for the FCA to give prior
CONC 8.3.5GRP
The information required by CONC 8.3.4 R should be provided leaving sufficient time for the customer (taking into account the complexity of the information and the customer's financial position) to consider it before having to make a decision on the appropriate course of action.
REC 2A.3.2GRP

The guidance in relation to the recognition requirements in the sections of REC 2 listed in Column A of the table below applies to an RAP in relation to the equivalent RAP recognition requirements listed in Column C and (if shown) with the modifications in Column B.

Table: Guidance on RAP recognition requirements

Column A

REC 2 guidance which applies to an RAP

Column B

Modification to REC 2 guidance for an RAP

Column C

Relevant RAP recognition requirement

REC 2.2.2 G to REC 2.2.7 G (Relevant circumstances and Outsourcing)

Reg 13

REC 2.3.3 G to REC 2.3.9 G (Financial resources)

Reg 14

REC 2.4.3 G to REC 2.4.6 G (Suitability)

In addition to the matters set out in REC 2.4.3 G to REC 2.4.6 G, the FCA3 will have regard to whether a key individual has been allocated responsibility for overseeing the auction platform of the UK recognised body.

3

Reg 15

REC 2.5.3 G to REC 2.5.20 G (Systems and controls and conflicts) and REC 2.5A (Guidance on Public Interest Disclosure Act: Whistleblowing)

Reg 16 and 17(2)(f)1

REC 2.6.26 G to REC 2.6.34 G (Safeguards for investors)

Reg 17

REC 2.7.3 G to REC 2.7.4 G (Access to facilities)

The FCA3 shall have regard to whether an RAP provides access to bid at auctions only to those persons eligible to bid under article 18 of the auction regulation.

3

Reg 17(2)(a) and1 20

REC 2.8.3 G to REC 2.8.4 G (Settlement and clearing services)

Reg 17(2)(d) and 21

REC 2.9.3 G to REC 2.9.4 G (Transaction recording)

Reg 17(2)(e)

REC 2.10.3 G to REC 2.10.4 G (Financial crime and market abuse)

Reg 17(2)(g)

REC 2.11.3 G to REC 2.11.4 G (Custody)

REC 2.11.4 G is replaced with the following for an RAP:

Where an RAP arranges for other persons to provide services for the safeguarding and administration services of assets belonging to users of its facilities, it will also need to satisfy the RAP recognition requirement in regulation 17(2)(h) of the RAP regulations (see REC 2A.2.1 UK).

Reg 17(2)(h)

REC 2.12.11 G to REC 2.12.12 G (Availability of relevant information)

REC 2.12.11 G to REC 2.12.12 G are replaced with the following for an RAP:

REC 2.12.11 G

In determining whether appropriate arrangements have been made to make relevant information available to persons engaged in dealing in emissions auction products2 the FCA3 may have regard to:

(1) the extent to which auction bidders are able to obtain information in a timely fashion about the terms of those emissions auction products2 and the terms on which they will be auctioned, either through accepted channels for dissemination of information or through other regularly and widely accessible communication media;

(2) what restrictions, if any, there are on the dissemination of relevant information to auction bidders; and

(3) whether relevant information is, or can be, kept to restricted groups of persons in such a way as to facilitate or encourage market abuse.

REC 2.12.12 G

An RAP does not need to maintain its own arrangements for providing information on the terms of emissions auction products2 to auction bidders where it has made adequate arrangements for other persons to do so on its behalf or there are other effective and reliable arrangements for this purpose.

2322

Reg 17(2)(c)

REC 2.13.3 G to REC 2.13.6 G (Promotion and maintenance of standards)

Reg 18

REC 2.14.3 G to REC 2.14.6 G (Rules and consultation)

Reg 19

REC 2.15.3 G to REC 2.15.6 G (Discipline)

Reg 22

REC 2.16.3 G to REC 2.16.4 G (Complaints)

Reg 23
MCOB 4.8A.14RRP
A firm must not enter into or arrange an execution-only sale for a regulated mortgage contract unless, except as provided in MCOB 4.8A.15 R:(1) for a new regulated mortgage contract not falling within MCOB 4.8A.10 R, the customer has identified the regulated mortgage contract he wishes to purchase, specifying to the firm at least the following information:(a) the name of the mortgage lender;(b) the rate of interest;(c) the interest rate type (that is, whether fixed, variable or
BIPRU 12.8.19GRP
The appropriate regulator will wish to ensure that it has adequate data at the time of consideration of the intra-group liquidity modification application and, if the application is granted, on a continuing basis thereafter, about the liquidity position of any group entity on which the applicant firm proposes to rely for liquidity purposes. It is therefore likely that an applicant firm will be asked to provide as part of its application relevant liquidity data items populated
TC 2.1.10AGRP
16TC Appendix 5G sets out:(1) the criteria which the FCA may take into account when assessing a qualification provider; and(2) the information the FCA will expect the qualification provider to provide if it asks the FCA to add a qualification to the list of appropriate qualifications in TC Appendix 4E.
CONC 6.8.5GRP
(1) An individual does not need to refer to the right under section 155 of the CCA in order to be entitled to a refund.(2) A firm should respond promptly to a request for a refund. Firms are reminded of the rule in CONC 11.1.12R to return sums without undue delay, and within 30 calendar days, on cancellation of a distance contract.4(3) In circumstances where individuals request refunds and the firm knows, or ought to know, that agreements to which section 155 applies would not
SUP 6.4.5DRP
(1) Subject to (1A), a 11firm other than a credit union wishing to cancel its Part 4A permission, must apply online at the appropriate regulator website using the form specified on the ONA12 system.99112412(1A) An FCA-authorised person wishing to cancel its Part 4A permission which covers only credit-related regulated activities must submit any form, notice or application by using the form in SUP 6 Annex 6 and submitting it in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G
MCOB 4.10.5CGRP
3A firm should take reasonable steps to obtain from a customer all information likely to be relevant for the purposes of MCOB 4.10.5A R to MCOB 4.10.9A R.
MCOB 6.4.6RRP
In adapting and revising the illustration that is part of the offer document in accordance with MCOB 6.4.4 R(1) a firm must:(1) avoid amending the format of the information required by MCOB 5.6 (Content of illustrations) where possible, since this could result in the illustration in the offer document being difficult to compare with the illustration originally provided to the customer in accordance with MCOB 5.5.1 R;(2) use, where possible, the same headings, ordering of information,
SUP 12.9.5RRP
2If a UK MiFID investment firm appoints an EEA tied agent this section applies to that firm as though the EEA tied agent were an appointed representative.
COLL 6.6B.11RRP
A depositary appointed under COLL 6.6A.8R(3) must: (1) ensure that it has the infrastructure necessary to keep in custody UCITS custodial assets that can be registered in a financial instruments account opened in the depositary’s books; (2) establish adequate policies and procedures sufficient to ensure the compliance of the depositary, including its managers and employees, with its obligations under the regulatory system; (3) have: (a) sound administrative and accounting procedures
SYSC 5.1.8GRP
The effective segregation of duties is an important element in the internal controls of a firm in the prudential context. In particular, it helps to ensure that no one individual is completely free to commit a firm's assets or incur liabilities on its behalf. Segregation can also help to ensure that a firm'sgoverning body receives objective and accurate information on financial performance, the risks faced by the firm and the adequacy of its systems.
SUP 16.8.2GRP
1The purpose of this section is to enable information on the persistency of life policies and data on stakeholder pensions to be prepared and provided to the FCA11 in a standard format. This information is used in the monitoring of firms both individually and collectively.11
FEES 4.3.1RRP
The periodic fee payable by a firm (except an AIFM qualifier,13ICVC or a UCITS qualifier) is:(1) each periodic fee applicable to it calculated in accordance with FEES 4.3.3 R, using information obtained in accordance with FEES 4.4; plus77(1A) any periodic fee applicable to it calculated in accordance with FEES 4.3.3A R using information relating to its UK business obtained in accordance with FEES 4.4 (or by other means in the case of the Bank of England); less7(2) any deductions
SYSC 4.3A.1RRP
1A CRR firm must ensure that the management body defines, oversees and is accountable for the implementation of governance arrangements that ensure effective and prudent management of the firm, including the segregation of duties in the organisation and the prevention of conflicts of interest. The firm must ensure that the management body:(1) has overall responsibility for the firm;(2) approves and oversees implementation of the firm's strategic objectives, risk strategy and