Related provisions for LR 11.1.1D
401 - 420 of 1047 items.
In seeking to comply with its obligation to carry out checks on its internal records and accounts, a CASS small debt management firm may choose to follow the steps specifically required of CASS large debt management firms in undertaking a CASS large debt management firm internal client money reconciliation and CASS large debt management firm external client money reconciliation. A CASS small debt management firm which follows that procedure is likely to be regarded by the FCA
A CASS debt management firm must inform the FCA in writing without delay if:(1) its internal records and accounts of client money are materially out of date or materially inaccurate so that the firm is no longer able to comply with the requirements in CASS 11.11.1 R to CASS 11.11.4 R; or(2) it becomes aware that, at any time in the preceding 12 months, the amount of client money segregated in its client bank accounts materially differed from the total aggregate amount of client
A CASS large debt management firm must inform the FCA in writing without delay if:(1) after having carried out a CASS large debt management firm internal client money reconciliation in accordance with CASS 11.11.13 R it will be unable to, or materially fails to, pay any shortfall into (or withdraw any excess from) a client bank account so that the firm is unable to comply with CASS 11.11.23 R;(2) after having carried out a CASS large debt management firm external client money
In relation to adopting a reasonable approach to the time over which the payment shortfall4 or sale shortfall should be repaid,1the FCA takes the view that the determination of a reasonable repayment period will depend upon the individual circumstances. In appropriate cases this will mean that repayments are arranged over the remaining term. 141
Firms that propose to outsource aspects of customer relationships (including collection of debts or any other sums due1) should note that and SYSC 8,2 a firm cannot contract out its regulatory obligations and1 the FCA will continue to hold them responsible for the way in which this work is carried on.11
The chapter also sets out the FCA'srules, and guidance on these rules, that apply to a firm before it appoints, when it appoints and when it has appointed an appointed representative. The main purpose of these rules is to place responsibility on a firm for seeking to ensure that: (1) its appointed representatives are fit and proper to deal with clients in its name; and (2) clients dealing with its appointed representatives are afforded the same level of protection as if they had
The FCA has produced a leaflet entitled "Becoming an appointed representative" which provides a comprehensive summary of some of the main features of the appointed representative regime. You may download a copy of this leaflet from our website at http://www.fca.org.uk/your-fca/documents/factsheet-becoming-an-appointed-representative.
2This chapter also sets out guidance about section 39A of the Act, which is relevant to a UK MiFID investment firm that is considering appointing an FCA registered tied agent. It also sets out the FCA'srules, and guidance on those rules, in relation to the appointment of an EEA tied agent by a UK MiFID investment firm.
(1) If an offer is
made, or admission to trading is
sought, in one or more EEA States excluding
the United Kingdom and the United Kingdom is the Home
State, the prospectus must
be drawn up in a language accepted by the competent authorities of those EEA States or in a language customary in
the sphere of international finance, at the choice of the issuer, offeror or person requesting
admission (as the case may be). [ Note: article
19.2 PD ](2) For the purpose of the scrutiny
by
1In determining whether or not the conduct of an approved person performing an accountable higher management function under APER 4.6.5G, APER 4.6.6G and APER 4.6.8G complies with Statement of Principle 6, the following are factors which, in the opinion of the FCA, are to be taken into account:(1) the
competence, knowledge or seniority of the delegate; and (2) the
past performance and record of the delegate.
An approved person performing an accountable higher management function1 will not always manage the business on a day-to-day basis1. The extent to which the approved person1 does so will depend on a number of factors, including the nature, scale and complexity of the business and their1 position within it. The larger and more complex the business, the greater the need for clear and effective delegation and reporting lines. The FCA1 will look to the approved person performing an
(1) An approved person performing an accountable higher management function1may delegate
the investigation, resolution or management of an issue or authority for dealing
with a part of the business to individuals who report to them 1or to others.(2) The approved person performing an accountable higher management function1should have
reasonable grounds for believing that the delegate has the competence, knowledge,
skill and time to deal with the issue. For instance, if the compliance
13The FCA performs part of its supervision work by reviewing and analysing information about firms' records of compliance with the requirements and standards under the regulatory system. The type of report the FCA requires will vary, depending on the type of business a firm undertakes. This information helps the FCA to determine whether a firm is complying with the requirements applicable to its business, and what procedures it is operating to ensure its compliance.
(1) The report from a trustee of an AUT to the FCA13 must state, in relation to the manager of each AUT for which it is a trustee, the number of times during the quarter in which facts came to the firm's knowledge from which it appeared, or might have appeared, that the manager had failed (materially or otherwise) to: 13(a) give correct instructions to the trustee to create or cancel units in the AUT when the manager should have done so, and the error: (i) resulted in the creation
In some firms, the chairman of the nomination committee is also the chairman of the governing body. As being chairman of the governing body is a PRA controlled function, the chairman may not need approval to perform the chair of the nomination committee function but instead just need PRA approval for being chairman of the governing body.
(See SUP 10C.9 (Minimising overlap with the PRA approved persons regime) for an explanation of when PRA approval means that FCA approval is
(1) As explained in SUP 10C.7.4G, the FCA does not expect a non-executive director ever to perform the other overall responsibility function.(2) Therefore, a non-executive director will not need to be approved to perform any FCA-designated senior management function unless they perform the chair of the nomination committee function.
(1) An issuer must forward to the FCA, for publication through the document viewing facility, two copies of any document required by LR 17.3 or LR 17.4 at the same time the document is issued.(2) An issuer must notify a RIS as soon as possible when a document has been forwarded to the FCA under paragraph (1) unless the full text of the document is provided to the RIS.(3) A notification made under paragraph (2) must set out where copies of the relevant document can be obtain
(1) An issuer'ssecurities must be admitted to trading on a RIE's market for listed securities at all times.(2) An issuer must inform the FCA in writing without delay if it has:(a) requested a RIE to admit or re-admit any of its listed securities to trading; or(b) requested a RIE to cancel or suspend trading of any of its listed securities; or(c) been informed by a RIE that the trading of any of its listed securities will be cancelled or suspended.
(1) If an issuer prepares both own and consolidated annual accounts it may publish either form provided that the unpublished accounts do not contain any significant additional information.1(2) If the annual accounts do not give a true and fair view of the assets and liabilities, financial position and profits or losses of the issuer or group, additional information must be provided to the satisfaction of the FCA.1(3) An issuer incorporated or established in a non-EEA State which
An issuer must ensure that any circular it issues to holders of its listed securities about proposed amendments to a trust deed includes:(1) an explanation of the effect of the proposed amendments; and(2) either the full terms of the proposed amendments, or a statement that they will be available for inspection:(a) from the date the circular is sent until the close of the relevant general meeting at a place in or near the City of London or such other place as the FCA may determine;
1APER applies to FCA-approved persons and PRA-approved persons who fall under (1) or (2):(1) approved persons of firms that are not:(a) relevant authorised persons; or(b) Solvency II firms or small non-directive insurers2; or(2) approved persons approved to perform a controlled function in SUP 10A.1.15R to SUP 10A.1.16BR (appointed representatives).
(1) 1APER does not apply to FCA-approved persons or PRA-approved persons of relevant authorised persons2, Solvency II firms or small non-directive insurers2. COCON applies instead. For the purposes of APER (and SYSC, SUP 10A, COCON and DEPP) a large non-directive insurer is treated as and included in the Glossary definition of a Solvency II firm2. (2) However, APER applies to approved persons approved to perform a controlled function under SUP 10A.1.15R to SUP 10A.1.16BR (appointed
APER 1.1A.7 G gives examples of the effect of APER 1.1A.1R and APER 1.1A.2R1. The first column says whether the example involves an FCA-approved person and the second column says whether the example involves a PRA-approved person. So for example if there is a "Yes" in both columns that means that the example concerns a person who has been approved both by the FCA and by the PRA. The third column explains what functions APER covers in the scenario set out in the first two columns.
Table: Examples of what activities APER covers
FCA approved |
PRA approved |
Coverage of APER |
FCA-authorised person |
||
(1) Yes, in relation to firm A |
Not applicable |
Applies to the FCAcontrolled function. Also applies to any other function performed for firm A in relation to the carrying on by firm A of a regulated activity even if it is not a controlled function. |
Not applicable |
In relation to firm A, the answer is the same as for scenario (1). However, APER does not apply to any function that the approved person carries on in relation to firm B even if that function relates to regulated activities carried out by firm B. However, if the function that he performs in relation to firm B is a controlled function the approved person and firm B may be subject to legal sanctions (see SUP 10A.13.1 G to SUP 10A.13.2 G). |
|
PRA-authorised person that is not a relevant authorised person, or a Solvency II firm or a small non-directive insurer.2 1 |
||
(3) Yes, in relation to firm A |
No |
The answer is the same as for scenario (1). |
(4) No |
Yes, in relation to firm A |
Applies to PRAcontrolled function. Also applies to any other function performed for firm A in relation to the carrying on by firm A of a regulated activity even if it is not a controlled function. |
(5) Yes, in relation to firm A |
Yes, in relation to firm A |
Applies to FCAcontrolled function and PRAcontrolled function. Also applies to any other function performed for firm A in relation to the carrying on by firm A of a regulated activity even if it is not a controlled function. |
In relation to firm A, the answer is the same as for scenario (5). However, APER does not apply to any function that the approved person carries on in relation to firm B even if that function relates to regulated activities carried out by firm B. However, if the function that he performs in relation to firm B is a controlled function the approved person and firm B may be subject to legal sanctions (see SUP 10A.13.1 G to SUP 10A.13.21G). |
||
1PRA-authorised person that is a relevant authorised person, a Solvency II firm or a small non-directive insurer2. |
||
No |
No. APER does not apply to approved persons of relevant authorised persons, Solvency II firms or small non-directive insurers2. COCON applies instead. |
|
1(8) No |
Yes, in relation to firm A |
The answer is the same as for scenario (7). |
Yes, in relation to firm A |
The answer is the same as for scenario (7). |
|
Once every calendar year, a CASS debt management firm must notify the FCA, in writing, of the information in (1), (2) or (3), as applicable, and the information in (4), in each case no later than the day specified in (1) to (4):(1) if it held client money in the previous calendar year, the highest total amount of client money held during the previous calendar year, notification of which must be made no later than the fifteenth business day of January; or (2) if it did not hold
(1) Notwithstanding CASS 11.2.3 R, provided that the conditions in (2) are satisfied, a CASS debt management firm that would otherwise be classified as a CASS small debt management firm under the limits provided for in CASS 11.2.3 R may elect to be treated as a CASS large debt management firm.(2) The conditions to which (1) refers are that in either case: (a) the election is notified to the FCA in writing;(b) the notification in accordance with (a) is made at least one week before
A firm's 'CASS debt management firm type' and any change to it takes effect:(1) if the firm notifies the FCA in accordance with CASS 11.2.4 R (1) or CASS 11.2.4 R (2), on 1 February following the notification; or(2) if the firm notifies the FCA in accordance with CASS 11.2.4 R (3), on the day it begins to hold client money; or(3) if the firm makes an election under CASS 11.2.7 R and provided the conditions in CASS 11.2.7 R (2) are satisfied, on the day the notification made under
This chapter applies principally to any person who needs to know whether he carries on insurance mediation activities and is thereby subject to FCA regulation. As such it will be of relevance among others to:(1) insurance brokers;(2) insurance advisers;(3) insurance undertakings; and(4) other persons involved in the sale and administration of contracts of insurance, even where these activities are secondary to their main business.
This guidance is issued under section 139A of the Act (Guidance). It is designed to throw light on particular aspects of regulatory requirements, not to be an exhaustive description of a person's obligations. If a person acts in line with the guidance and the circumstances contemplated by it, then the FCA will proceed on the footing that the person has complied with aspects of the requirement to which the guidance relates.
Rights conferred on third parties cannot be affected by guidance given by the FCA. This guidance represents the FCA's view, and does not bind the courts, for example, in relation to the enforceability of a contract where there has been a breach of the general prohibition on carrying on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom without authorisation (see sections 26 to 29 of the Act (Enforceability of Agreements)).
(1) The following must apply to their consolidating supervisor for approval of any proposed RRD group financial support agreement or of any amendment to that agreement:(a) a firm that is the EEA parent undertaking of an RRD group;(b) a qualifying parent undertaking that is the EEA parent undertaking of an RRD group; and(c) an IFPRU 730k firm that is a subsidiary of an EEA parent undertaking of an RRD group: (i) where the EEA parent undertaking is an EEA parent financial holding
The FCA will not approve an RRD group financial support agreement unless:(1) in its opinion, none of the parties has infringed an RRD early intervention condition or is likely to infringe one of those conditions in the near future;(2) the agreement complies with the conditions for entering into an RRD group financial support agreement in IFPRU 11.5.9 R to IFPRU 11.5.12 R; and(3) the terms of the proposed agreement are consistent with the conditions for giving financial support
An RRD group member may only give financial support using an RRD group financial support agreement if the FCA has:(1) agreed to the giving of the support with restrictions; or(2) agreed to the giving of the support without restrictions; or(3) not prohibited the support within five business days of receiving a notice of intention to give financial support.[Note: article 25(2) and (5) of RRD]
Section 80 (1) of the Act (general duty of disclosure in listing
particulars) requires listing particulars submitted
to the FCA to contain all such information as investors
and their professional advisers would reasonably require, and reasonably expect
to find there, for the purpose of making an informed assessment of:(1) the assets and liabilities, financial
position, profits and losses, and prospects of the issuer of
the securities; and(2) the rights attaching to the securi
A request to the FCA to authorise the omission of specific
information in a particular case must:(1) be in writing from the issuer;(2) identify the specific information
concerned and the specific reasons for the omission; and(3) state why in the issuer's opinion
one or more of the grounds in section 82 of the Act applies.
The FCA anticipates that there will be only a few firms needing to seek approval for an individual to perform the significant management function set out in SUP 10A.9.1R (1). In most firms, those approved for the FCA governing functions, FCA required functions and, where appropriate, the systems and controls function or the equivalent PRA controlled functions, are likely to exercise all the significant influence at senior management level.
A proprietary trader undertakes activities with the firm'smoney and has the ability to commit the firm. By virtue of this role, all proprietary traders have potential to be able to exercise significant influence on the firm for the purposes of the definition of significant-influence function. Therefore, it is the FCA's expectation that all firms will assess all their proprietary traders to ascertain the ones for whom approval is required.
The question may arise whether a manager who is based overseas will be performing the significant management function under SUP 10A.9.9 R and should, therefore, be an FCA-approved person. This is especially true where the firm operates matrix management. The fact there is a person performing the apportionment and oversight function, and who has responsibility for activities subject to regulation by the FCA, may have a bearing on this. It is a factor to take into account when assessing
A firm is not subject to consolidated supervision under the rules in this Chapter where any of the following conditions are fulfilled: (1) the firm is included in the supervision on a consolidated basis of the group of which it is a member by a competent authority other than the FCA; or (2) the firm is a member of a UK consolidation group already included in the supervision on a consolidated basis of the group of which it is a member by the FCA under BIPRU 8; or (3) the firm
A firm need not meet the requirements in rules 14.3.1 and 14.3.2 if: (1) there is no credit
institution in the group;
(2) no firm in the group
deals in investments as principal, except where it is dealing solely as a result of its activity of operating a collective investment
scheme, or where the firm's positions fulfil the CAD Article 5 exempting criteria; (3) [Deleted](4) the firm notifies
If the firm notifies the FCA under rule 14.1.4 that it will not apply the rules in this section, it must: (1) submit to FCA a consolidated supervision return within the time period specified by SUP 16, together with a consolidated profit and loss
account;
(2) ensure that each firm in the group deducts from its solo financial resources any quantifiable contingent liability in respect of other group entities; (3) ensure that the solo financial
(1) [Deleted](2) The conditions in rule 14.1.5 aim to ensure that the firm is protected from weaknesses in other group entities. (3) In rule 14.1.5(2), contingent liabilities includes direct and indirect guarantees.
(4) 14.1.5(3) aims to ensure that the expenditure-based requirement incorporates the firm's actual ongoing annual expenditures (including any share of depreciation on fixed assets) where these have been met by another group entity. (5) The FCA
The FCA22, (for FCA and PRA22periodic fees, FOS and FSCS levies and CFEB levies), expects11 to issue invoices at least 30 days before the date on which the relevant amounts fall due. Accordingly it will generally be the case that a person will have at least 30 days from the issue of the invoice before an administrative fee becomes payable.226723117232
Paragraph 1323(8) of Schedule 1ZA 13of the Act permits 13the FCA13to recover fees (including13 fees relating to payment services,5 the issuance of electronic money, fees relating to CBTL firms24 and, where relevant, FOS levies and CFEB levies6), and section 213(6) permits the FSCS to recover shares of the FSCS levy payable, as a debt owed to the FCA13and FSCS respectively. The 13FCA13and FSCS, as relevant, will consider taking action for recovery (including interest) through the
In addition, the FCA13may be entitled to take regulatory action in relation to the non-payment of fees,6FOS levies and CFEB levies. The FCA136 may also take regulatory action in relation to the non-payment of FOS case fees or 723 a723 share of the FSCS levy, after reference of the matter to the6FCA13 by the6FSCS. What action (if any) that is taken by the FCA13will be decided upon in the light of the particular circumstances of the case.666723723
Reports of transactions made in accordance with Articles 25 (3) and (5) of MiFID shall contain the information specified in SUP 17 Annex 1 EU which is relevant to the type of financial instrument in question and which the FCA declares is not already in its possession or is not available to it by other means. |
[Note: article 13(1) of the MiFID Regulation.] |
11A firm must keep at the disposal of the FCA, for at least five years, the relevant
data relating to all transactions in financial instruments which it has carried
out, whether on own account or on behalf of a client.
In the case of transactions carried
out on behalf of clients, the
records shall contain all the information and details of the identity of the client, and the information required under
the money laundering directive.[Note:
article 25(2) of MiFID]
11The
requirement to keep information at the disposal of the FCA means that a firm should
maintain that information in such a form that it can readily be gathered and
transmitted to the FCA upon request. Where more than
one firm has given effect to
a transaction, each firm should be considered to have carried
out the transaction for the
purposes of SUP 17.4.3 R and should keep the records, even where only
one firm makes a transaction report as contemplated in this
Chapter.
An example of a good or service 3relating to the execution of trades that the FCA does not regard as meeting the requirements of the rule on use of dealing commission (COBS 11.6.3 R) is post-trade analytics. These would not meet the evidential criteria for a good or service to be directly related to the execution of trades under COBS 11.6.4E (1).33
Examples of goods or services that relate to the provision of research that the FCA does not regard as meeting the requirements of the rule on use of dealing commission (COBS 11.6.3 R) include price feeds or historical price data that have not been analysed or manipulated in order to present the investment manager with meaningful conclusions. These would not meet the evidential criteria for a good or service to amount to the provision of substantive research under COBS 11.6.5E
Examples of goods or services that relate to the execution of trades or the provision of research that the FCA does not regard as meeting the requirements of either evidential provisions COBS 11.6.4E (1) or COBS 11.6.5E (1)3 include:3(1) services relating to the valuation or performance measurement of portfolios;(2) computer hardware; (3) connectivity services such as electronic networks and dedicated telephone lines; (4) seminar fees;(4A) 3corporate access services;3(5) subscriptions
The reference to substantive 3research in the rule on use of dealing commission (COBS 11.6.3 R) is not confined to investment research as defined in the Glossary. Substantive research can potentially be or include investment research, but this is not part of the criteria under COBS 11.6.5 E.3 In addition, any goods or services that relate to the provision of research that the FCA regards as not acceptable under COBS 11.6.7 G or COBS 11.6.8 G3 should be viewed as not meeting the
In assessing the adequacy of prior and periodic disclosures made by an investment manager under this section, the FCA will have regard to the extent to which the investment manager adopts disclosure standards developed by industry associations such as the Investment Management Association, the National Association of Pension Funds and the Association for Financial Markets in Europe.
(1) One purpose of the management responsibilities map for third country relevant authorised persons is to help the firm and the FCA satisfy themselves that the branch has a clear organisational structure (as required by SYSC, where applicable). (2) It also helps the FCA to identify who it needs to speak to about particular issues and who is accountable if something goes wrong.
(1) The management responsibilities map is an important support to the FCA’s functions as Host Statecompetent authority.(2) Having requirements and powers that apply directly to individuals helps to make the requirements on firms that the FCA is required or entitled to impose as Host Statecompetent authority more effective.(3) The management responsibilities map helps the FCA to operate its powers and requirements for individuals. For example it helps the FCA:(a) to identify
An EEA relevant authorised person may exclude from its management responsibilities map:(1) any information contained in its requisite details;(2) any information contained in any notice of changes to its requisite details under the EEA Passport Rights Regulations; and(3) any other information that has been supplied by the firm to the FCA or the PRA (including through the firm’sHome Statecompetent authority) if:(a) that information was supplied to the FCA or the PRA as a Host Statecompetent
(1) The guidance in this paragraph applies to EEA relevant authorised persons and third-country relevant authorised persons.(2) The FCA expects that the management responsibilities map of a small and non-complex branch is likely to be simple and short. It may be no more than a single sheet of paper.(3) A branch is likely to be small and non-complex if it:(a) conducts a limited number of simple business lines; and(b) does not rely on group governance arrangements or on governance
A firm does not have to give notice to the FCA2 under SUP 15.9.1 R if it or another member of the consolidation group has already given notice of the relevant fact to:55(1) the FCA2 or55(2) (if another competent authority is co-ordinator of the financial conglomerate ) that competent authority; or(3) (in the case of a financial conglomerate that does not yet have a co-ordinator ) the competent authority who would be co-ordinator under Article 10(2) of the Financial Groups Directive
(1) 3A firm must, at the level of the EEA financial conglomerate, regularly provide the FCA2 with details on the financial conglomerate's legal structure and governance and organisational structure, including all regulated entities, non-regulated subsidiaries and significant branches.(2) A firm must disclose publicly, at the level of the EEA financial conglomerate, on an annual basis, either in full or by way of references to equivalent information, a description of the financial