Related provisions for IFPRU 3.1.2
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A firm must establish and implement effective arrangements for complying with the obligation to take all reasonable steps to obtain the best possible result for its clients. In particular, the firm must establish and implement an order execution policy to allow it to obtain, for its client orders, the best possible result in accordance with that obligation. [Note: article 21(2) of MiFID and article 25(3) first paragraph of the UCITS implementing Directive]2
A firm must, when providing the service of portfolio management or, for a management company, collective portfolio management,2 comply with the obligation to act in accordance with the best interests of its clients when placing orders with other entities for execution that result from decisions by the firm to deal in financial instruments on behalf of its client. [Note: article 45(1) of MiFID implementing Directive and article 26(1) of the UCITS implementing Directive]2
In order to comply with the obligation to act in accordance with the best interests of its clients when it places an order with, or transmits an order to, another entity for execution, a firm must:[Note: article 45(3) of the MiFID implementing Directive and article 26(1) of the UCITS implementing Directive]2(1) take all reasonable steps to obtain the best possible result for its clients taking into account the execution factors. The relative importance of these factors must be
A depositary appointed under COLL 6.6A.8R(3) must: (1) ensure that it has the infrastructure necessary to keep in custody UCITS custodial assets that can be registered in a financial instruments account opened in the depositary’s books; (2) establish adequate policies and procedures sufficient to ensure the compliance of the depositary, including its managers and employees, with its obligations under the regulatory system; (3) have: (a) sound administrative and accounting procedures
A depositary may delegate the functions in COLL 6.6B.18R and COLL 6.6B.19R to one or more third parties if:(1) the tasks are not delegated with the intention of avoiding the requirements of the UCITS Directive;(2) the depositary can demonstrate that there is an objective reason for the delegation;(3) the depositary:(a) has exercised all due skill, care and diligence in the selection and appointment of any third party to whom it intends to delegate parts of its tasks; and(b) continues
A depositary must ensure that a third party to whom the depositary has delegated functions under COLL 6.6B.25R does not, in turn, sub-delegate those functions unless the delegate complies with the same requirements that apply to the depositary, with any necessary changes, in relation to the delegation by the depositary of its functions in COLL 6.6B.25R and COLL 6.6B.26R. [Note: article 22a(3) third paragraph of the UCITS Directive]
So that a CASS debt management firm may check that it has sufficient money segregated in its client bank accounts to meet its obligations to clients for whom it is undertaking debt management activity, it is required periodically to carry out reconciliations of its internal records and accounts to check that the total amount of client money that it should have segregated in client bank accounts is equal to the total amount of client money it actually has segregated in client bank
For a CASS small debt management firm to demonstrate it has maintained its records and accounts in a way envisaged by CASS 11.11.3 R, it should carry out checks of its internal records and accounts that are reasonable and proportionate to its business. CASS 11.11.8 R provides a rule that a CASS small debt management firm is obliged to follow to meet this obligation.
If the CAD 1 model ceases to meet the requirements of the waiver, the firm should notify the appropriate regulator at once. The appropriate regulator may then revoke the waiver unless it is varied in accordance with section 138A of the Act. If the CAD 1 model waiver contains conditions it is a condition of using the CAD 1 model approach that the firm should continue to comply with those conditions.
A firm should be able to demonstrate that the risk management standards set out in BIPRU 7.9 are satisfied by each legal entity with respect to which the CAD 1 model approach is being used (even though they are expressed to refer only to a firm). This is particularly important for subsidiary undertakings in groups subject to matrix management where the business lines cut across legal entity boundaries.
The appropriate regulator does not specify the methodology that a firm should employ in order to produce the appropriate outputs from its options risk aggregation CAD 1 model. However, BIPRU 7.9.27G - BIPRU 7.9.43G provide details of how a firm could meet the requirement to capture gamma, vega and rho risks using a scenario matrix approach. Where a firm adopts the scenario matrix approach then the standards set out in BIPRU 7.9.27G - BIPRU 7.9.43G should be followed. The firm
(1) A firm must not hold client money for a sub-pool in a client bank account or a client transaction account used for holding client money for any other sub-pool or the general pool.(2) A firm that establishes a sub-pool must ensure that the name of each client bank account and each client transaction account (other than the net margined omnibus client account) maintained for that sub-pool includes a unique identifying reference or descriptor that enables the account to be identified
If an owner proposes to transfer the asset pool to a new owner it must provide the FCA as a minimum with the following information in writing at least three months before the proposed transfer date:(1) name, address and contact details of the proposed new owner;(2) proposed transfer date and reasons for the transfer;(3) an explanation of how the proposed new owner will comply with the requirements imposed on it by the RCB Regulations and RCB; and(4) confirmation that the existing
If an issuer proposes to make a material change to the contractual terms of a regulated covered bond, it must inform the FCA of the following information to the FCA at least 3 months before the proposed date of the change:(1) details of the proposed change including proposed date of change and the reasons for it;(2) an assessment of the impact of the change on the ability of the issuer and owner to continue to comply with their requirements under the RCB Regulations and RCB; and
This section does not apply to the following kinds of personal transaction:(1) personal transactions effected under a discretionary portfolio management service where there is no prior communication in connection with the transaction between the portfolio manager and the relevant person or other person for whose account the transaction is executed;(2) personal transactions in units or shares in collective undertakings that comply with the conditions necessary to enjoy the rights
2A private warning is not intended to be a determination by the FCA as to whether the recipient has breached the FCA'srules. However, private warnings, together with any comments received in response, will form part of the person's compliance history. In this sense they are no different to other FCA correspondence, but the weight the FCA attaches to a private warning is likely to be greater. They may therefore influence the FCA's decision whether to commence action for a penalty
2Private warnings may be considered cumulatively, although they relate to separate areas of a firm's or other person's business, where the concerns which gave rise to those warnings are considered to be indicative of a person's compliance culture. Similarly, private warnings issued to different subsidiaries of the same parent company may be considered cumulatively where the concerns which gave rise to those warnings relate to a common management team.
1The FCA is responsible for monitoring and enforcing compliance with the Regulations not only by authorised firms who are within the Money Laundering Regulations’ scope, but also by what the Regulations describe as “Annex I financial institutions”. These are businesses which are not otherwise authorised by us but which carry out certain of the activities listed in Annex I of the Banking Consolidation Directive28, now Annex I of the CRD. The activities include lending (e.g. forfaiters
If a listing rule refers to a requirement in legislation applicable to a listed company incorporated in the United Kingdom, a listed overseas company must comply with the requirement so far as:(1) information available to it enables it to do so; and(2) compliance is not contrary to the law in its country of incorporation.
The FCA3 would be likely to consider the conditions in REC 4.7.3 G (2) or REC 4.7.3 G (3) to be triggered1in the following circumstances:31(1) the recognised body appears not to have the resources or management to be able to organise its affairs so as to satisfy one or more of the recognised body requirements; or212(2) the recognised body does not appear to be willing to satisfy one or more of the recognised body requirements; or212(3) the recognised body is failing or has failed
In addition to the relevant 1factors set out in REC 4.7.4 G, the FCA3 will usually consider that it would not be able to secure an ROIE's3 compliance with the recognition requirements or other obligations in or under the Act by means of a direction under section 296 of the Act, if it appears to the FCA3 that the ROIE3 is prevented by any change in the legal framework or supervisory arrangements to which it is subject in its home territory from complying with the recognition requirements
Situations when the FCA may impose restrictions or limitations on the services a primary information provider can provide include (but are not limited to) where it appears to the FCA that:(1) the primary information provider's ability to satisfy its obligations in DTR 8.4 would be likely to be compromised; or(2) the primary information provider is proposing to make changes to its systems and controls or operations which would be likely to prevent it from satisfying any of its
In accordance with section 1 of PIDA:(1) a "protected disclosure" is a qualifying disclosure which meets the relevant requirements set out in part 4A of the Employment Rights Act 19963;3(2) a "qualifying disclosure" is a disclosure, made in the public interest3, of information which, in the reasonable belief of the worker making the disclosure, tends to show that one or more of the following (a "failure") has been, is being, or is likely to be, committed:3(a) a criminal offence;
1It is not possible to provide an exhaustive list of the situations that will give rise to such serious concerns, but they are likely to include one or more of the following characteristics: (1) information indicating significant loss, risk of loss or other adverse effects for consumers, where action is necessary to protect their interests; (2) information indicating that a firm's conduct has put it at risk of being used for the purposes of financial crime, or of being otherwise
1The FCA will consider the full circumstances of each case when it decides whether an urgent variation of Part 4A permission or an imposition of a requirement is appropriate. The following is a non-exhaustive list of factors the FCA may consider. (1) The extent of any loss, or risk of loss, or other adverse effect on consumers. The more serious the loss or potential loss or other adverse effect, the more likely it is that the FCA’s urgent exercise of own-initiative powers will
1The FCA has investigation and sanctioning powers in relation to both criminal and civil breaches of the Payment Services Regulations. The Payment Services Regulations impose requirements including, amongst other things, obligations on payment service providers to provide users with a range of information and various provisions regulating the rights and obligations of payment service users and providers.
1The FCA's approach to enforcing the Payment Services Regulations will mirror its general approach to enforcing the Act, as set out in EG 2. It will seek to exercise its enforcement powers in a manner that is transparent, proportionate, responsive to the issue, and consistent with its publicly stated policies. It will also seek to ensure fair treatment when exercising its enforcement powers. Finally, it will aim to change the behaviour of the person who is the subject of its