Related provisions for DTR 8.4.17
61 - 80 of 281 items.
(1) 3A firm must make and retain a record:(a) of the customer information, including that relating to the customer's needs and circumstances that it has obtained for the purposes of MCOB 4.10.5D R; (b) that explains why the firm has concluded that any advice given to a customer complies with MCOB 4.10.5A R and satisfies the suitability requirement in MCOB 4.10.5DR (1); and(c) of any advice which the customer has rejected, including the reasons why it was rejected and details of
(1) Units in an ICVC are issued or cancelled by the ACD making a record of the issue or cancellation and of the number of the units of each class concerned, and cannot be issued or cancelled in any other manner, unless COLL 3.2.6R (11) (Table: contents of the instrument constituting the fund8) applies.8(2) The time of the issue or cancellation under (1) is the time when the record is made.
Explanatory table: This table belongs to COLL 6.2.2 G (4) (Purpose).
Correction of box management errors |
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1 |
Controls by authorised fund managers |
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An authorised fund manager needs to be able to demonstrate that it has effective controls over: |
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(1) |
its calculations of what units are owned by it (its 'box'); and |
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(2) |
compliance with COLL 6.2.8 R which is intended to prevent a negative box. |
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2 |
Controls by depositaries |
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(1) |
Under COLL 6.6.4 (General duties of the depositary), a depositary should take reasonable care to ensure that a scheme2 is managed in accordance with COLL 6.2 (Dealing) and COLL 6.3 (Pricing and valuation). |
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(2) |
A depositary should therefore make a regular assessment of the authorised fund manager's box management procedures (including supporting systems) and controls. This should include reviewing the authorised fund manager's controls and procedures when the depositary assumes office, on any significant change and on a regular basis, to ensure that a series of otherwise minor changes do not have a cumulative and a significant effect on the accuracy of the controls and procedures. |
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3 |
Recording and reporting of box management errors |
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(1) |
An authorised fund manager should record all errors which result in a breach of COLL 6.2.8 R (Controls over the issue and cancellation of units) and as soon as an error is discovered, the authorised fund manager should report the fact to the depositary, together with details of the action taken, or to be taken, to avoid repetition of the error. |
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(2) |
A depositary should report material box management errors to the FCA immediately. Materiality should be determined by taking into account a number of factors including:
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(3) |
A depositary should also make a return to the FCA (in the manner prescribed by SUP 16.6.8 R) on a quarterly basis. |
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4Reasonable steps to monitor the maximum allowable include:(1) regularly reviewing the register; and(2) taking reasonable steps to ensure that unitholders are kept informed of the requirement that no body corporate may hold more than 10% of the net asset value of a property authorised investment fund.
The design and results of a firm's reverse stress test must be documented and reviewed and approved at least annually by the firm's senior management or governing body. A firm must update its reverse stress test more frequently if it is appropriate to do so in the light of substantial changes in the market or in macroeconomic conditions.
Reverse stress testing should be appropriate to the nature, size and complexity of the firm's business and of the risks it bears. Where reverse stress testing reveals that a firm's risk of business failure is unacceptably high, the firm should devise realistic measures to prevent or mitigate the risk of business failure, taking into account the time that the firm would have to react to these events and implement those measures. As part of these measures, a firm should consider
1Some themes or issues are common to any discussion about the potential use or value of a report to the FCA. These include: (1) to what extent the FCA will be able to rely on the report in any subsequent enforcement proceedings; (2) to what extent the FCA will have access to the underlying evidence or information that was relied upon in producing the report; (3) where legal privilege or other professional confidentiality is claimed over any material gathered or generated in the
Money held in each client bank account of the firm must be treated as pooled and:(1) any shortfall in client money held, or which should have been held, in client bank accounts, that has arisen as a result of the failure of the approved bank, must be borne by all clients whose client money is held in a client bank account of the firm, rateably in accordance with their entitlements to the pool;(2) a new client money entitlement must be calculated for each client by the firm, to
(1) 1A firm must ensure that every prime brokerage agreement that includes its right to use safe custody assets for its own account includes a disclosure annex.(2) A firm must ensure that the disclosure annex sets out a summary of the key provisions within the prime brokerage agreement permitting the use of safe custody assets, including:(a) the contractual limit, if any, on the safe custody assets which a prime brokerage firm is permitted to use;(b) all related contractual definitions
(1) Principle 10 (Clients’ assets) requires a firm to arrange adequate protection for client's assets when it is responsible for them. As part of these protections, the custody rules require a firm to take appropriate steps to protect safe custody assets for which it is responsible.(2) Subject to paragraph (3), a 3prime brokerage firm should not enter into “right to use arrangements” for a client'ssafe custody assets unless:13(a) in the case of a CASS small firm or a firm to
A firm must provide to the Takeover Panel:(1) any information and documents in its possession or under its control which the Takeover Panel requests to enable the Takeover Panel to perform its functions; and(2) such assistance as the Takeover Panel requests and as the firm is reasonably able to provide to enable the Takeover Panel to perform its functions.
A firm in relation to a customer with whom it has entered into a debt management plan must: (1) maintain contact with the customer; [Note: paragraph 3.44 of DMG](2) regularly monitor and review the financial position and circumstances of the customer; [Note: paragraph 3.44 of DMG](3) adapt the debt management plan to take into account relevant changes in the financial position and circumstances of the customer;[Note: paragraph 3.44 of DMG](4) inform the customer without delay
(1) Evidence that there may have been a material change in a customer's financial circumstances is likely to include where a customer who has not previously missed payments under a debt management plan misses such payments. [Note: paragraph 3.45ci of DMG](2) Where the firm informs a customer of the outcome of a review of a debt management plan, it should seek to discuss with the customer any changes to the plan or to the firm's service at the earliest reasonably opportunity. [Note:
(1) A listed company must present all financial information that is disclosed in a class 1 circular in a form that is consistent with the accounting policies adopted in its own latest annual consolidated accounts.(2) The requirement set out in (1) does not apply when financial information is presented in accordance with:22(a) DTR 4.2.6 R, in relation only to financial information for the listed company presented for periods after the end of its last published annual accounts;
In complying with LR 13.5.6 R a listed company should:(1) state whether the financial information was extracted from accounts, internal financial accounting records, internal management accounting records, an external or other source;(2) state whether financial information that was extracted from audited accounts was extracted without material adjustment; and(3) indicate which aspects of the financial information relate to:(a) historical financial information;(b) forecast or estimated
(1) 2In the case of a class 1 disposal, a financial information table must include for the target:(a) the last annual consolidated balance sheet; (b) the consolidated income statements for the last three years drawn up to at least the level of profit or loss for the period; and(c) the consolidated balance sheet and consolidated income statement (drawn up to at least the level of profit or loss for the period) at the issuer's interim balance sheet date if the issuer has published
Where a firm uses
safe custody assets2
as permitted in this section, the records of the firm must include details of the client on whose instructions the use of the
safe custody assets2
has been effected, as well as the number of
safe custody assets2
used belonging to each client who has given consent, so as to enable the correct allocation of any loss.[Note: article 19(2) of the MiFID implementing Directive]222
A firm must make, and retain for an appropriate period, a record of:(1) the methods and assumptions used in establishing its mathematical reserves, including the margins for adverse deviation, and the reasons for their use; and(2) the nature of, reasons for, and effect of, any change in approach, including the amount by which the change in approach increases or decreases its mathematical reserves.
7For the purposes of INSPRU 1.2.20 R, records should be maintained for7 a period of longer than three years7 for a firm'slong-term insurance business. In determining an appropriate period, a firm should have regard to:(1) [deleted]7(2) the nature and term of the firm's long-term insurance business; and(3) any additional provisions or statutory requirements applicable to the firm or its records.
Where the option offers a choice between two non-discretionary financial benefits (such as between a guaranteed cash sum or a guaranteed annuity value, or between a unit value and a maturity guarantee) and where there is a wide range of possible outcomes, the firm should normally model such liabilities stochastically. In carrying out such modelling firms should take into account the likely choices to be made by policyholders in each scenario. Firms should make and retain a record
23A relevant benefit derived from a corporate event may only be brought to account if the firm is able to demonstrate, with written records created at the time of the advice, that:(1) The firm foresaw the prospect of the event and the benefit;(2) The firm's advice included a statement recommending the particular policy because of the possibility of the benefit in question; and(3) The statement was a material factor in the context of the advice and the decision to invest.
23If a firm considers that it can meet this requirement, the firm should by letter explain clearly to the complainant the reasons why it proposes that the benefit should not be treated as a windfall and should be taken into account. The firm should provide the complainant with copies of the relevant documents.
(1) The authorised fund manager must manage the scheme in accordance with:(a) the instrument constituting the fund;1212(b) the rules in this sourcebook;(c) the most recently published prospectus; and(d) for an ICVC, the OEIC Regulations.(2) The authorised fund manager must carry out such functions as are necessary to ensure compliance with the rules in this sourcebook that impose obligations on the authorised fund manager or ICVC, as appropriate.(3) The authorised fund manager
(1) The depositary is responsible for the safekeeping of all the scheme property.(2) The depositary must:(a) take all steps to ensure that transactions properly entered into for the account of the scheme are completed;(b) take all steps to ensure that instructions properly given by the authorised fund manager in respect of the exercise of rights related to scheme property are carried out;(c) ensure that any scheme property in registered form is as soon as reasonably practicable
(1) The authorised fund manager must:(a) ensure that at each valuation point there are at least as many units in issue of any class as there are units registered to unitholders of that class; and(b) not do, or omit anything that would, or might confer on itself a benefit or advantage at the expense of a unitholder or potential unitholder.(2) For the purposes of (1) the authorised fund manager may take into account sales and redemptions after the valuation point, provided it has
(1) 1A firm must make an up-to-date record of:(a) its scope of basic advice, and the scope of basic advice used by its appointed representatives (if any); and(b) its range (or ranges) of stakeholder products, and the range (or ranges) used by its appointed representatives (if any).(2) Those records must be retained for five years from the date on which they are replaced by a more up-to-date record.
Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 4(2)(e)
2Without prejudice to the generality of sub-paragraph [4(1)], the [UK RIE] must ensure that- |
satisfactory arrangements are made for recording transactions effected on the [UK RIE], and transactions (whether or not effected on the [UK RIE ]) which are cleared or to be cleared by means of itsfacilities; |
In determining whether a UK recognised body has satisfactory arrangements for recording the transactions effected on its facilities,3 or cleared or to be cleared by another person3 by means of, its facilities, the FCA3 may have regard to:3(1) whether the UK recognised body has arrangements for creating, maintaining and safeguarding an audit trail of transactions for at least three years (five years in respect of transactions carried out by members who are not incorporated in the
A firm must make a written record of the assessments required under this chapter. These assessments include those carried out on a consolidated basis and on an individual basis. In particular, it must make a written record of:(1) the major sources of risk identified in accordance with the overall Pillar 2 rule;(2) how it intends to deal with those risks; and(3) details of the stress tests and scenario analyses carried out, including any assumptions made in relation to scenario
A firm should include in the written record in IFPRU 2.2.43 R (Documentation of risk assessments) a description of the broad business strategy of the FCA consolidation group or the non-EEA sub-group of which it is a member, the group's view of its principal risks and its approach to measuring, managing and controlling the risks. This description should include the role of stress testing, scenario analysis and contingency planning in managing risk on an individual basis and consolidated
(1) The depositary of an authorised fund must take reasonable care to ensure that the scheme is managed by the authorised fund manager in accordance with:(a) COLL 5 (Investment and borrowing powers);(b) COLL 6.2 (Dealing);(c) COLL 6.3 (Valuation and pricing);(d) COLL 6.8 (Income: accounting, allocation and distribution); and(e) any provision of the instrument constituting the fund11 or prospectus that relates to the provisions referred to in (a) to (d).11(2) The depositary
(1) The authorised fund manager must make and retain for six years such records as enable:(a) the scheme and the authorised fund manager to comply with the rules in this sourcebook and the OEIC Regulations; and(b) it to demonstrate at any time that such compliance has been achieved.(2) The authorised fund manager must make and retain for six years a daily record of the units in the scheme held, acquired or disposed of by the authorised fund manager, including the classes of such
(1) The depositary of an authorised fund is responsible for the safekeeping of all of the scheme property (other than tangible movable property) entrusted to it and must:(a) take all steps and complete all documents needed to ensure completion of transactions properly entered into for the account of the scheme;(b) ensure that scheme property in registered form is, as soon as practicable, registered in the name of the depositary, its nominee, or a person retained by it under COLL
The firm must make adequate records concerning the exercise of a right to cancel or withdraw and retain them:(1) indefinitely in relation to a pension transfer, pension opt-out or FSAVC;(2) for at least five years in relation to a life policy, pension contract, personal pension scheme or stakeholder pension scheme; and(3) for at least three years in any other case.