Related provisions for MCOB 13.3.4C

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RCB 3.2.1DRP
The issuer must send to the FCA annual written confirmation of compliance with Regulations 16 (sums derived from the issue of regulated covered bonds) and 17 (general requirements on the issuer in relation to the asset pool) of the RCB Regulations in the form set out in RCB 3 Annex 1D (annual confirmation of compliance).
RCB 3.2.3GRP
The FCA expects the issuer to be able to justify any reliance it places on advice or reports which are not reasonably contemporaneous with the confirmation.
RCB 3.2.4GRP
The FCA expects the asset pool monitor's report1 to address at least the matters to be checked and due diligence procedures set out in RCB 2.3.18 G. The FCA may also specify additional matters that the asset pool monitor's report should address in relation to a particular issuer.11
RCB 3.2.4AGRP
1The FCA's use of its power under Regulation 18 of the RCB Regulations may include requiring the issuer to provide to the FCA copies of the advice or reports referred to in RCB 3.2.2 D.
RCB 3.2.4BDRP
1The issuer must provide a copy of the asset pool monitor's report to the FCA when it sends the confirmation required by this section to the FCA.
RCB 3.2.6DRP
The issuer must send each confirmation to the FCA within one month after the relevant confirmation date.
RCB 3.2.9DRP
The issuer must ensure that a director or1 a senior manager signs the annual confirmation and confirms on the FCA's form that the issuer has obtained the appropriate third party advice or reports required by this section.
RCB 3.2.9AGRP
1Where possible, the director or senior manager who signs the annual confirmation should be the same director or senior manager who has verified the application for registration under RCB 2.2.6 D. If the director or senior manager is different to the director or senior manager who verified the application for registration, the issuer should notify the FCA at least one month before sending the confirmation to the FCA.
RCB 3.2.10DRP
If the issuer is in insolvency, the owner must send the FCA under RCB 3.2.1 D:(1) a confirmation of compliance within one month of the date of insolvency; and(2) annual confirmations by the same dates as the date the confirmations under RCB 3.2.5 D are due.
RCB 3.2.11DRP
(1) The owner must ensure that a duly authorised representative signs the confirmation and confirms on the FCA's form that the owner has obtained the appropriate third party advice or reports required by this section.(2) The owner must obtain appropriate advice in the same manner as set out in RCB 3.2.2 D and must provide a copy of the asset pool monitor's report to the FCA as set out in RCB 3.2.4B D.1
RCB 3.2.13GRP
1The FCA expects the inspection by the asset pool monitor of the compliance of the issuer or owner (as the case may be) with the relevant requirements in the RCB Regulations to address at least the matters to be checked and due diligence procedures set out in RCB 2.3.18 G. The FCA expects that the inspection will be conducted on an agreed-upon-procedures basis.
RCB 3.2.14GRP
1As required under Regulation 17A of the RCB Regulations, if it appears to the asset pool monitor that the issuer or owner (as the case may be) has failed to comply with the requirements set out in Regulations 17 or 24 of the RCB Regulations, or has not provided all relevant information or explanations, the asset pool monitor must report that to the FCA in writing as soon as possible.
RCB 3.2.15GRP
1If the asset pool monitor is changed, the issuer (or owner, as the case may be) should notify the FCA when the new asset pool monitor is appointed, giving the name of the new asset pool monitor and details of the reason for the change.
FEES 4.4.1RRP
A firm (other than the Society and an MTF operator in relation to its MTF business5) must notify to the FCA (in its own capacity and, if applicable, in its capacity as collection agent for the PRA) the value (as at the valuation date specified in Part 5 of FEES 4 Annex 1AR6) of each element of business on which the periodic fee payable by the firm is to be calculated.15
FEES 4.4.2RRP
A firm (other than the Society) must send to the FCA (in its own capacity and, if applicable, in its capacity as collection agent for the PRA)15 in writing the information required under FEES 4.4.1 R as soon as reasonably practicable, and in any event within two months, after the date specified as the valuation date in Part 5 of FEES 4 Annex 1AR in relation of fees payable to the FCA6 (or FEES 4.2.7B R where applicable).2151515
FEES 4.4.4GRP
In most cases a firm will provide the information required by this section as part of its compliance with the provisions of SUP. To the extent that the FCA6 does not obtain sufficient, or sufficiently detailed, information it 6 may seek this by using the general information gathering powers (see SUP 2 (Information gathering by the FCA or PRA6 on its own initiative)).14141414141414
FEES 4.4.7DRP
3A fee-paying payment service provider and a fee-paying electronic money issuer4 must notify to the FCA the value (as at the valuation date specified in Part 4 of FEES 4 Annex 11) of each element of business on which the periodic fee (other than a flat fee)4 payable by the firm under 1 R4 is to be calculated, including any payment services carried on by its agents from an establishment in the United Kingdom. 4
FEES 4.4.8DRP
3A firm4 must send to the FCA in writing the information required under FEES 4.4.7 D as soon as reasonably practicable, and in any event within two months, after the date specified as the valuation date in Part 4 of FEES 4 Annex 11.
FEES 4.4.9DRP
3To the extent that a firm4 has provided the information required by FEES 4.4.7 D to the FCA as part of its compliance with another provision of the Handbook, it is deemed to have complied with the provisions of that direction.444
SUP 15.7.2GRP
A firm should have regard to the urgency and significance of a matter and, if appropriate, should also notify its usual supervisory contact at the FCA4 by telephone or by other prompt means of communication, before submitting a written notification. Oral notifications should be given directly to the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA.4 An oral notification left with another person or left on a voicemail or other automatic messaging service is unlikely to have been given
SUP 15.7.3GRP
The FCA4 is entitled to rely on any information it receives from a firm and to consider any notification received as being made by a person authorised by the firm to do so. A firm should therefore consider whether it needs to put procedures in place to ensure that only appropriate employees make notifications to the FCA4 on its behalf.7777
SUP 15.7.4RRP
Unless stated in the notification rule, or on the relevant form (if specified), a written notification required from a firm under any notification rule must be:2(1) given to or addressed for the attention of the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA4 and77(2) delivered to the FCA4 by one of the methods in SUP 15.7.5A R or SUP 15.7.5B R as applicable:777
SUP 15.7.5ARRP

7Methods of notification

Method of delivery

1.

Post to the appropriate address in SUP 15.7.6A G

2.

Leaving the notification at the appropriate address in SUP 15.7.6A G and obtaining a time-stamped receipt

3.

Electronic mail to an address for the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA and obtaining an electronic confirmation of receipt

4.

Hand delivery to the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA

5.

Fax to a fax number for the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA and receiving a successful transmission report for all pages of the notification

6.

Online submission via the FCA's website at www.fca.org.uk.

SUP 15.7.6AGRP

7The current published address of the FCA for postal submission or hand delivery of notifications is:

  1. (1)

    The Financial Conduct Authority

    25 The North Colonnade London

    Canary Wharf

    E14 5HS

    if the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA is based in London, or

  2. (2)

    The Financial Conduct Authority

    Quayside House 127

    Fountainbridge

    Edinburgh EH3 8DJ

    if the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA is based in Edinburgh.7

SUP 15.7.7GRP
If the firm or its group is subject to lead supervision arrangements by the FCA4 the firm or group may give or address a notice under SUP 15.7.4 R(1) to the supervisory contact at the FCA4 designated as lead supervisor, if the firm has chosen to make use of the lead supervisor as a central point of contact (see SUP 1.5).7777
SUP 15.7.8GRP
If a firm is a member of a group which includes more than one firm, any one undertaking in the group may notify the FCA4 on behalf of all firms in the group to which the notification applies. In this way, that undertaking may satisfy the obligation of all relevant firms in the group to notify the FCA.4 Nevertheless, the obligation to make the notification remains the responsibility of the individual firm itself. See also SUP 15.7.3 G.7777
SUP 15.7.9GRP
Firms wishing to communicate with the FCA4 by electronic mail or fax should obtain the appropriate address or number from the FCA4appropriate regulator.7777
SUP 15.7.10RRP
If a notification rule requires notification within a specified period:(1) the firm must give the notification so as to be received by the FCA4 no later than the end of that period; and 77(2) if the end of that period falls on a day which is not a business day, the notification must be given so as to be received by the FCA4 no later than the first business day after the end of that period. 77
SUP 15.7.14GRP
The FCA4 has made arrangements with the Society of Lloyd's with respect to the monitoring of underwriting agents. Underwriting agents should check whether these arrangements provide for any notifications required under this chapter to be sent to the Society instead of to the FCA.4 [For further details see the FCA's4 website.]777777
SUP 15.7.16GRP
The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Service of Notices) Regulations 2001 (SI 2001/1420) contain provisions relating to the service of documents on the FCA4. They do not apply to notifications required under notification rules because of the specific rules in this section.77
SUP 5.4.1GRP
Where the appropriate regulator requires a report by a skilled person under section 166 of the Act (Reports by skilled persons), the appropriate regulator2 will send a notice in writing requiring the person in SUP 5.2.1 G to provide a report by a skilled person, or notifying the person in SUP 5.2.1 G in writing of the appropriate regulator's appointment of a skilled person to provide a report,2 on any matter if it is reasonably required in connection with the exercise of its functions
SUP 5.4.1AGRP
2Where the appropriate regulator requires the updating or collection of information by a skilled person under section 166A of the Act (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information), the appropriate regulator will send a notice in writing requiring the firm to appoint a skilled person, or notifying the firm of the appropriate regulator's appointment of a skilled person, to collect or update the relevant information.
SUP 5.4.2GRP
As part of the decision making process the appropriate regulator2 will normally contact the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or in SUP 5.2.2 G2 to discuss its needs before finalising its decision to require a report or the updating or collection of information by a skilled person. This will provide an opportunity for discussion about the appointment, whether an alternative means of obtaining the information would be better, what the scope of a report should be, who should be appointed,
SUP 5.4.3GRP
The appropriate regulator2 will give written notification to the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or SUP 5.2.2 G2 of the purpose of the report or collection or updating of information,2 its scope, the timetable for completion and any other relevant matters. The appropriate regulator2 will state the matters which the report is to contain, or the information which is to be collected or updated,2 as well as any requirements as to the report's format. For example, a report on controls may
SUP 5.4.4GRP
The written notification in SUP 5.4.3 G may be preceded or followed by a discussion of the appropriate regulator's2 requirements and the reasons for them. This may involve the appropriate regulator,2 the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or in SUP 5.2.2 G2 and the person who has been, or is expected to be, appointed as the skilled person. The appropriate regulator2 recognises that there will normally be value in holding discussions involving the skilled person at this stage. These discussions
SUP 5.4.5GRP
The appropriate regulator2 will wish to conduct the discussion with the firm, its skilled person and any others within a timescale appropriate to the circumstances of the case.2
SUP 5.4.7GRP
A skilled person must appear to the appropriate regulator2 to have the skills necessary to make a report on the matter concerned or collect or update the relevant information.2 A skilled person may be an accountant, lawyer, compliance consultant,2actuary or person with relevant business, technical or technological skills.2
SUP 5.4.8GRP
When considering whether to nominate, approve or appoint a skilled person to make a report or collect or update information, the appropriate regulator will have regard to the circumstances of the case, including whether the proposed skilled person appears to have:22(1) the skills necessary to make a report on the matter concerned or collect or update the relevant information;2(2) the ability to complete the report or collect or update the information within the time expected by
SUP 5.4.9GRP
In appropriate circumstances, it may be cost effective for the appropriate regulator2 to nominate or approve the appointment of, or appoint itself,2 a skilled person who has previously acted for, or advised, the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or SUP 5.2.2 G.2 For example, the appropriate regulator2 may nominate or approve the appointment of, or appoint,2 the auditor of a person in SUP 5.2.1 G or SUP 5.2.2 G2 to prepare a report or collect or update the information2 taking into account,
SUP 5.4.10GRP
Where the skilled person is appointed by the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or SUP 5.2.2 G, the appropriate regulator2 will normally require the skilled person to be appointed to report to the appropriate regulator2 through that person. In the normal course of events the appropriate regulator2 expects that the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or SUP 5.2.2 G2 will be given the opportunity to provide written comments on the report or the collection of the relevant information prior to its submission
SUP 5.4.10AGRP
2Where the skilled person is to be appointed by the appropriate regulator itself, the skilled person will report directly to the appropriate regulator.
SUP 5.4.11GRP
The appropriate regulator2 may enter into a dialogue with the skilled person, and is ready to discuss matters relevant to the report or the collection or updating of the relevant information2 with him, during the preparation of the report or the collection or updating of the relevant information.2 Such discussions may2 involve or be through the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or SUP 5.2.2 G.222
SUP 5.4.12GRP
The appropriate regulator2 will normally specify a time limit within which it expects the skilled person to deliver the report or collect or update the relevant information. Where the skilled person is appointed by the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or SUP 5.2.2 G, the2skilled person should, in complying with its contractual duty under SUP 5.5.1 R, take reasonable steps to achieve delivery by that time. If the skilled person becomes aware that the report may not be delivered, or collection
EG 19.28.1RP
1The Referral Fees Regulations give the FCA investigation and sanctioning powers in relation to the contravention of the rules against referral fees contained in sections 56 to 60 of the Legal Aid, Sentencing and Punishment of Offenders Act 2012 (the LASPO Act), as well as the contravention of requirements imposed by, or under, the Referral Fees Regulations.
EG 19.28.2RP
1The FCA's approach to taking enforcement action under the Referral Fees Regulations will mirror its general approach to enforcing the Act, as set out in EG 2. It will seek to exercise its enforcement powers in a manner that is transparent, proportionate and responsive to the issue and consistent with its publicly stated policies. It will also seek to ensure fair treatment when exercising its enforcement powers. Finally, it will aim to change the behaviour of the person who
EG 19.28.3RP
1The Referral Fees Regulations, for the most part, mirror the FCA's investigative and sanctioning powers under the Act. The FCA has adopted procedures and policies for the use of those powers that are akin to those it has under the Act. Key features of the FCA's approach are described below.
EG 19.28.5RP
1The FCA will notify the subject of the investigation that it has appointed investigators to carry out an investigation under the Referral Fees Regulations and the reasons for the appointment, unless notification is likely to result in the investigation being frustrated. In most cases, the FCA expects to carry out a scoping visit early on in the enforcement process. The FCA's policy in civil investigations under the Referral Fees Regulations is to use powers
EG 19.28.6RP
1The RDC is the FCA's decision maker for decisions which require warning notices or decision notices to be given under the Referral Fees Regulations, as set out in DEPP 2 Annex 1G. The RDC will make its decisions following the procedure set out in DEPP 3.2 or, where appropriate, DEPP 3.3.
EG 19.28.7RP
1The Referral Fees Regulations do not require the FCA to publish procedures to commence criminal prosecutions. However, the FCA will normally follow its equivalent decision-making procedures for similar decisions under the Act, as set out in EG 12.
EG 19.28.8RP
1The Referral Fees Regulations do not require the FCA to publish procedures to apply to the court for an injunction or restitution order. However, the FCA will normally follow its equivalent decision-making procedures for similar decisions under the Act, as set out in EG 10 and EG 11.
EG 19.28.9RP
1The Referral Fees Regulations apply sections 393 and 394 of the Act to warning notices and decision notices given under the Referral Fees Regulations and so require the FCA to give third party rights and to give access to material.
EG 19.28.11RP
1When determining whether to take action to impose a penalty or to issue a public censure under the Referral Fees Regulations, the FCA's policy includes having regard to the relevant factors in DEPP 6.2 and DEPP 6.4. When determining the level of financial penalty, the FCA's policy includes having regard to the relevant principles and factors in DEPP 6.5 to 6.5B, DEPP 6.5D and DEPP 6.7.
EG 19.28.12RP
1As with cases under the Act, the FCA may settle or mediate appropriate cases involving civil breaches of the Referral Fees Regulations to assist it to exercise its functions. DEPP 5, DEPP 6.7 and EG 5 set out information on the FCA's settlement process and the settlement discount scheme.
EG 19.28.13RP
1When determining whether to take action to impose a suspension or restriction under the Referral Fees Regulations, the FCA's policy includes having regard to the relevant factors in DEPP 6A.2 and 6A.4. When determining the length of the period of suspension or restriction, the FCA's policy includes having regard to the relevant principles and factors in DEPP 6A.3. However, the FCA does not have the power to suspend an authorised person’spermission under the Referral Fees Regulations.
EG 19.28.14RP
1The FCA will apply the approach to publicity that is outlined in EG 6.
EG 19.10.1RP
1The FCA, together with several other UK authorities, has powers under Part 8 of the Enterprise Act to enforce breaches of consumer protection law. Where a breach has been committed, the FCA will liaise with other authorities, particularly the Competition and Markets Authority (the CMA), to determine which authority is best placed to take enforcement action. The FCA would generally expect to be the most appropriate authority to deal with breaches by authorised firms in relation
EG 19.10.3RP
1The Community legislation falling within the FCA's scope under the Enterprise Act is: the Unfair Terms in Consumer Contracts Directive;17the Comparative and Misleading Advertising Directive;18the E-Commerce Directive;19the Distance Marketing Directive;20the Unfair Commercial Practices Directive; 21andthe Consumer Credit Directive.2217 Directive 93/13/EEC18 Directive 97/55/EC19 Directive 2000/31/EC20 Directive 2002/65/EC21 Directive 2005/29/EC22 Directive 2008/48/EC
EG 19.10.4RP
1The FCA has powers under Part 8 of the Enterprise Act both as a “designated enforcer” in relation to domestic and Community infringements and as a “CPC enforcer” which gives the FCA and other CPC enforcers additional powers in relation to Community infringements so that they can meet their obligations as “competent authorities” under Regulation (EC) No.2006/2004 on co-operation between national authorities responsible for enforcement of consumer protection laws (the CPC Regulation).
EG 19.10.5RP
1As a designated enforcer, the FCA has the power to apply to the courts for an enforcement order which requires a person who has committed a domestic or Community infringement or, as to the latter, is likely to commit such an infringement: (1) not to engage, including through a company and, as to a domestic infringement, whether or not in the course of business, in the conduct which constituted, or is likely to constitute, the infringement; (2) to publish the order and/or a corrective
EG 19.10.6RP
1The FCA may also apply, if necessary without notice, for interim enforcement orders where immediate temporary prohibition of the relevant conduct is expedient pending full consideration by the court. Such interim orders can also be sought pre-emptively in relation to Community infringements, but again only preventing conduct in the course of business.
EG 19.10.7RP
1The FCA’s investigative powers in support of its Enterprise Act enforcement powers are set out in Schedule 5 to the CRA. The FCA can, under Schedule 5, require any person to provide it with information which will enable it to (i) exercise or consider exercising its functions as an enforcer; or (ii) determine whether a person is complying with an enforcement order, an interim enforcement order or an undertaking given as described below. If the FCA requires a person to provide
EG 19.10.8RP
1Before the FCA may apply for an enforcement order, including an interim enforcement order, it must: (1) give notice to the CMA of its intention to apply for an enforcement order; and (2) unless the application relates to breach of an undertaking given to the court (other than one to provide information), consult the person against whom the enforcement order would be made.
EG 19.10.10RP
1The aim of consultation is to ensure that any action taken is necessary and proportionate, and to ensure that businesses are given a reasonable opportunity to put things right before the courts become involved. The consultation period starts when the person receives the FCA's request for consultation and runs whether or not that person agrees to be consulted and/or is available for consultation.
EG 19.10.12RP
1The FCA may take steps to publish the undertakings it receives, and may apply to the court for an enforcement order if a person fails to comply with an undertaking that he has given.
EG 19.10.13RP
1In addition to its powers as a designated enforcer under the Enterprise Act, the FCA also has powers, in its capacity as a “CPC enforcer” and, therefore, only in respect of Community infringements, to enter commercial premises with or without a warrant. The FCA must give at least two working days’ notice of its intention to enter such premises without a warrant unless that is not reasonably practicable. If the FCA cannot give a notice in advance, it must produce the notice on
EG 19.10.14RP
1The FCA anticipates that its powers under the Act will be adequate to address the majority of breaches which it would also be able to enforce under the Enterprise Act and that there will therefore be limited cases in which it would seek to use its powers as an Enterprise Act enforcer. Where the FCA does use its powers under the Enterprise Act, it will have regard to the enforcement guidelines which are published on the CMA’s website.2323www.gov.uk/governmentorganisations
EG 19.10.15RP
1Further information about the FCA's powers under the CPC Regulations is provided at paragraphs 19.13.1 to 19.13.5 below.
EG 19.10.17RP
1The FCA may apply for such an order where a criminal investigation has been started or where proceedings have started but not concluded; in either case there must be reasonable cause to believe that the defendant has benefited from criminal conduct. In this context, a person benefits from criminal conduct if he obtains property or a pecuniary advantage as a result of or in connection with conduct that would be an offence if it took place in England or Wales, regardless of whether
EG 19.10.20RP
1The order can apply to assets wherever they are held, and anyone breaching the order would be guilty of contempt of court in this country. The FCA may request that the court make ancillary orders requiring the person to disclose his assets and/or to repatriate assets held overseas.
EG 19.10.21RP
1POCA also contains various powers of investigation which the FCA may use in specified circumstances. However, where these powers overlap with powers under the Act, the FCA will in most cases consider it more appropriate to rely on its investigation powers under the Act.
IFPRU 4.11.1GRP
The FCA considers that income-producing real estate (IPRE) is a particularly difficult asset class for which to build effective rating systems that are compliant with the requirements of the internal ratings based (IRB) approach.
IFPRU 4.11.5GRP
The FCA expects that an IPRE rating system will only be compliant if a firm is able to demonstrate the following in respect of its treatment of cash flows (except where the firm can demonstrate that this is not an appropriate risk driver):(1) the difference in deal ratings when tenant ratings are altered is intuitive;(2) the transformation of ratings into non-rent payment probability is intuitive. Even where tenants are rated by the firm the PD will not usually represent a direct
IFPRU 4.11.6GRP
The FCA expects that an IPRE rating system will only be compliant if a firm is able to demonstrate the following in respect of its treatment of interest-rate risk (IRR):(1) IRR is included as a relevant risk driver (unless the portfolio is exclusively hedged);(2) the way in which IRR is included in the deal rating is intuitive with respect to model philosophy. For example, a 'point in time' rating should consider the current interest rate and likely change over a one-year time
IFPRU 4.11.8GRP
The FCA expects that firms will not be compliant with the calibration requirements relating to use of a long-run default rate, unless it can demonstrate that:(1) the internal data series is the longest relevant and accurate data series, on a EU CRR compliant definition of default, that is available;(2) the determination of long-run default rate includes reference to an appropriate source of downturn data (this may require the use of external data);(3) the relevance of any external
IFPRU 4.11.9GRP
The FCA expects that a firm will only be compliant with the calibration requirements relating to model philosophy if it can demonstrate that:(1) the model philosophy is clearly articulated and justified. Justification should include analysis of the performance of assets, and the corresponding ratings assigned, over a change in economic conditions (ie, as long as period as possible); and(2) in addition to encapsulating this information in a coherent way in the calibration, the
IFPRU 4.11.12GRP
The FCA considers that, to meet the requirements referred to in IFPRU 4.11.1 G, it will be necessary for firms to demonstrate that a firm has a good understanding of PD models that are constructed theoretically and that the parameter estimates reflect a one-year PD. In addition, even if empirical data were not used to determine the PD estimate it should, where available, be used to back-test the estimates.
IFPRU 4.11.13GRP
The FCA expects that, as most models of this type will be able to produce one-year estimates of PD that correspond closely to point-in-time estimates, firms should conduct robust back-testing of such estimates by comparing them with realised default rates. Firms would need to demonstrate that the results of such back-testing meet pre-defined and stringent standards in order for the FCA to be satisfied that the IRB requirements are met.
IFPRU 4.11.14GRP
Because assumptions in the model build process are likely to materially impact the resulting PDs, the FCA would expect these choices to be clearly justified in the model documentation and to have been independently reviewed. To be satisfied that a firm is complying with article 176(1)(d) of the EU CRR, the FCA expects a firm to support justification for all assumptions with analysis of the sensitivity of the model outputs to changes in the assumptions.
IFPRU 4.11.15GRP
Where the firm has fewer1than 20 defaults in their internal data set, the FCA expects it to be necessary for firms to perform a statistical low default portfolio calibration, as set out in the guidance in this section.1
IFPRU 4.11.16GRP
The FCA expects that a firm will be compliant with the validation requirements only where1it can demonstrate, in respect of discriminatory power, that:11(1) appropriate minimum standards that the rating system is expected to reach are defined, together with reasoning behind the adoption of such standards and that the factors considered when determining the tests are clearly documented;(2) an objective rank-ordering metric, measured using an appropriate time horizon (eg, using
IFPRU 4.11.17GRP
The FCA expects that a firm will be compliant with the validation requirements only where1it can demonstrate in respect of the calibration that:11(1) observed default rate versus PD is considered at grade level and across a range of economic environments (ie, as long as period as possible);(2) where the PD does not relate to a pure point-in-time estimate, either the PD or the observed default rate is transformed such that comparison between the two is meaningful. This transformation
IFPRU 4.11.18GRP
The FCA also expects that a firm will be compliant with the validation requirements only where1it can demonstrate that:11(1) appropriate stability metrics should be considered across a range of economic environments (ie, longest period possible including most recent data);(2) the tolerances for the degree of divergence, and associated actions for what should happen when they are not met, is pre-defined; and(3) subsections of portfolios by characteristics affecting risk profile,
IFPRU 4.11.19GRP
The FCA expects that a firm will1 be able to comply with certain other EU CRR requirements only where it can1demonstrate that:11(1) in relation to article 144(1)(e) of the EU CRR, where more than one model is used, the rationale, and the associated boundary issues, is clearly articulated and justified and the criteria for assigning an asset to a rating model are objective and clear;(2) in relation to article 173(1)(c) of the EU CRR, the firm has a process in place to ensure valuations
SUP 15.8.1RRP
73A firm which manages the assets of an occupational pension scheme must notify the FCA20 as soon as reasonably practicable if it receives any request or instruction from a trustee which it:20(1) knows; or(2) on substantial grounds:(a) suspects; or(b) has cause reasonably to suspect;is at material variance with the trustee's duties.1
SUP 15.8.2RRP
If a firm begins or ceases to administer individual pension accounts, it must notify the FCA20 as soon as reasonably practicable that it has done so.5220
SUP 15.8.3RRP
(1) An insurer must notify the FCA20in respect of any firm (the "intermediary") as soon as reasonably practicable if:20(a) any amount of commission due from the intermediary to the insurer in accordance with an indemnity commission clawback arrangement remains outstanding for four months after the date when the insurer gave notice to the intermediary that the relevant premium had not been paid; or(b) any amount of commission due from the intermediary to the insurer as a result
SUP 15.8.4GRP
(1) 467In accordance with article 3111of the Money Laundering Regulations, with effect from 15 December 200711, a firm is required to notify the FCA:20111120(a) before it begins or within 28 days of it beginning11; and(b) immediately11 after it ceases;11to operate a money service business or a trust or company service provider.1111(2) The notification referred to in (1) should be made in accordance with the requirements in SUP 15.7 (Form and method of notification)
SUP 15.8.5GRP
467A firm which is already operating a money service business or a trust or company service provider11 as at 15 December 200711 is required by the Money Laundering Regulations to notify the FCA20 of that fact and should do so in the manner specified in SUP 15.8.4 G(2) before 15 January 200811.111120
SUP 15.8.6RRP
If a UK UCITS management company intends to delegate to a third party any one or more of its functions for the more efficient conduct of its business, it must first inform the FCA20 in an appropriate manner.141420[Note: article 13(1)(a) of the UCITS Directive]14
SUP 15.8.8RRP
(1) 9If a firm begins or ceases to hold itself out as acting as a CTF provider, it must notify the FCA20 as soon as reasonably practicable that it has done so.20(2) A firm that acts as a CTF provider must provide theFCA,20 as soon as reasonably practicable, with details of:20(a) any third party administrator that it engages;(b) details of whether it intends to offer HMRC allocated CTFs12; and12(c) whether it intends to provide its own stakeholder CTF account.
SUP 15.8.9RRP
10A BIPRUfirm must report to the FCA15 immediately any case in which its counterparty in a repurchase agreement or reverse repurchase agreement or securities or commodities lending or borrowing transaction defaults on its obligations.2020
IFPRU 4.3.3GRP
The FCA will, taking into account the nature, scale and complexity of a firm's activities, monitor that it does not solely or mechanistically rely on external credit ratings for assessing the creditworthiness of an entity or financial instrument.[Note: article 77(2) of CRD]
IFPRU 4.3.4GRP
Article 20(6) of the EU CRR states that, where the IRB approach is used on a unified basis by those entities which fall within the scope of article 20(6) (EEA group), the FCA is required to permit certain IRB requirements to be met on a collective basis by members of that group. In particular, the FCA considers that, where a firm is reliant upon a rating system or data provided by another member of its group, it will not meet the condition that it is using the IRB approach on
IFPRU 4.3.5GRP
Prior to reliance being placed by a firm on a rating system or data provided by another member of the group, the FCA expects the proposed arrangements to have been explicitly considered, and found to be appropriate, by the governing body of the firm.
IFPRU 4.3.6GRP
If a firm uses a rating system or data provided by another group member, the FCA would expect the firm'sgoverning body to delegate those functions formally to the persons or bodies that are to carry them out.
IFPRU 4.3.7GRP
Where a firm seeks to demonstrate to the FCA that the effect of its non-compliance with the requirements of Part Three, Title II Chapter 3 of the EU CRR (Internal ratings based approach) is immaterial under article 146(b) of the EU CRR (Measures to be taken where the requirements cease to be met), the FCA expects the firm to have taken into account all instances of non-compliance with the requirements of the IRB approach and to have demonstrated that the overall effect of non-compliance
IFPRU 4.3.8GRP
(1) Where the firm's rating systems are used on a unified basis under article 20(6) of the EU CRR, the FCA considers that the governance requirements in article 189 of the EU CRR can only be met if the subsidiaries have delegated to the governing body or designated committee of the EEA parent institution, EEA parent financial holding company or EEA parent mixed financial holding company responsibility for approval of the firm's rating systems.(2) The FCA expects an appropriate
IFPRU 4.3.9GRP
The FCA expects a firm seeking to apply the Standardised Approach on a permanent basis to certain exposures to have a well-documented policy explaining the basis on which exposures are to be selected for permanent exemption from the IRB approach. This policy should be provided to the FCA when the firm applies for permission to use the IRB approach and maintained thereafter. Where a firm also wishes to undertake sequential implementation, the FCA expects the firm's roll-out plan
IFPRU 4.3.10GRP
(1) The FCA may permit the exemption of exposures to sovereigns and institutions under article 150(1)(a) and (b) of the EU CRR respectively only if the number of material counterparties is limited and it would be unduly burdensome to implement a rating system for such counterparties.(2) The FCA considers that the 'limited number of material counterparties' test is unlikely to be met if for the UK group total outstandings to 'higher risk' sovereigns and institutions exceed either
IFPRU 4.3.11GRP
Where a firm wishes permanently to apply the Standardised Approach to certain business units on the grounds that they are non-significant and/or certain exposure classes or types of exposures on the grounds that they are immaterial in terms of size and perceived risk profile, the FCA expects to permit a firm to make use of this exemption only to the extent that the risk-weighted exposure amount calculated under article 92(3)(a) and (f) of the EU CRR that are based on the Standardised
IFPRU 4.3.12GRP
The following points set out the level at which the FCA expects the 15% test to applied for a firm that is a member of a group:(1) if a firm is part of a group subject to consolidated supervision in the EEA and for which the FCA is the consolidating supervisor, the calculations in (1) are carried out with respect to the wider group;(2) if a firm is part of a group subject to consolidated supervision in the EEA and for which the FCA is not the consolidating supervisor the calculation
IFPRU 4.3.14GRP
Where a firm wishes to permanently apply the Standardised Approach to exposures to connected counterparties in accordance with article 150(1)(e) of the EU CRR, the FCA would normally expect to grant permission to do so only if the firm had a policy that provided for the identification of connected counterparties exposures that would be permanently exempted from the IRB approach and also identified connected counterparty exposures (if any) that would not be permanently exempted
IFPRU 4.3.15GRP
In the event that a firm with IRB permission acquires a significant new business, it should discuss with the FCA whether sequential roll-out of the firm's IRB approach to these exposures would be appropriate. In addition, the FCA would expect to review any existing time period and conditions for sequential roll-out and determine whether these remain appropriate (see article 148 of the EU CRR).
IFPRU 4.3.17GRP
The FCA expects a firm to ensure that all documentation relating to its rating systems (including any documentation referenced in this chapter or required by the EU CRR that relate to the IRB approach) is stored, arranged and indexed in such a way that it could make them all, or any subset thereof, available to the FCA immediately on demand or within a short time thereafter.
PERG 6.7.2GRP
The disaster recovery provider sets up and maintains a range of IT and related facilities (PABX etc). The disaster recovery contracts so far considered by the FCA give the recipient, subject to certain conditions including an up front payment, priority access to all or a specified part of these facilities if a 'disaster' causes the failure of a similar business system on which the recipient relies. The provider sells access to the same facilities to a number of different recipients,
PERG 6.7.4GRP
However, the disaster recovery contracts considered by the FCA had two key features.(1) Priority access to facilities in the event of a disaster was expressed to be on a 'first come, first served' basis. The contracts provided expressly that if the facilities needed by recipient A were already in use, following an earlier invocation by recipient B, the provider's obligation to recipient A was reduced to no more than an obligation of 'best endeavours' to meet A's requirements.
PERG 6.7.5GRP
Based on these features, the FCA reached the conclusion, with which the other terms of the contracts were consistent (PERG 6.6.8 G (3)), that these disaster recovery contracts were not contracts of insurance.
PERG 6.7.6GRP
An important part of the conclusion in PERG 6.7.5 G was that, although the provider assumed a risk at the outset of the contract, looking at the contract as a whole and interpreting the common law in the context of the FCA objectives (see PERG 6.5.2 G and PERG 6.5.3 G) there was no relevant assumption of risk.(1) The presence or absence of an assumption of risk is an important part of the statutory rationale for the prudential regulation of insurance.(2) In Medical Defence Union
PERG 6.7.8GRP
Notwithstanding PERG 6.7.7 G, the FCA's view is that an obligation that is of the same nature as a seller's or supplier's usual obligations as regards the quality of the goods or services is unlikely to be an insurance obligation in substance.
PERG 6.7.9GRP
The FCA is unlikely to classify a contract containing a simple manufacturer's or retailer's warranty as a contract of insurance, if the FCA is satisfied that the warranty does no more that crystallise or recognise obligations that are of the same nature as a seller's or supplier's usual obligations as regards the quality of the goods or services.
PERG 6.7.11GRP
It follows from PERG 6.7.10 G that the FCA is unlikely to be satisfied that an obligation in a contract of sale or supply is of the same nature as the seller's or supplier's usual obligations as regards the quality of goods or services, if that obligation has one or more of the following features:(1) it is assumed by a person other than the seller or supplier (a 'third party'); or(2) it is significantly more extensive in content, scope or duration than a seller's usual obligations
PERG 6.7.12GRP
Other things being equal, the FCA is likely to classify a contract of sale containing a warranty that has one or more of the features in PERG 6.7.11 G as a contract of insurance. The features in PERG 6.7.11 G (1) and (2) typically distinguish a 'third party' warranty and an 'extended warranty' from a 'simple' manufacturer's or retailer's warranty.
PERG 6.7.13GRP
If a warranty is provided by a third party, the FCA will usually treat this as conclusive of the fact that there are different transactions and an assumption or transfer of risk. This conclusion would not usually depend on whether the provider is (or is not) a part of the same group of companies as the manufacturer or retailer. But it will be the third party (who assumes the risk) that is potentially effecting a contract of insurance.
PERG 6.7.14GRP
A manufacturer or retailer may undertake a warranty obligation to his customer in a separate contract with the customer, distinct from the contract of sale or supply of goods or services. The FCA will examine the separate contract to see if it is a contract of insurance. But the mere existence of a separate warranty contract is unlikely to be conclusive by itself.
PERG 6.7.15GRP
A manufacturer or retailer may undertake an obligation to ensure that the customer becomes a party to a separate contract of insurance in respect of the goods sold. This would include, for example, a contract for the sale of a freezer, with a simple warranty in relation to the quality of the freezer, but also providing insurance (underwritten by an insurer and in respect of which the customer is the policyholder) covering loss of frozen food if the freezer fails. The FCA is unlikely
PERG 6.7.16GRP
The FCA distinguishes the contract in PERG 6.7.15 G from a contract under which the manufacturer or retailer assumes the obligation to provide the customer with an indemnity against loss or damage if the freezer fails, but takes out insurance to cover the cost of having to provide the indemnity to the customer. The obligation to indemnify is of a different nature from the seller's or supplier's usual obligations as regards the quality of goods or services and is an insurance obligation.
PERG 6.7.17GRP
The following are examples of typical warranty schemes operated by motor dealers. Provided that, in each case, the FCA is satisfied that the obligations assumed by the dealer are not significantly more extensive in content, scope or duration that a dealer's usual obligations as to the quality of motor vehicles of that kind, the FCA would not usually classify the contracts embodying these transactions as contracts of insurance.(1) The dealer gives a verbal undertaking to the purchaser
PERG 6.7.19GRP
Some providers argued that these schemes amount to nothing more than a 'manufacturer's warranty' of their own work, within the scope of PERG 6.7.7 G (Example 3: manufacturers' and retailers' warranties). However, HM Revenue and Customs is expected to make a significant number of random checks of self-assessment forms, irrespective of the quality of the work done by the provider. These random checks are also covered by the schemes. The FCA concluded, therefore, that these schemes
PERG 6.7.21GRP
If, however, a contract of this kind were structured so that the recipient was charged at a commercial rate for any legal services in fact provided, the FCA's approach will be to treat the arrangement as non-insurance. This is principally because, by taking on obligations of this kind, the provider does not assume a relevant risk (see PERG 6.7.6 G). The position might be different if the solicitor carries the additional obligation to pay for alternative legal services to be provided
EG 19.29.1RP
1The Immigration Regulations give the FCA investigation and sanctioning powers in relation to the contravention of section 40 of the Immigration Act 2014 (the Immigration Act), as well as the contravention of requirements imposed by, or under, the Immigration Regulations.
EG 19.29.2RP
1The FCA's approach to taking enforcement action under the Immigration Regulations will mirror its general approach to enforcing the Act, as set out in EG 2. It will seek to exercise its enforcement powers in a manner that is transparent, proportionate and responsive to the issue and consistent with its publicly stated policies. It will also seek to ensure fair treatment when exercising its enforcement powers. Finally, it will aim to change the behaviour of the person who is
EG 19.29.3RP
1The Immigration Regulations, for the most part, mirror the FCA's investigative and sanctioning powers under the Act. The FCA has adopted procedures and policies for the use of those powers that are akin to those it has under the Act. Key features of the FCA's approach are described below.
EG 19.29.5RP
1The FCA will notify the subject of the investigation that it has appointed investigators to carry out an investigation under the Immigration Regulations and the reasons for the appointment, unless notification is likely to result in the investigation being frustrated. In most cases, the FCA expects to carry out a scoping visit early on in the enforcement process. The FCA's policy in civil investigations under the Immigration Regulations is to use powers to
EG 19.29.6RP
1The RDC is the FCA’s decision maker for decisions which require warning notices or decision notices to be given under the Immigration Regulations, as set out in DEPP 2 Annex 1G. The RDC will make its decisions following the procedure set out in DEPP 3.2 or, where appropriate, DEPP 3.3.
EG 19.29.7RP
1The Immigration Regulations do not require the FCA to publish procedures to commence criminal prosecutions. However, the FCA will normally follow its equivalent decision-making procedures for similar decisions under the Act, as set out in EG 12.
EG 19.29.8RP
1The Immigration Regulations apply sections 393 and 394 of the Act to warning notices and decision notices given under the Immigration Regulations and so require the FCA to give third party rights and to give access to material.
EG 19.29.10RP
1When determining whether to take action to impose a penalty or to issue a public censure under the Immigration Regulations, the FCA’s policy includes having regard to the relevant factors in DEPP 6.2 and DEPP 6.4. When determining the level of financial penalty, the FCA’s policy includes having regard to the relevant principles and factors in DEPP 6.5 to DEPP 6.5B, DEPP 6.5D and DEPP 6.7.
EG 19.29.11RP
1As with cases under the Act, the FCA may settle or mediate appropriate cases involving civil breaches of the Immigration Regulations to assist it to exercise its functions. DEPP 5, DEPP 6.7 and EG 5 set out information on the FCA’s settlement process and the settlement discount scheme.
EG 19.29.12RP
1When determining whether to take action to impose a suspension or restriction under the Immigration Regulations, the FCA's policy includes having regard to the relevant factors in DEPP 6A.2 and 6A.4. When determining the length of the period of suspension or restriction, the FCA's policy includes having regard to the relevant principles and factors in DEPP 6A.3.
EG 19.29.13RP
1The FCA will apply the approach to publicity that is outlined in EG 6.
REC 5.2.1GRP
An applicant for recognised body status needs to demonstrate to the FCA5 that it is able to meet the recognised body requirements31before a recognition order can be made. Once it has been recognised, a recognised body has to comply with the recognised body requirements31at all times. (Guidance on the recognised body requirements3 applicable to UK recognised bodies (and applicants) is given in REC 2 and REC 2A).35333
REC 5.2.1AGRP
In addition, under section 290A of the Act (Refusal of recognition on ground of excessive regulatory provision), the FCA5 must refuse to make a recognition order in relation to a body applying for recognition as a UK RIE if it appears to the FCA5 that an existing or proposed regulatory provision of the applicant in connection with the applicant's business as an investment exchange or the provision by the applicant of clearing facilitation services5 imposes, or will impose, an
REC 5.2.2GRP
(1) There is no standard application form. A prospective applicant should contact the Markets Division at the FCA5 at an early stage for advice on the preparation, scheduling and practical aspects of its application.5(2) It is very important, if an application is to be processed smoothly and in a reasonable time, that it is comprehensively prepared and based on a well-developed and clear proposal.
REC 5.2.3GRP
An application should:(1) be made in accordance with any directions the FCA5 may make under section 287 (Application by an investment exchange) of the Act or (for RAPs) regulation 2 of the RAP regulations;353355(2) in the case of an application under section5 287 of the Act, 3be accompanied by the applicant's regulatory provisions and in the case of an application under section 287 of the Act information required pursuant to sub-sections 287(3)(c), (d) and (e) of the Act (see
REC 5.2.5GRP
A prospective applicant who is an authorised person may wish to consult the FCA5 about the extent to which information which it has already supplied in connection with its status as an authorised person can be used to support an application to become a UK recognised body. 5
REC 5.2.5AGRP
3A UK RIE applying for recognition as an RAP may wish to consult the FCA5 about the extent to which information which it has already supplied in connection with its status as a UK RIE can be used to support an application to be recognised as an RAP.5
REC 5.2.6GRP
Under section 289 of the Act (Applications: supplementary) or (for an RAP applicant) regulation 2 of the RAP regulations,3 the FCA5 may require the applicant to provide additional information, and may require the applicant to verify any information in any manner. In view of their likely importance for any application, the FCA5 will normally wish to arrange for its own inspection of an applicant's information technology systems.55
REC 5.2.6AGRP
1In the case of an application to become a UK RIE or an RAP3, under subsection 290(1B) of the Act and (for an RAP applicant) regulation 2(8) of the RAP regulations3, the application must be determined by the FCA5 before the end of the period of six months beginning with the date on which it receives the completed application.5
REC 5.2.7GRP
At any time after making a formal application, the applicant may make amendments to its rules, guidance or any other part of its application submitted to the FCA.555
REC 5.2.8GRP
(1) The FCA5 will keep the applicant informed of the progress of the application.5(2) It may be necessary to ask the applicant to clarify or amplify some aspects of its proposals. The FCA5 may wish to discuss various aspects of the application and may invite the applicant to attend one or more meetings for that purpose. When requested to do so, the FCA5 will explain the nature of the information which it has asked an applicant to supply in connection with its application.55
REC 5.2.12GRP
Where the FCA5 considers that it is unlikely to make a recognition order it will discuss its concerns with the applicant as early as possible with a view to enabling the applicant to make changes to its rules or guidance, or other parts of the application (see REC 5.2.7 G). If the FCA5 decides that it will not make a recognition order, it will follow the procedure set out in section 298 of the Act (Directions and revocation: procedure) or (in the case of an RAP) regulation 5 of
REC 5.2.14GRP

Information and supporting documentation (see REC 5.2.4 G).

(1)

Details of the applicant's constitution, structure and ownership, including its memorandum and articles of association (or similar or analogous documents ) and any agreements between the applicant, its owners or other persons relating to its constitution or governance (if not contained in the information listed in REC 5.2.3A G)1. An applicant for RAP status must provide details of the relationship between the governance arrangements in place for the UK RIE and the RAP.3

(2)

Details of all business to be conducted by the applicant, whether or not a regulated activity (if not contained in the information listed in REC 5.2.3A G)1.

(3)

Details of the facilities which the applicant plans to operate, including details of the trading platform or (for an RAP) auction platform,3 settlement arrangements, clearing facilitation services5 and custody services which it plans to supply. An applicant for RAP status must provide details on the relationship between the auction platform and any secondary market in emissions auction products4 which it operates or plans to operate.3

54

(4)

Copies of the last three annual reports and accounts and, for the current financial year, quarterly management accounts.

(5)

Details of its business plan for the first three years of operation as a UK recognised body (if not contained in the information listed in REC 5.2.3A G)1.

(6)

A full organisation chart and a list of the posts to be held by key individuals (with details of the duties and responsibilities) and the names of the persons proposed for these appointments when these names are available (if not contained in the information listed in REC 5.2.3A G)1.

(7)

Details of its auditors, bankers, solicitors and any persons providing corporate finance advice or similar services (such as reporting accountants) to the applicant.

(8)

Details of any relevant functions to be outsourced or delegated, with copies of relevant agreements.

(9)

Details of information technology systems and of arrangements for their supply, management, maintenance and upgrading, and security.

(10)

Details of all plans to minimise disruption to operation of its facilities in the event of the failure of its information technology systems.

(11)

Details of internal systems for financial control, arrangements for risk management and insurance arrangements to cover operational and other risks.

(12)

Details of its arrangements for managing any counterparty risks.

5

(13)

Details of internal arrangements to safeguard confidential or privileged information and for handling conflicts of interest.

(14)

Details of arrangements for complying with the notification rules and other requirements to supply information to the FCA5.

5

(15)

Details of the arrangements to be made for monitoring and enforcing compliance with its rules and with its clearing, settlement and default arrangements.

(16)

A summary of the legal due diligence carried out in relation to ascertaining the enforceability of its rules (including default rules) and the results and conclusions reached.

5

(17)

Details of the procedures to be followed for declaring a member in default, and for taking action after that event to close out positions, protect the interests of other members and enforce its default rules.

(18)

Details of membership selection criteria, rules and procedures, including (for an RAP) details of how the rules of the UK RIE will change in order to reflect RAP status.3

(19)

Details of arrangements for recording transactions effected by, or cleared through, its facilities.

(20)

Details of arrangements for detecting financial crime and market abuse , including arrangements for complying with money laundering law.

(21)

Details of criteria, rules and arrangements for selecting specified investments to be admitted to trading on (or cleared by) an RIE and, where relevant, details of how information regarding specified investments will be disseminated to users of its facilities.

5

(22)

Details of arrangements for cooperating with the FCA5 and other appropriate authorities, including draft memoranda of understanding or letters.

5

(23)

Details of the procedures and arrangements for making and amending rules, including arrangements for consulting on rule changes.

(24)

Details of disciplinary and appeal procedures, and of the arrangements for investigating complaints.

SUP 15.11.1GRP
1Under section 64A of the Act, the FCA may make rules about the conduct of approved persons and persons who are employees of relevant authorised persons.
SUP 15.11.4GRP
Under section 64C of the Act, a firm must notify the FCA if it takes disciplinary action against any conduct rules staff and the reason for this action is a reason specified in rules made by the FCA in SUP 15.11.6R.
SUP 15.11.6RRP
If a reason for taking the disciplinary action is any action, failure to act or circumstance that amounts to a breach of COCON, then the firm is required to notify the FCA of the disciplinary action.
SUP 15.11.7GRP
A firm should make a separate notification about a person under section 64C of the Act where:(1) it has made a notification to the FCA about a person pursuant to SUP 15.3.11R(1)(a) because of a breach of COCON2; and(2) it subsequently takes disciplinary action against the person for the action, failure to act, or circumstance, that amounted to a breach of COCON.
SUP 15.11.8GRP
If, after a firm has made a notification for a person (A) pursuant to section 64C of the Act,2 it becomes aware of facts or matters which cause it to change its view that A has breached COCON, or cause it to determine that A has breached a provision of COCON other than the provision to which the notification related, the firm should inform the FCA of those facts and matters and its revised conclusion in line with a firm’s obligation to comply with Principle 11, SUP 15.6.4R and,
SUP 15.11.9GRP
If a firm takes disciplinary action as a result of a conduct breach (see SUP 15.11.6R) against an employee but the employee has appealed or plans to appeal, the firm should still report the disciplinary action under section 64C of the Act but should include the appeal in the notification. The firm should update the FCA on the outcome of any appeal.2
SUP 15.11.11GRP
In relation to any conduct rules staff, the FCA does not expect a firm to notify it pursuant to2section 64C of the Act if the2 breach of COCON occurred before the application of COCON to that firm.
SUP 15.11.12GRP
Where a firm is required to notify the FCA pursuant to2section 64C of the Act and that notification relates to an SMF manager, SUP 10C sets out how and when the notification must be made, and the relevant notification rules in SUP 10C apply.
SUP 15.11.13RRP
A firm must make any notifications required pursuant to2section 64C of the Act relating to a certification employee or other conduct rules staff annually. That notification should be made in October each year and cover the year up to the first day of that month.
SUP 15.11.14RRP
A firm must make any notifications required pursuant to2section 64C of the Act relating to a certification employee or other conduct rules staff on Form H (SUP 15 Annex 7R).
SUP 15.11.20GRP
Failing to disclose relevant information to the FCA may be a criminal offence under section 398 of the Act.
SUP 10A.14.1GRP
An FCA-approved person's job may change from time to time as a result, for instance, of a change in personal job responsibilities or a firm'sregulated activities. Where the changes will involve the person performing one or more FCA controlled functions different from those for which approval has already been granted, then an application must be made to the FCA for approval for the person to perform those FCA controlled functions. The firm must take reasonable care to ensure that
SUP 10A.14.2GRP
If an FCA-approved person or a PRA-approved person is ceasing to perform FCA controlled functions or PRA controlled function, as well as applying for approval in respect of FCA controlled functions, SUP 10A.14.4 D generally applies. Further details can be found in SUP 10A Annex 2.
SUP 10A.14.6GRP
If it is proposed that an FCA-approved person will no longer be performing an FCA controlled function under an arrangement entered into by one firm or one of its contractors, but will be performing the same or a different FCA controlled function under an arrangement entered into by a new firm or one of its contractors (whether or not the new firm is in the same group as the old firm), the new firm will be required to make a fresh application for the performance of the FCA controlled
SUP 10A.14.7GRP
In certain circumstances, when the FCA already has the information it would usually require, a shortened version of the relevant Form A may be completed. See the notes relevant to each form for full details.
SUP 10A.14.8RRP
(1) A firm must submit to the FCA a completed Form C, in the form set out in SUP 10A Annex 6R, no later than seven business days after an FCA-approved person ceases to perform an FCA controlled function.2(2) If:2(a) the firm is also making an application for approval for that approved person to perform a controlled function within the same firm or group; and2(b) ceasing to perform the FCA controlled function in (1) has triggered a requirement to make that application for approval:2(i)
SUP 10A.14.10RRP
(1) A firm must notify the FCA as soon as practicable after it becomes aware, or has information which reasonably suggests, that it will submit a qualified Form C in respect of an FCA-approved person.(2) Form C is qualified if the information it contains:(a) relates to the fact that the firm has dismissed, or suspended, the FCA-approved person from its employment; or(b) relates to the resignation by the FCA-approved person while under investigation by the firm, the FCA or any
SUP 10A.14.11GRP
Notification under SUP 10A.14.10 R may be made by telephone, email or fax and should be made, where possible, within one business day of the firm becoming aware of the information. If the firm does not submit Form C, it should inform the FCA in due course of the reason. This could be done using Form D, if appropriate.
SUP 10A.14.12GRP
A firm is responsible for notifying the FCA if any FCA-approved person has ceased to perform an FCA controlled function under an arrangement entered into by its appointed representative or former appointed representative.
SUP 10A.14.13GRP
A firm can submit Form C or Form E to the FCA in advance of the cessation date. When a person ceases the arrangement under which he performs an FCA controlled function, he will automatically cease to be an FCA-approved person in relation to that FCA controlled function. A person can only be an FCA-approved person in relation to a specific FCA controlled function. Therefore, a person is not an FCA-approved person during any period between ceasing to perform one FCA controlled function
SUP 10A.14.15RRP
If an FCA-approved person's title, name or national insurance number changes, the firm for which the person performs an FCA controlled function must notify the FCA on Form D, in the form set out in SUP 10A Annex 7R, of that change within seven business days of the firm becoming aware of the matter.
SUP 10A.14.16GRP
The duty to notify in SUP 10A.14.15 R does not apply to changes to an FCA-approved person's private address.
SUP 10A.14.17RRP
If a firm becomes aware of information which would reasonably be material to the assessment of an FCA-approved person's, or a FCA candidate's, fitness and propriety (see FIT), it must inform the FCA on Form D, or (if it is more practical to do so and with the prior agreement of the FCA) by e-mail or fax, as soon as practicable.
SUP 10A.14.19GRP
Failing to disclose relevant information to the FCA may be a criminal offence under section 398 of the Act.
SUP 10A.14.21GRP
(1) If, in relation to a firm which has completed the relevant Form A (SUP 10A Annex 4D), any of the details relating to arrangements and FCA controlled functions are to change, the firm must notify the FCA on Form D (SUP 10A Annex 7R). (2) The notification under (1) must be made as soon as reasonably practicable after the firm becomes aware of the proposed change.(3) This also applies in relation to an FCA controlled function for which an application was made using Form E.(4)
SUP 10A.14.23GRP
An example of where a firm should use Form D is when an individual who is appointed by one appointed representative becomes employed by another appointed representative but continues to perform the customer function for the firm. The firm should notify the FCA by completing Section 1.07 of Form D.
SUP 13.6.9CGRP
(1) 11If a UKfirm has exercised an EEA right under AIFMD and established a branch in another EEA State, the UKfirm must not make a material change in the requisite details of the branch or the identity of the AIFs it manages in the EEA State in which it has established a branch (see SUP 13 Annex 1), unless: (a) it has complied with regulation 17A(4) for a planned change; or(b) it has complied with regulation 17A(5) for a unplanned change.(2) The requirements in regulation 17A(4)
SUP 13.6.9DGRP
(1) 13A UK firm which has exercised an EEA right deriving from the MCD to establish a branch, must not make any material changes to the requisite details of the branch unless it has complied with the requirements in regulation 17(B)(2).(2) The requirements in regulation 17(B)(2) are that(a) the UK firm has given notice to the FCA stating the details of the proposed change; and(b) the period of one month beginning with the day on which the UK firm gave notice has elapsed.(3) Paragraph
SUP 13.6.12AGRP
17Where the PRA is the appropriate UK regulator, it will consult the FCA before deciding whether to give consent to a change (or proposed change) and where the FCA is the appropriate UK regulator, it will consult the PRA before deciding whether to give consent in relation to a UK firm whose immediate group includes a PRA-authorised person.
SUP 13.6.16GRP
7Standard forms are17 available from the FCA and PRA authorisations teams17 (see SUP 13.12 (Sources of further information)) to give the notices to the appropriate UK regulator17 described in SUP 13.6.5 G (1), SUP 13.6.5B G, SUP 13.6.7 G (1), SUP 13.6.8 G and SUP 13.6.10 G (1).171717
SUP 13.6.17GRP
7When the appropriate UK regulator17 receives a notice from a UK MiFID investment firm (see SUP 13.6.5BG (1)), it is required by regulation 11A(3) to inform the relevant Host State regulator of the proposed change as soon as reasonably practicable. The firm in question may make the change once the period of one month beginning with the day on which it gave notice has elapsed.17
SUP 13.6.18GRP
(1) 11When the FCA receives a notice from an AIFM (see SUP 13.6.9C G) for a planned change and such change means the AIFM no longer complies with AIFMD, the FCA must inform the AIFM without undue delay that:(a) the FCA objects to the change, including reasons for its decision; and(b) the AIFM must not implement the change.In these circumstances the AIFM may refer the matter to the Tribunal.(2) If a planned change is implemented or an unplanned change takes place and results in
SUP 13.6.19GRP
13When the FCA receives a notice from a UK firm exercising an EEA right under the MCD it will, under regulation 17(B)(3), inform the relevant Host State regulator of the proposed change as soon as reasonably practicable. The UK firm in question may make the change once a period of one month has elapsed beginning with the day on which it gave notice.
EG 19.23.1RP
1The FCA has investigation and sanctioning powers in relation to both criminal and civil breaches of the Electronic Money Regulations. The Electronic Money Regulations impose requirements including, amongst other things, various provisions regulating the rights and obligations of electronic money institutions.
EG 19.23.2RP
1In addition to its powers that apply to authorised electronic money institutions, generally the FCA has the power to prohibit or restrict the carrying out of certain regulated activities by EEA authorised electronic money institutions.
EG 19.23.3RP
1The FCA's approach to enforcing the Electronic Money Regulations will mirror its general approach to enforcing the Act, as set out in EG 2. It will seek to exercise its enforcement powers in a manner that is transparent, proportionate, responsive to the issue, and consistent with its publicly stated policies. It will also seek to ensure fair treatment when exercising its enforcement powers. Finally, it will aim to change the behaviour of the electronic money
EG 19.23.4RP
1The Electronic Money Regulations, for the most part, mirror the FCA's investigative, sanctioning and regulatory powers under the Act. The FCA has decided to adopt procedures and policies in relation to the use of those powers akin to those it has under the Act. Key features of the FCA's approach are described below.
EG 19.23.6RP
1The FCA will notify the subject of the investigation that it has appointed investigators to carry out an investigation under the Electronic Money Regulations and the reasons for the appointment, unless notification is likely to prejudice the investigation or otherwise result in it being frustrated. The FCA's policy in civil investigations under the Electronic Money Regulations is to use powers to compel information in the same way as it would in the course
EG 19.23.7RP
1The RDC is the FCA's decision maker for some of the decisions under the Electronic Money Regulations as set out in DEPP 2 Annex 1G. The RDC will make its decisions following the procedure set out in DEPP 3.2 or, where appropriate, DEPP 3.3 and 3.4. DEPP 3.4 applies for urgent notices under regulation 11(6), (9) and (10)(b) (including as applied by regulation 15).
EG 19.23.9RP
1The Electronic Money Regulations do not require the FCA to have published procedures to commence criminal prosecutions. However, in these situations the FCA expects that it will normally follow its decision-making procedures for the equivalent decisions under the Act.
EG 19.23.10RP
1The Electronic Money Regulations require the FCA to give third party rights as set out in section 393 of the Act and to give access to material as set out in section 394 of the Act in certain cases.
EG 19.23.11RP
1Certain FCA decisions (for example the cancellation of an authorisation or the imposition of a financial penalty) may be referred to the Tribunal by an aggrieved party.
EG 19.23.12RP
1When determining whether to take action to impose a penalty the FCA's policy includes having regard to the relevant factors in DEPP 6.2 and DEPP 6.4. When determining the level of a financial penalty the FCA's policy includes having regard to relevant principles and factors in DEPP 6.5 to 6.5D.
EG 19.23.13RP
1When determining whether to suspend the authorisation or, as the case may be, the registration of an electronic money institution or limit or otherwise restrict the carrying on of electronic money issuance or payments services business by an electronic money issuer the FCA's policy will have regard to the relevant factors in DEPP 6A.
EG 19.23.14RP
1As with cases under the Act, the FCA may settle or mediate appropriate cases involving civil breaches of the Electronic Money Regulations to assist it to exercise its functions under the Regulations in the most efficient and economic way. See DEPP 5, DEPP 6.7 and EG 5 for further information on the settlement process and the settlement discount scheme.
EG 19.23.15RP
1The Electronic Money Regulations apply section 169 of the Act which requires the FCA to publish a statement of policy on the conduct of certain interviews in response to requests from overseas regulators. For the purposes of the Electronic Money Regulations the FCA will follow the procedures described in DEPP 7.
IFPRU 2.2.16GRP
A firm should carry out assessments of the sort described in the overall Pillar 2 rule and IFPRU 2.2.13 R at least annually, or more frequently if changes in the business, strategy, nature or scale of its activities or operational environment suggest that the current level of financial resources is no longer adequate. The appropriateness of the internal process, and the degree of involvement of senior management in the process, will be taken into account by the FCA when reviewing
IFPRU 2.2.31RRP
(1) As part of its obligations under the overall Pillar 2 rule, a firm must carry out an evaluation of its exposure to the interest-rate risk arising from its non-trading activities.(2) The evaluation under (1) must cover the effect of a sudden and unexpected parallel change in interest rates of 200 basis points in both directions.(3) A firm must immediately notify the FCA if any evaluation under this rule suggests that, as a result of the change in interest rates described in
IFPRU 2.2.37RRP
(1) As part of its obligation under the overall Pillar 2 rule, a firm that is a significant IFPRU firm must:(a) for the major sources of risk identified in line with IFPRU 2.2.7R(2), carry out stress tests and scenario analyses that are appropriate to the nature, scale and complexity of those major sources of risk and to the nature, scale and complexity of the firm's business; and(b) carry out the reverse stress testing under SYSC 20 (Reverse stress testing).(2) In carrying out
IFPRU 2.2.46RRP
A firm that is not a member of a FCAconsolidation group must apply the ICAAPrules on an individual basis. [Note: article 108(1) of CRD]
IFPRU 2.2.48RRP
A firm controlled by a parent financial holding company in a Member State or a parent mixed financial holding company in a Member State must comply with the ICAAPrules on the basis of the consolidated situation of that holding company, if the FCA is responsible for supervision of the firm on a consolidated basis under article 111 of CRD. [Note: article 108(3) of CRD]
IFPRU 2.2.51RRP
For the purpose of the ICAAPrules as they apply on a consolidated basis or on a sub-consolidated basis: (1) the firm must ensure that the FCA consolidation group has the processes, strategies and systems required by the overall Pillar 2 rule;(2) the risks to which the overall Pillar 2 rule and the general stress and scenario testing rule refer are those risks as they apply to each member of the FCA consolidation group;(3) the reference in the overall Pillar 2 rule to amounts
IFPRU 2.2.52RRP
(1) This rule relates to the assessment of the amounts, types and distribution of financial resources, own funds and internal capital (referred to in this rule as "resources") under the overall Pillar 2 rule as applied on a consolidated basis and to the assessment of diversification effects as referred to in IFPRU 2.2.14 R (3)(b) as applied on a consolidated basis.(2) A firm must be able to explain how it has aggregated the risks referred to in the overall Pillar 2 rule and the
IFPRU 2.2.53RRP
(1) A firm must allocate the total amount of financial resources, own funds and internal capital identified as necessary under the overall Pillar 2 rule (as applied on a consolidated basis) between different parts of the FCA consolidation group. IFPRU 2.2.11 R (Identifying different tiers of capital) does not apply to this allocation(2) The firm must carry out the allocation in (1) in a way that adequately reflects the nature, level and distribution of the risks to which the group
IFPRU 2.2.54RRP
A firm must also allocate the total amount of financial resources, own funds and internal capital (referred to in this rule as "resources") identified as necessary under the overall Pillar 2 rule as applied on a consolidated basis or sub-consolidated basis between each firm which is a member of the FCA consolidation group on the following basis:(1) the amount allocated to each firm must be decided on the basis of the principles in IFPRU 2.2.53 R (2); and(2) if the process in (1)
IFPRU 2.2.55GRP
A firm to which the ICAAPrules apply on a consolidated basis need not prepare a consolidated basis assessment if such an assessment has been prepared by another member of its FCA consolidation group. In such cases, a firm may adopt such an assessment as its own. A firm nevertheless remains responsible for the assessment.
IFPRU 2.2.56GRP
The purpose of IFPRU 2.2.52 R to IFPRU 2.2.55 G is to enable the FCA to assess the extent, if any, to which a firm's assessment, calculated on a consolidated basis, is lower than it would be if each separate legal entity were to assess the amount of capital it would require to mitigate its risks (to the same level of confidence) were it not part of a group subject to consolidated supervision under Part One, Title II, Chapter 2 of the EUCRR (Prudential consolidation). The reason
IFPRU 2.2.59RRP
Where a firm is a member of a FCA consolidation group or a non-EEA sub-group, the firm must ensure that the risk management processes and internal control mechanisms at those levels comply with the obligations set out in the risk control rules on a consolidated basis (or a sub-consolidated basis).[Note: article 109(2) of CRD]
IFPRU 2.2.60RRP
Compliance with the obligations in IFPRU 2.2.59 R must enable the FCA consolidation group or the non-EEA sub-group to have arrangements, processes and mechanisms that are consistent, well integrated and ensure that data relevant to the purpose of supervision can be produced.[Note: article 109(2) of CRD]
IFPRU 2.2.63RRP
When the overall financial adequacy rule applies on a consolidated basis or sub-consolidated basis, the firm must ensure that at all times its FCA consolidation group maintains overall financial resources and internal capital, including own funds and liquidity resources, which are adequate, both as to amount and quality, to ensure that there is no significant risk that the liabilities of any members of its FCA consolidation group cannot be met as they fall due.
IFPRU 2.2.73GRP
(1) In identifying an appropriate range of adverse circumstances and events in accordance with IFPRU 2.2.37 R (2):(a) a firm will need to consider the cycles it is most exposed to and whether these are general economic cycles or specific to particular markets, sectors or industries;(b) for the purposes of IFPRU 2.2.37 R (2)(a), the amplitude and duration of the relevant cycle should include a severe downturn scenario based on forward-looking hypothetical events, calibrated against
IFPRU 2.2.74GRP
The FCA may formulate macroeconomic and financial market scenarios which a firm may use as an additional input to its ICAAP submission. In addition, the FCA may also ask a firm to apply specific scenarios directly in its ICAAP submission.
IFPRU 2.2.86GRP
A firm should include in the written record in IFPRU 2.2.43 R (Documentation of risk assessments) a description of the broad business strategy of the FCA consolidation group or the non-EEA sub-group of which it is a member, the group's view of its principal risks and its approach to measuring, managing and controlling the risks. This description should include the role of stress testing, scenario analysis and contingency planning in managing risk on an individual basis and consolidated
IFPRU 2.2.87GRP
A firm should satisfy itself that the systems (including IT) of the FCA consolidation group or the non-EEA sub-group of which it is a member are sufficiently sound to support the effective management and, where applicable, the quantification of the risks that could affect the FCA consolidation group or the non-EEA sub-group, as the case may be.
IFPRU 2.2.88GRP
In performing stress tests and scenario analyses, a firm should take into account the risk that its group may have to bring back on to its consolidated balance sheet the assets and liabilities of off-balance sheet entities as a result of reputational contagion, notwithstanding the appearance of legal risk transfer.
SUP 6.3.1AGRP
27Under section 55H of the Act, an FCA-authorised person may apply to the FCA to vary its Part 4A permission to:(1) allow it to carry on further regulated activities, other than a PRA-regulated activity; or(2) reduce the number of regulated activities it is permitted to carry on; or (3) vary the description of its regulated activities (including by the removal or variation of any limitations).
SUP 6.3.1BGRP
27Under section 55I of the Act, an FCA-authorised person may apply to the PRA to vary its Part 4A permission to add regulated activities which include a PRA-regulated activity.
SUP 6.3.2AGRP
27Under section 55L(5) of the Act a firm with a Part 4A permission may apply to the FCA for the imposition of a new requirement and/or the variation or cancellation of any requirement previously imposed by the FCA.
SUP 6.3.15DRP
(1) Subject to (1A), a17firm other than a credit union wishing to make an application under SUP 6 must apply online using the form specified on the ONA18system.14141727272718(1A) A firm wishing to make an application under SUP 6 which covers only credit-related regulated activities must submit any form, notice or application by using the form in SUP 6 Annex 5 and submitting it in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification).17(2) [deleted]271427(3)
SUP 6.3.28AGRP
27Where a firm applies to the PRA for the variation of its Part 4A permission, the FCA, in giving consent to such an application or imposing any requirements on the firm, is required by section 55B(3) of the Act to ensure that the firm satisfies and will continue to satisfy the threshold conditions for which the FCA is responsible in relation to all the regulated activities for which the firm has or will have Part 4A permission after the variation.
SUP 6.3.28BGRP
(1) 27The FCA's duty under section 55B(3) of the Act does not prevent it, having regard to that duty, from taking such steps as it considers necessary in relation to a particular firm, to meet any of its operational objectives. This may include granting or consenting to (as the case may be) a firm's application for variation of Part 4A permission when it wishes to wind down (run off) its business activities and cease to carry on new business as a result of no longer being able
SUP 6.3.32AGRP
27The FCA's power to vary a Part 4A permission after it receives an application from a firm extends to including in the Part 4A permission as varied any provision that could be included as though a fresh permission was being given in response to an application under section 55A of the Act (Application for permission). Under section 55E of the Act (Giving permission: the FCA) the FCA may:(1) incorporate in the description of a regulated activity such limitations (for example, as
SUP 6.3.32BGRP
27Thus, when determining an application for variation of Part 4A permission, the FCA can, include new limitations and vary existing limitations, either on application from the firm (for example, the customer categories with which a firm may carry on a specified activity) or, if considered appropriate, by the FCA under section 55E(5) of the Act.
SUP 6.3.32CGRP
27If a firm has applied (whether to the FCA or the PRA) for the variation of a Part 4A permission, the FCA has the power to impose on that person such requirements, taking effect on or after the variation of permission, as the FCA considers appropriate.
SUP 6.3.34AGRP
27Where a firm has made an application to the PRA for the variation of its Part 4A permission and requirements are imposed by the FCA which were not included in the firm's application, the FCA will be required to issue the firm with a warning notice and decision notice (see SUP 6.3.39 G).
SUP 6.3.36AGRP
27Where the application cannot be determined by the PRA without the consent of the FCA, section 55V(3) of the Act requires that the FCA's decision must also be made within the period required in SUP 6.3.35 G or SUP 6.3.36 G as appropriate.
SUP 6.3.37AGRP
27The FCA publishes standard times on its website setting out how long the application process is expected to take. From time to time, the FCA also publishes its performance against these times.
SUP 6.3.40GRP
DEPP9gives guidance on the FCA's27 decision making procedures including the procedures it will follow if it proposes to refuse an application for variation of Part 4A permission or for imposition or variation of a requirement27 either in whole or in part (for example, an application granted by the FCA27 but subject to limitations or requirements not applied for).92727
SUP 6.3.42GRP
(1) Firms should be aware that the appropriate regulator may exercise its own-initiative variation power to vary or cancel their Part 4A permission if they do not (see section 55J of the Act (Variation or cancellation on initiative of regulator)):2727(a) commence a regulated activity for which they have Part 4A permission27 within a period of at least 12 months from the date of being given; or27(b) carry on a regulated activity for which they have Part 4A permission27 for a period
PERG 8.14.4GRP
The FCA considers the effect of each of the conditions in PERG 8.14.3G (1) to PERG 8.14.3G (3) to be as follows.(1) The first condition requires the financial promotion to be made, so ruling out any financial promotions which are directed at persons. The effect of article 6(b) and (e) of the Financial Promotion Order is that a communication is made to a person when it is addressed to him and that person to whom the financial promotion is addressed is its recipient. This means
PERG 8.14.5GRP
In the FCA's opinion, the indicators referred to in PERG 8.14.4 G suggest that there are two essential elements of a one-off financial promotion. These are that it is tailored to the circumstances of the recipient and that it is individual in nature (in that it is not simply a personalised letter sent out as part of a general mailshot). Apart from this there is no need for the communication to be an isolated instance. For example, the fact that there may be a considerable number
PERG 8.14.6GRP
In the FCA's view, a group of recipients who may be engaging in investment activity jointly could include:(1) a married couple;(2) two or more persons who will invest jointly in a product (for example, a cohabiting couple who are not married or members of a family);(3) the directors of a company or partners in a firm;(4) members of a group of companies;(5) the participants in a joint commercial enterprise;(6) the members of an investment club; and(7) the managers or prospective
PERG 8.14.7GRP
A financial promotion may fail to satisfy all of the indicators referred to in PERG 8.14.4 G because it is addressed to more than one recipient and they are not persons who will engage in investment activity jointly. In the FCA's view, such a financial promotion is capable of being one-off where the persons are to enter into the same transaction and the promotion is tailored to their individual circumstances. This may typically happen during negotiations for the sale of a company
PERG 8.14.9GRP
In the FCA's view, a person such as an investment manager or adviser is not conducting an organised marketing campaign purely because he regularly provides a particular client with financial promotions as part of his service. Neither is such a person conducting an organised marketing campaign purely because he may have several clients whose personal circumstances and objectives may suggest that a particular investment opportunity may attract them. If he considers the individual
PERG 8.14.10GRP
In the FCA's view, a person will not be making one-off financial promotions simply by sending out a series of letters to a number of customers or potential customers where a few details are changed (such as the name and address) but the bulk of the letter is standard. Such letters would be likely to be part of an organised marketing campaign.
PERG 8.14.12GRP
In the FCA's view, the article 28A exemption should provide scope for persons such as professional advisers to make unsolicited real time financial promotions in various situations. For example, when approaching persons with whom their clients are proposing to do business or those persons’ professional advisers. The exemption will not apply where the financial promotions are part of an organised marketing campaign (see PERG 8.14.4G (3)). So, in cases where a professional adviser
PERG 8.14.13GRP
Whether or not it would be reasonable to believe that any person understands the risks associated with the investment activity covered in a financial promotion or would expect to be contacted about it must be judged on the particular circumstances. In the FCA's opinion, the exemption requires that the recipient has the required understanding of risk at the time the promotion is made to him. However, it would be reasonable to believe that a person understands the risk involved
PERG 8.14.16GRP
In order to make an unsolicited real time financial promotion, an overseas communicator must rely on either article 32 or article 33. Article 32 provides an exemption for unsolicited real time financial promotions made by an overseas communicator to persons who were previously overseas and were a customer of his then. This is subject to certain conditions, including that, in broad terms, the customer would reasonably expect to be contacted about the subject matter of the financial
PERG 8.14.18GRP
This exemption allows a person in another EEA State who lawfully carries on a controlled activity in that State to promote into the United Kingdom. The terms of the exemption are that the promotion must comply with the rules inCOBS 45,9MCOB 3 or CONC 39 (as relevant). Care should be taken as any failure to satisfy any of the relevant requirements of these rules may mean that this exemption is not satisfied and that the financial promotion may breach section 21 if it has not been
PERG 8.14.20GRP
In the FCA's opinion;(1) it will not matter that a person enters into arrangements for investment or other purposes provided that he also enters them into for commercial purposes; and(2) each participant must be carrying on the business in question in their own right.This means that the sponsors or promoters of a company who arrange for private investors to become shareholders will not be setting up a joint enterprise simply because the company may intend to carry on a relevant
PERG 8.14.24GRP
A person seeking to make a financial promotion to another person may wish to make enquiries of that person to establish whether he is certified. Unless another exemption applies or the financial promotion is approved by an authorised person, such enquiries will not be possible if the enquiry communication is an inducement or invitation to engage in investment activity. In the FCA's8 view, a communication which is merely an enquiry seeking to establish that a person holds a current
PERG 8.14.26GRP
Article 49(4) gives the list of conditions which, if all are met, is proof that the financial promotion is directed at relevant persons. It is not necessary for all or any of the conditions to be met for a financial promotion to be regarded as directed at relevant persons. Ultimately the matter will be one of fact to be determined by taking account of the circumstances in which the financial promotion is made. In the FCA's opinion, it is not necessary for a financial promotion,
PERG 8.14.27GRP
To be a sophisticated investor for the purposes of article 50, the recipient of a financial promotion must have a current certificate from an authorised person stating that he has enough knowledge to be able to understand the risks associated with the description of investment to which the financial promotion relates. Where the financial promotion is an outgoing electronic commerce communication3, the certificate may be signed by a person who is entitled, under the law of an EEA
PERG 8.14.28GRP
The exemption also requires that certain warnings are given to the potential investor. In this respect, article 50(3)(d) provides that the financial promotion must state that there is a significant risk of losing all monies invested or of incurring additional liability. In the FCA's view, these are alternative statements and whichever is the relevant statement should be included. If there is no risk of incurring additional liability the statement may simply say that there is a
PERG 8.14.37GRP
In the FCA's view, a main aim of the exemption (see PERG 8.14.35G (1)) is to remove from the scope of section 21 a financial promotion concerning the sale of a corporate business by a person who, either alone or with others, controls the business to another person who, either alone or with others, proposes to control the business.
PERG 8.14.40GRP
In the FCA's17 opinion, provided that the purpose of the transaction is for the buyer to acquire the necessary control, it is irrelevant who is the seller. The exemption specifically applies to financial promotions which are communicated on behalf of the parties or potential parties to the transaction.1717
PERG 8.14.41GRP
Several exemptions, including article 43 of the Financial Promotion Order (Members and creditors of certain bodies corporate), apply only in relation to relevant investments being shares or debentures or alternative debentures7 in the body corporate or a member of its group, or warrants or certificates representing certain securities relating to such shares or debentures or alternative debentures.7 In the FCA's view, an exchangeable debt security which is partly a debenture or
PERG 8.14.42GRP
The exemptions for bearer instruments (articles 41 and 42 of the Financial Promotion Order) relate to financial promotions made to or directed at persons entitled to bearer instruments. For clarity, the FCA takes the view that persons who hold bearer instruments through a clearing system such as Euroclear or Clearstream are persons entitled to those instruments for the purposes of articles 41 and 42.
SYSC 19D.3.2GRP
SYSC 12.1.13R(2)(dA) requires the firm to ensure that the risk management processes and internal control mechanisms at the level of any UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group of which a firm is a member, comply with the obligations in this section on a consolidated basis (or sub-consolidated basis).
SYSC 19D.3.3RRP
(1) This section applies in relation to dual-regulated firms Remuneration Code staff, except as set out in (3).(2) When establishing and applying the total remuneration policies for dual-regulated firms Remuneration Code staff, a firm must comply with this section in a way, and to the extent, that is appropriate to its size, internal organisation and the nature, the scope and the complexity of its activities (the dual-regulated firms remuneration principles proportionality rule).(3)
SYSC 19D.3.4RRP
(1) Dual-regulated firms Remuneration Code staff comprises:(a) an employee of a dual-regulated firm whose professional activities have a material impact on the firm’s risk profile, including any employee who is deemed to have a material impact on the firm’s risk profile in accordance with Regulation (EU) 604/2014 of 4 March 2014 (Regulatory technical standards to identify staff who are material risk takers); or(b) subject to (2) and (3), an employee of an overseas firm in SYSC
SYSC 19D.3.22GRP
The FCA would normally expect it to be appropriate for the ban on paying variable remuneration to members of the management body of a firm that benefits from exceptional government intervention to apply only to members of the management body who were in office at the time that the intervention was required.
SYSC 19D.3.24GRP
(1) This Remuneration Principle stresses the importance of risk adjustment in measuring performance, and the importance within that process of applying judgment and common sense. The FCA expects that a firm will apply qualitative judgements and common sense in the final decision about the performance-related components of variable remuneration pools. (2) A number of risk-adjustment techniques and measures are available, and a firm should choose those most appropriate to its circumstances.
SYSC 19D.3.33GRP
In the FCA’s view, circumstances in which a person will be using a personal hedging strategy include (and are not limited to) entering into an arrangement with a third party under which the third party will make payments, directly or indirectly, to that person that are linked to or commensurate with the amounts by which the person's remuneration is subject to reductions.
SYSC 19D.3.35GRP
(1) Taking account of the dual-regulated firms remuneration principles proportionality rule, the FCA does not generally consider it necessary for a firm to apply the rules in (2) where, in relation to an individual (X), both the following conditions are satisfied:(a) Condition 1 is that X’s variable remuneration is no more than 33% of total remuneration; and(b) Condition 2 is that X’s total remuneration is no more than £500,000.(2) The rules referred to in (1) are those relating
SYSC 19D.3.46GRP
(1) Guaranteed variable remuneration should be subject to the same requirements applicable to variable remuneration awarded by the firm including deferral, malus and clawback.(2) The FCA expects that guaranteed variable awards and retention awards should not be common practice for dual-regulated firms Remuneration Code staff and should be limited to rare, infrequent occurrences. The FCA expects a firm to provide prior notification to the FCA of any such proposed awards.
SYSC 19D.3.50RRP
A firm must ensure that any approval by its shareholders or owners or members, for the purposes of SYSC 19D.3.49R, is carried out in accordance with the following procedure: (1) the firm must give reasonable notice to all its shareholders or owners or members of its intention to seek approval of the proposed higher ratio;(2) the firm must make a detailed recommendation to all its shareholders or owners or members that includes:(a) the reasons for, and the scope of, the approval
SYSC 19D.3.51RRP
A firm must notify the FCA without delay of the decisions taken by its shareholders or members or owners including any approved higher maximum ratio.[Note: article 94(1)(g)(ii) of the CRD]
SYSC 19D.3.60GRP
(1) Deferred remuneration paid in:(a) shares or share-linked instruments should be made under a scheme which meets appropriate criteria, including risk adjustment of the performance measure used to determine the initial allocation of shares;(b) cash should also be subject to performance criteria.(2) The FCA would generally expect a firm to have a firm-wide policy (and group-wide policy, where appropriate) on deferral. The proportion deferred should generally rise with the ratio
SYSC 19D.3.62RRP
A firm must:(1) set specific criteria for the application of malus and clawback; and(2) ensure that the criteria for the application of malus and clawback in particular cover situations where the employee:(a) participated in, or was responsible for, conduct which resulted in significant losses to the firm; or(b) failed to meet appropriate standards of fitness and propriety.[Note: article 94(1)(n) of the CRD and Standards 6 and 9 of the FSB Compensation Standards][Note: The FSA
SYSC 19D.3.65GRP
The governing body (or, where appropriate, the remuneration committee) should approve performance adjustment policies, including the triggers under which adjustment would take place. The FCA may ask firms to provide a copy of their policies and expects firms to make adequate records of material decisions to operate the adjustments.
SYSC 19D.3.68GRP
(1) Sections 137H and 137I of the Act enable the FCA to make rules that render void any provision of an agreement that contravenes specified prohibitions in the dual-regulated firms Remuneration Code, and that provide for the recovery of any payment made, or other property transferred, in pursuance of such a provision.(2) SYSC 19D.3.66R and SYSC 19D.3.67R (together with SYSC 19D Annex 1) are:(a) rules referred to in (1) that render void provisions of an agreement that contravene