Related provisions for SUP App 3.6.1
81 - 100 of 293 items.
1Where an issuer has not disclosed its Home State as defined by the second indent of article 2.1(i)(i) of the TD or article 2.1(i)(ii) of the TD in accordance with DTR 6.4.2R and DTR 6.4.3R within a period of three months from the date the issuer’s securities are first admitted to trading on a regulated market, the Home State shall be:(1) the EEA State where the issuer’s securities are admitted to trading on a regulated market; or (2) where the issuer’s securities are admitted
2This chapter does not apply to an EEA relevant authorised person if and in so far as the question of whether a person is fit and proper to perform a particular function in relation to that firm is reserved to an authority in a country or territory outside the United Kingdom under:(1) the Single Market Directives;(2) the Treaty;(3) the auction regulation.
(1) 2SUP 10C.1.4R reflects the provisions of section 59(8) of the Act and, where relevant, the Treaty.(2) It preserves the principle of Home State prudential regulation. (3) For an EEA relevant authorised person, the effect is to reserve to the Home State regulator the assessment of fitness and propriety of a person performing a function in the exercise of an EEA right. A member of the governing body, or the notified3UKbranchmanager, of an EEA relevant authorised person, acting
(1) An exempt CAD
firm which is not an IMD insurance intermediary must have: (a) initial capital of EUR 50,000; or (b) professional indemnity insurance covering the whole territory of the EEAor some other comparable guarantee against liability arising from professional negligence, representing at least EUR 1,000,000 applying to each claim and in aggregate EUR 1,500,000 per year for all claims; or (c) a combination of initial capital and professional
(1) An exempt CAD
firm that is also an IMD insurance intermediary must comply with the professional indemnity insurance requirements at least equal to those set out in 9.2.4R(1)(b) (except that the minimum limits of indemnity are at least EUR 1,120,200 for a single claim and EUR 1,680,300 in aggregate) and in addition has to have: (a) initial capital of EUR 25,000; or (b) professional indemnity insurance covering the whole territory of the EEA or some
(1) RRD applies to credit institutions and to investments firms with an initial capital requirement of €730,000. Together, these are referred to as RRD institutions in our rules.(2) It also applies to financial institutions, financial holding companies and mixed financial holding companies within the same group as these institutions that are subsidiaries of an EEA parent undertaking. An EEA parent undertaking is an institution, a financial holding company or a mixed financial
The table below summarises whether a section of IFPRU 11 applies to a firm or qualifying parent undertaking:
(1) IFPRU 730k firm that is not subject to supervision on a consolidated basis |
(2) firm or qualifying parent undertaking that is the EEA parent undertaking of an RRD group |
(3) specific application to an IFPRU 730k firm that is a subsidiary of an EEA parent undertaking in another EEA State (note 1) |
(4) firm or qualifying parent undertaking that is a subsidiary of an EEA parent undertaking of an RRD group |
(5) qualifying parent undertaking that is a mixed activity holding company of an IFPRU 730k firm |
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IFPRU 11.1 (Application and purpose) |
Yes |
Yes |
No |
Yes |
Yes |
IFPRU 11.2 (Individual recovery plans) |
Yes |
No |
No |
No |
No |
IFPRU 11.3 (Group recovery plans) |
No |
Yes |
Yes |
No |
No |
IFPRU 11.4 (Information for resolution plans) |
Yes |
Yes |
Yes |
No |
No |
IFPRU 11.5 (Intra-group financial support) |
No |
Yes |
Yes - IFPRU 11.5.7 R only |
Yes |
Yes (note 2) |
IFPRU 11.6 (Contractual recognition of bail-in) |
Yes |
Yes |
No |
Yes |
Yes (note 3) |
IFPRU 11.7 (Notifications) |
Yes |
Yes |
No |
Yes |
Yes |
Note 1: IFPRU 11.3.1R (3) and IFPRU 11.4.1R (4) more fully describe this type of firm. Where specific application is not provided for this type of firm, the application is explained by (4). |
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Note 2: IFPRU 11.5 only applies to mixed activity holding companies of an IFPRU 730k firm in an RRD group. |
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Note 3: IFPRU 11.6 only applies to mixed activity holding companies that do not hold an RRD institution using an intermediate financial holding company or mixed financial holding company. |
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If a firm proposes to enter into a distance contract with a consumer that will be governed by the law of a country outside the EEA, the firm must ensure that the consumer will not lose the protection created by the rules in this section if the distance contract has a close link with the territory of one or more EEA States.[Note: articles 12 and 16 of the Distance Marketing Directive]
(1) An EEA firm must inform a1customer, before any commitment is entered into, of the EEA State in which the head office or, where appropriate, the branch1 with which the contract is to be concluded, is situated.11(2) Any documents issued to the customer must convey the information required by this rule.[Note: article 184(1) of the Solvency II Directive1]1
An EEA firm must ensure that the1 contract or any other document granting cover, together with the insurance proposal where it is binding upon the customer, states1 the address of the head office, or, where appropriate, of the branch of the firm1 which grants the cover.111[Note: article 184(2) of the Solvency II Directive1]1
(1) 1COLL 12.1 (Introduction) - COLL 12.3 (EEA UCITS management companies) apply to:(a) a UK UCITS management company that operates an EEA UCITS scheme; and(b) (i) an EEA UCITS management company that acts as:(A) (A) the authorised fund manager2 of an AUT or ACS;2 or2(B) (B) the ACD of an ICVC;(ii) any other director of an ICVC; and (iii) an ICVC;that is a UCITS scheme.(c) COLL 12.4 (UCITS product passport) applies in accordance with COLL 12.4.1 R (Application).
(1) This chapter contains rules and guidance relating to the operation of the management company passport under the UCITS Directive and explains how the passporting regime applies to:(a) a UK UCITS management company that operates an EEA UCITS scheme; and (b) an EEA UCITS management company that acts as the authorised fund manager2 of an AUT, ACS2 or ICVC that is a UCITS scheme;22whether from a branch it establishes in an EEA State other than its Home State or under the freedom
A firm must make at least the following information easily, directly and permanently accessible to the recipients of the information society services it provides:(1) its name;(2) the geographic address at which it is established;(3) the details of the firm, including its e-mail address, which allow it to be contacted rapidly and communicated with in a direct and effective manner;(4) an appropriate statutory status disclosure statement (GEN 4 Annex 1 R), together with a statement
(1) An authorised fund manager must, for each UCITS scheme which it manages, draw up a short document in English containing key investor information (a "key investor information document") for investors.(2) The words "key investor information" must be clearly stated in this document. (3) Key investor information must include appropriate information about the essential characteristics of the UCITS scheme which is to be provided to investors so that they are reasonably able to understand
COBS 4.13.2R(1)(b) and (c) (Marketing communications relating to UCITS schemes or EEA UCITS schemes) require an authorised fund manager to ensure that its marketing communications that contain an invitation to purchase units in a UCITS scheme or EEA UCITS scheme, indicate that a prospectus and key investor information exist, specifying where they may be obtained by the public or how the public may have access to them.
Certain matters are to be disregarded in determining whether the investment condition is satisfied. Section 236(4) of the Act states that, for these purposes, no account is to be taken of any actual or potential redemption or repurchase of shares or securities under:(1) Chapters 3 to 71 of Part 181 of the Companies Act 2006;1or1(2) [deleted]11(3) corresponding provisions in force in another EEA State; or(4) provisions in force in a country or territory other than an EEA State
The FCA considers that the reference in PERG 9.6.5 G (3) to corresponding provisions in force in another EEA State will include provisions that derive from the maintenance of capital requirements of the Second Council Directive on co-ordination of safeguards which, for the protection of the interests of members and others, are required by Member States of companies (77/91/EEC).
1Article
32(7) of MiFID provides that
the branch of a UK firm operating
from an establishment in another EEA state must
satisfy the transaction reporting requirements of the competent
authority in that other Member State in respect of reportable
transactions arising in the course of services provided in that other Member
State.
(1) The recognition requirements for UK recognised bodies and the MiFID implementing requirements2are set out, with guidance, in REC 2. The RAP recognition requirements (other than requirements under the auction regulation which are not reproduced in REC) are set out, with guidance, in REC 2A.3(2) The notification rules for UKrecognised bodies are set out in REC 3 together with guidance on those rules.(3) Guidance on the FCA's4 approach to the supervision of recognised bodies
1Sections 87A(2), (2A), 2(3) and (4) of the Act provide for the general contents of a prospectus:
(2) |
The necessary information is the information necessary to enable investors to make an informed assessment of – |
|
(a) |
the assets and liabilities, financial position, profits and losses, and prospects of the issuer of the transferable securities and of any guarantor; and |
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(b) |
the rights attaching to the transferable securities.2 |
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2(2A) |
If, in the case of transferable securities to which section 87 applies, the prospectus states that the guarantor is a specified EEA State, the prospectus is not required to include other information about the guarantor. |
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(3) |
The necessary information must be presented in a form which is comprehensible and easy to analyse. |
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(4) |
The necessary information must be prepared having regard to the particular nature of the transferable securities and their issuer.6 266 |
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The summary must also contain a warning to the effect that:(1) it should be read as an introduction to the prospectus;(2) any decision to invest in the transferable securities should be based on consideration of the prospectus as a whole by the investor; (3) where a claim relating to the information contained in a prospectus is brought before a court, the plaintiff investor might, under the national legislation of the EEA States, have to bear the costs of translating the prospectus
This section applies to:(1) a firm that is the EEA parent undertaking of an RRD group; (2) a qualifying parent undertaking that is the EEA parent undertaking of an RRD group; and(3) an IFPRU 730k firm that is the subsidiary of the EEA parent undertaking of an RRD group where: (a) the EEA parent undertaking is an EEA parent financial holding company or an EEA parent mixed financial holding company that is incorporated in, or formed under, the law of an EEA state other than the
(1) A firm that is an EEA parent undertaking or a qualifying parent undertaking must ensure that its management body assesses and approves the group recovery plan before sending it to its consolidating supervisor.(2) An IFPRU 730k firm that is not an EEA parent undertaking must ensure the management body of its EEA parent undertaking assesses and approves the group recovery plan before the IFPRU 730k firm sends it to its consolidating supervisor.[Note: article 7(7) of RRD]
(1) If an issuer is required to prepare consolidated accounts according to the Seventh Council Directive 83/349/EEC, the audited financial statements must comprise:(a) consolidated accounts prepared in accordance with IFRS, and(b) accounts of the parent company prepared in accordance with the national law of the EEA State in which the parent company is incorporated. [Note: article 4(3) of the TD](2) If an issuer is not required to prepare consolidated accounts, the audited financial
(1) If an issuer is required to prepare consolidated accounts, the financial statements must be audited in accordance with Article 37 of the Seventh Council Directive 83/349/EEC.(2) If an issuer is not required to prepare consolidated accounts the financial statements must be audited in accordance with Articles 51 and 51a of the Fourth Council Directive 78/660/EEC.(3) The audit report, signed by the person or persons responsible for auditing the financial statements must be disclosed
(1) 1This section applies to:(a) an authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme; and(b) a UK UCITS management company providing collective portfolio management services for an EEA UCITS scheme from a branch in another EEA State or under the freedom to provide cross border services.(2) This section does not apply to an EEA UCITS management company providing collective portfolio management services for a UCITS scheme under the freedom to provide cross border services.
(1) An authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme or a UK UCITS management company of an EEA UCITS scheme must establish and maintain a permanent risk management function.(2) The function referred to in (1) must be hierarchically and functionally independent from operating units, except where such independence would not be appropriate and proportionate in view of the nature, scale and complexity of the authorised fund manager’s or UK UCITS management company’s business and of
Table of FCA-designated senior management functions for relevant authorised persons
1Part One: (FCA-designated senior management functions for relevant authorised persons) |
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Type |
SMF |
Description of FCA controlled function |
SMF 3 |
Executive director function |
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SMF 13 |
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SMF 16 |
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SMF 17 |
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SMF 18 |
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2Part Two: (FCA-designated senior management functions for EEA relevant authorised persons) |
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Type |
SMF |
Description of FCA controlled function |
SMF 17 |
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SMF 21 |
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2Part3Three: (FCA-designated senior management functions for third-country relevant authorised persons) |
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Type |
SMF |
Description of FCA controlled function |
SMF3 |
Executive3director function |
|
SMF16 |
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SMF17 |
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SMF22 |
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(1) The authorised fund manager may, with the prior agreement of the depositary, and must without delay, if the depositary so requires, temporarily1 suspend the issue, cancellation, sale and redemption of units in an authorised fund (referred to in this chapter as "dealings in units"), where due to exceptional circumstances it is in the interest of all the unitholders in the authorised fund. (1A) The authorised fund manager and the depositary must ensure that the suspension is
2Where:(1) an authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme which is a master UCITS or a qualifying master scheme3temporarily suspends the issue, cancellation, sale and redemption of its units, whether at its own initiative or at the request of the FCA; or(2) an operator of an EEA UCITS scheme which is a master UCITS or a qualifying master scheme3temporarily suspends the issue, cancellation, sale or redemption of its units, whether at its own initiative or at the request of its Home
The Insurance Mediation Directive has in part been implemented through various amendments to the Regulated Activities Order. These include article 4(4A) (Specified activities: general) which precludes a person who, for remuneration, takes up or pursues insurance mediation or reinsurance mediation in relation to a risk or commitment situated in an EEA State from making use of certain exclusions. In other cases, some of the exclusions provided in relation to particular regulated
Subject to BIPRU 12.7.4R, for the purpose of BIPRU 12.7.2R (1), a firm may include only1 a debt security which is:(1) issued by the central government or central bank of an EEA State; or(2) issued by the central government or central bank of Canada, the Commonwealth of Australia, Japan, Switzerland or the United States of America.