Related provisions for SUP 10C.12.10
541 - 560 of 1047 items.
1The FCA is a competent authority under the CPC Regulation, which aims to encourage and facilitate co-operation between competent authorities across the EU in consumer protection matters. The FCA is a competent authority for the purposes of specified EU
consumer protection laws27 in the context of the regulated activities of authorised firms and of breaches by UK
firms concerning “specified contracts” as defined in the Financial Services (Distance
1Under the CPC Regulation the FCA can request information from competent authorities in other member states to help it determine whether a relevant breach has taken, or may take, place. The FCA can also request that competent authorities in the relevant member states take action without delay to stop or prohibit the breach. All competent authorities are required to notify their counterparts in relevant member states when they become aware of actual or possible breaches of European
1The FCA may use its powers under the Act or under Part 8 of the Enterprise Act (for which, see paragraphs 19.10.1 to 19.10.15 above) in order to fulfil its obligations under the CPC Regulation. The FCA will decide on a case-by-case basis which powers will enable it to obtain its desired outcomes in the most effective and efficient way. In the majority of cases this is more likely to be by using its powers under the Act.
The firm may allocate the responsibility for its insurance mediation activity to an approved person (or persons) who is:5(1) (if the firm is not a relevant authorised person): 5(a) performing:5(i) an FCA governing function; or5(ii) a PRA governing function;5(other than a person who is a5non-executive director of the firm5); or(b) performing5 the apportionment and oversight function; or(c) performing5 the significant management function in so far as it relates to dealing in investments
(1) Typically a firm will appoint a director who is an approved person of that firm5 to direct its insurance mediation activity. A firm that is not a relevant authorised person may also appoint a person performing another FCA governing function or PRA governing function.5(1A) A firm should not appoint someone performing one of the FCA’s or PRA’s non-executive directorcontrolled functions or any other non-executive director.5(1B) Where5 responsibility for a firm’sinsurance mediation
The FCA will specify in the Financial Services Register the name of the persons to whom the responsibility for the firm'sinsurance mediation activity has been allocated. by inserting after the relevant controlled function the words "(insurance mediation)". In the case of a sole trader, the FCA will specify in the Financial Services Register the name of the sole trader as the 'contact person' in the firm.
In the FCA's view, it is the very existence of the body corporate that is the collective investment scheme. There are a number of statutory references that support this view. For example, it is clear that paragraph 21 of the Schedule to the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Collective Investment Schemes) Order 2001 (SI 2001/1062) (Arrangements not amounting to a collective investment scheme) is drafted on the basis that it is the body corporate itself that is (or would
Analysing a typical corporate structure in terms of the definition of a collective investment scheme, money will be paid to the body corporate in exchange for shares or securities issued by it. The body corporate becomes the beneficial owner of that money in exchange for rights against the legal entity that is the body corporate. The body corporate then has its own duties and rights that are distinct from those of the holders of its shares or securities. Such arrangements will,
In the FCA's view, the question of what constitutes a single scheme in line with section 235(4) of the Act does not arise in relation to a body corporate. This is simply because the body corporate is itself a collective investment scheme (and so is a single scheme). Section 235(4) contemplates a 'separate' pooling of parts of the property that is subject to the arrangements referred to in section 235(1). But to analyse a body corporate in this way requires looking through its
2A person performs the other local responsibility function in relation to a branch maintained in the United Kingdom by a third-country relevant authorised person if that person: (1) is performing:(a) a function allocated to that person under SYSC 4.8.10R (Local responsibility for a firm’s activities, business areas and management functions) in relation to the firm; or (b) FCA-prescribed senior management responsibility number (8) in the table in SYSC 4.8.9R (functions in relation
Table: Examples of how the other local responsibility function applies
Example |
Comments |
(1) ‘A’ is allocated local responsibility for one of a branch’s main business lines. A is also appointed to perform a PRA-designated senior management function for the same branch. |
A only needs approval to perform the PRA-designated senior management function. |
(2) ‘A’ is outside the branch’s management structure and A’s responsibilities for the branch are limited to setting overall strategy for the branch. A does not have responsibility for implementing that strategy. |
A is not performing the other local responsibility function. The reason for this is explained in SYSC 4.8.27G. SUP 10C.8.1R(2) is irrelevant to this example. |
(3) A small branch undertakes two business lines (wholesale lending and corporate investments). ‘A’ is head of wholesale lending and is also an executive director of the branch. ‘B’ is head of corporate investments and does not sit on the branch management committee but reports to it on corporate investments. The branch allocates local responsibility for these functions to A and B. Neither A nor B performs any other PRA or FCA-designated senior management functions. |
A only needs approval to perform the executive director function3. B needs approval to perform the other local responsibility function. |
(4) A branch does not have a Head of Internal Audit. ‘P’ is allocated local responsibility for internal audit in relation to that branch. |
P needs approval to perform the other local responsibility function. However, if P has already been approved to perform another PRA or FCA designated senior management function, then P will not be performing the other local responsibility function. |
(5) ‘A’ is appointed to perform the executive3director function. The same branch also allocates local responsibility for some branch functions to A. |
A only needs approval to perform the executive3director function. |
(6) ‘A’ is approved to perform the other local responsibility function. Later, A is appointed to perform the executive3director function for the same firm. |
A requires approval for the other local responsibility function when A is first appointed. When A is later approved to perform the executive3director function, A stops performing the other local responsibility function. The firm should use Form E to apply for approval for A to perform the executive3director function. |
(7) ‘A’ is appointed to perform: (a) the compliance oversight function for one firm (Firm X) in a group (which may or may not be a relevant authorised person); and (b) a function coming within the scope of the other local responsibility function for another firm (which is a third-country relevant authorised person) in the same group (Firm Y). |
A needs approval to perform the compliance oversight function for Firm X and the other local responsibility function for Firm Y. |
(8) ‘A’ is appointed to take on some functions that come within the other local responsibility function. Later, A is appointed as chief risk officer. |
On A’s first appointment, A will need to be approved to perform the other local responsibility function. On being approved as chief risk officer, A stops performing the other local responsibility function as being chief risk officer is a PRA designated senior management function. |
(9) ‘A’ is appointed as an executive director. A then resigns and takes up a job with the same firm coming within the other overall responsibility function. |
On A’s first appointment, A will need to be approved to perform the executive3director function. A will need to get approval to perform the other overall responsibility function before A gives up being a director. |
Note: Local responsibility is explained in SYSC 4.8.10R (Third-country relevant authorised persons: Allocation of responsibilities) |
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(1) The definition of the EEA branch senior manager function (SMF21) is similar to that of the significant management FCA-specified significant-harm function under SYSC 5.2.35R. However, only the former is an FCA-designated senior management function.(2) The main differences are:(a) SUP 10C.8.4R(2)(d) is not included in the significant management FCA-specified significant-harm function; and(b) the overriding requirements in SUP 10C.3 (General material about the definition of controlled
(1) This section applies to:(a) an authorised fund manager of an AUT, ACS1 or ICVC;(b) any other director of an ICVC; and(c) an ICVC;which is a UCITS scheme whose units may be marketed in another EEA State (the Host State).(2) The marketing of units of a UCITS scheme in the Host State may not commence until the FCA has, in accordance with paragraph 20B(5) (Notice of intention to market) of Schedule 3 to the Act, notified the authorised fund manager, in response to the application
(1) The authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme whose units are being marketed in the Host State must ensure that:(a) its instrument constituting the fund,2 its prospectus and, where appropriate, its latest annual report and any subsequent half-yearly report; and2(b) its key investor information document;together with their translations (wherever necessary), are kept up to date.(2) The authorised fund manager must notify any amendments to the documents referred to in (1) to
(1) The authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme whose units are being marketed in a Host State must ensure that an electronic copy of each document referred to in COLL 12.4.4 R (1) is made available on: (a) the website of the UCITS scheme or the authorised fund manager; or(b) another website designated by the authorised fund manager in the notification letter submitted to the FCA under paragraph 20B of Schedule 3 to the Act or any updates to it. (2) Any document that is made
As regards PERG 5.4.2G (1), the Business Order does not provide a definition of 'remuneration', but, in the FCA's view, it has a broad meaning and covers both monetary and non-monetary rewards. This is regardless of who makes them. For example, where a person pays discounted premiums for his own insurance needs in return for bringing other business to an insurance undertaking, the discount would amount to remuneration for the purposes of the Business Order. Remuneration can also
As regards PERG 5.4.2G (2), in the FCA's view, for a person to take up or pursue insurance mediation activity by way of business, he will usually need to be carrying on those activities with a degree of regularity. The person will also usually need to be carrying on the activities for commercial purposes. That is to say, he will normally be expecting to gain a direct financial benefit of some kind. Activities carried on out of friendship or for altruistic purposes will not normally
PERG 5.4.8 G contains a table that summarises the main issues surrounding the business test as applied to insurance mediation activities and that may assist persons to determine whether they will need authorisation or exemption. The approach taken in the table involves identifying factors that, in the FCA's view, are likely to play a part in the analysis. Indicators are then given as to the significance of each factor to the person's circumstances. By analysing the indicators
Article 61(3)(a) of the Regulated Activities Order defines a regulated mortgage contract as a contract which, at the time it is entered into, satisfies the following conditions:(1) the contract is one where a lender provides credit to an individual or trustees (the 'borrower');(2) the contract provides for the obligation of the borrower to repay to be secured by a first legal mortgage on land (other than timeshare accommodation) in the United Kingdom; and(3) at least 40% of that
(1) Article 61(3)(c) of the Regulated Activities Order states that credit includes a cash loan and any other form of financial accommodation. Although 'financial accommodation' has a potentially wide meaning, its scope is limited by the terms used in the definition of a regulated mortgage contract set out in PERG 4.4.1 G. Whatever form the financial accommodation may take, article 61(3)(a) envisages that it must involve an obligation to repay on the part of the individual who
The expression 'as or in connection with a dwelling' set out in PERG 4.4.1G (3) means that loans to buy a small house with a large garden would in general be covered. However, if at the time of entering into the contract the intention was for the garden to be used for some other purpose – for example, if it was intended that a third party were to have use of the garden – the contract would not constitute a regulated mortgage contract. Furthermore, the FCA would not regard a loan
(1) 2SUP 10C.1.4R reflects the provisions of section 59(8) of the Act and, where relevant, the Treaty.(2) It preserves the principle of Home State prudential regulation. (3) For an EEA relevant authorised person, the effect is to reserve to the Home State regulator the assessment of fitness and propriety of a person performing a function in the exercise of an EEA right. A member of the governing body, or the notified3UKbranchmanager, of an EEA relevant authorised person, acting
(1) SUP 10A.1.15R to SUP 10A.1.16DG (Appointed representatives) deal with the approved persons regime for appointed representatives of relevant authorised persons. (2) In general this chapter does not apply to appointed representatives of relevant authorised persons. SUP 10A applies instead.(3) In theory, a person employed by an appointed representative of a relevant authorised person could come within one of the controlled functions in this chapter. If so, that person will
(1) If it appears to the FCA that there is, or there may be, a breach of the listing rules or the disclosure rules and transparency rules4 by an issuer with a premium listing4, the FCA may in writing require the issuer to appoint a sponsor to advise the issuer on the application of the listing rules, the disclosure rules and the transparency rules4.4(2) If required to do so under (1), an issuer must, as soon as practicable, appoint a sponsor to advise it on the application of
(1) UK recognised bodies are encouraged to consider adopting appropriate internal procedures which will encourage their workers with concerns to blow the whistle internally about matters which are relevant to the functions of the FCA.22(2) In considering appropriate internal procedures, UK recognised bodiesmay find the guidance provided to firms in SYSC 18.2.2 G (2) and SYSC 18.2.2 G (3)1 helpful.1
In determining a person's honesty, integrity and reputation, the FCA5 will have regard to all relevant 3matters including, but not limited to, those set out in FIT 2.1.3 G which may have arisen either in the United Kingdom or elsewhere. The FCA5 should be informed of these matters (see SUP 10A.14.17 R and SUP 10C.14.18R5), but will consider the circumstances only where relevant to the requirements and standards of the regulatory system. For example, under FIT 2.1.3 G(1), conviction
The matters referred to in FIT 2.1.1 G to which the FCA5 will have regard, and to which a relevant authorised person should also have regard, 5include, but are not limited to:55(1) whether the person has been convicted of any criminal offence; this must include, where provided for by the Rehabilitation Exceptions Orders4to2 the Rehabilitation of Offenders Act 1974 or the Rehabilitation of Offenders (Northern Ireland) Order 1978 (as applicable)4, any spent convictions2; particular
16TC Appendix 5G sets out:(1) the criteria which the FCA may take into account when assessing a qualification provider; and(2) the information the FCA will expect the qualification provider to provide if it asks the FCA to add a qualification to the list of appropriate qualifications in TC Appendix 4E.
The Glossary definition of accredited body contains a list of bodies recognised by the FCA for the purpose of providing the independent verification required under TC 2.1.27 R. Information on accredited bodies, including guidance on the process for including a body in the list is set out inTC Appendix 6G and the obligation to pay the application fee is set out in FEES 3.2.1717
17A firm must notify the FCA as soon as reasonably practicable after it becomes aware, or has information which reasonably suggests, that any of the following events has occurred or may have occurred in relation to any of its retail investment advisers, and the event is significant:(1) a retail investment adviser, who has been assessed as competent for the purposes of TC 2.1.1 R, is no longer considered competent for those purposes; (2) a retail investment adviser has failed to
4An EEA firm that has exercised an EEA right under the auction regulation to establish a branch in the United Kingdom must notify the FCA7 by email to 7emissionstrading@fca.org.uk7 when it ceases to carry on regulated activities through a branch passport in the United Kingdom or whenever possible thereafter.
4 The sole purpose of the notification in SUP 14.6.3A R is to inform the FCA7 that it may discontinue its supervision of the UK branch of the incoming EEA firm's compliance with the applicable provisions. The applicable provisions that apply to that branch are set out in SUP 13A Annex 1 (Application of the Handbook to Incoming EEA Firms).7
(1) The purpose of REC 3.18 is to enable the FCA4 to monitor changes in the types of member admitted by UK recognised bodies and to ensure that the FCA4has notice of foreign jurisdictions in which the members of UK recognised bodies are based. UK recognised bodies may admit persons who are not authorised persons or persons who are not located in the United Kingdom, provided that the recognition requirements2or (for RAPs) RAP recognition requirements continue to be met.44(2) REC
Where a UK recognised body admits a member who is not an authorised person of a type of which, immediately before that time, that UK recognised body had not admitted to membership, it must immediately give the FCA4notice of that event, and:4(1) a description of the type of person whom it is admitting to membership; 2(2) (in relation to a UK RIE ) 2particulars of its reasons for considering that, in admitting that type of person to membership, it is able to continue to satisfy
Where a UK recognised body admits for the first time a member whose head or registered office is in a jurisdiction from which that UK recognised body has not previously admitted members, it must immediately give the FCA4notice of that event, and:4(1) the name of that jurisdiction; (2) the name of any regulatory authority in that jurisdiction which regulates that member in respect of activities relating to specified investments or (for an RAP) relating to emissions auction products;
2If a firm requires employees who are not subject to a qualification7 requirement in TC to pass a relevant examination from the list of recommended examinations maintained by the Financial Skills Partnership7, the appropriate regulator will take that into account when assessing whether the firm has ensured that the employee satisfies the knowledge component of the competent employees rule.777
Principle 2 requires a firm to conduct its business with due skill, care and diligence. The purpose of MCOB 1.6.3 R is to reinforce this. The FCA would expect firms to take appropriate steps to determine whether any mortgage it proposes to enter into is subject to FCA regulation and, if so, whether it is a regulated mortgage contract or a regulated credit agreement4.
If, notwithstanding the steps taken by a firm to comply with MCOB 1.6.3 R, it transpires that a mortgage which the firm has treated as unregulated or as a regulated credit agreement4 is in fact a regulated mortgage contract, the firm must as soon as practicable after the correct status of the mortgage has been established:(1) contact the customer and provide him with the following information in a durable medium:(a) a statement that the mortgage contract is a regulated mortgage
(1) MCOB 1.6.4 R(2) means, for example, that if a firm discovered immediately after completion that a loan was a regulated mortgage contract, the firm would be required to comply with MCOB 7.4 (Disclosure at the start of the contract).(2) Although MCOB 1.6.4 R recognises that firms may become aware that a mortgage is a regulated mortgage contract at a late stage, the FCA expects this to be an extremely rare occurrence. It could arise, for example, if a firm has acted on the understanding,
If the Part 4A permission of a firm contains a requirement obliging it to comply with this rule with respect to a third-country banking and investment group of which it is a member, it must comply, with respect to that third-country banking and investment group, with the rules in Part 2 of GENPRU 3 Annex 2, as adjusted by Part 3 of that annex.
In relation to each document in a firm'sCASS resolution pack a firm must:(1) put in place adequate arrangements to ensure that an administrator, receiver, trustee, liquidator or analogous officer appointed in respect of it or any material part of its property is able to retrieve each document as soon as practicable and in any event within 48 hours of that officer’s appointment; and(2) ensure that it is able to retrieve each document as soon as practicable, and in any event within
The FCA would expect a firm'sconflicts of interest policy to provide
for investment research to be
published or distributed to its clients in
an appropriate manner. For example, the FCA considers it will be:(1) appropriate for a firm to take reasonable steps to ensure that
its investment research is published
or distributed only through its usual distribution
channels; and(2) inappropriate for an employee (whether or not a financial
analyst) to communicate the substance of any
The FCA would expect a firm to
consider whether or not other business activities of the firm could
create the reasonable perception that its investment
research may not be an impartial analysis of the market in,
or the value or prospects of, a financial
instrument. A firm would
therefore be expected to consider whether its conflicts
of interest policy should contain any restrictions on the timing
of the publication of investment research.
For example, a firm might consider
whether
The FCA considers that the significant
conflicts of interest which could arise are likely to mean it is inappropriate
for a financial analyst or
other relevant person to prepare investment research which is intended firstly
for internal use for the firm's
own advantage, and then for later publication to its clients (in
circumstances in which it might reasonably be expected to have a material
influence on its clients' investment
decisions).
3Financial penalties, suspensions, restrictions, conditions, limitations1 and public censures are important regulatory tools. However, they are not the only tools available to the FCA, and there will be many instances of non-compliance which the FCA considers it appropriate to address without the use of formal disciplinary sanctions. Still1, the effective and proportionate use of the FCA's powers to enforce the requirements of the Act, the rules, COCON1 and the Statements of
3The FCA has the following powers to impose a financial penalty and to publish a public censure. (1) It may publish a statement: (a) against an approved person or conduct rules staff1 under section 66 of the Act;
(b) against an issuer under section 87M of the Act;
(c) against a sponsor under section 88A of the Act;
(ca) against a primary information provider under section 89Q of the Act;
3Section 415B of the Act requires the FCA to consult with the PRA before it takes certain enforcement action in relation to a PRA-authorised person or someone who has a qualifying relationship (as defined in section 415B(4) of the Act) with a PRA-authorised person. Further detail on when the FCA is required to consult the PRA, and when it has agreed to notify the PRA of certain matters, is set out in the Memorandum of Understanding between the PRA and the FCA.