Related provisions for SUP 15.3.20
21 - 40 of 103 items.
(1) The purpose of SYSC 4.8.10R is to avoid gaps. It is to ensure that an SMF manager has responsibility for every part of a branch’s activities, business areas and management functions not otherwise covered by other parts of this section or by the equivalent PRA requirements.(2) SYSC 4.8.10R(1) refers to the activities, business areas and management functions of the branch that are under the management of the branch’sgoverning body. However, the FCA recognises that for some branches,
Operating processes and systems at separate geographic locations may alter a firm's operational risk profile (including by allowing alternative sites for the continuity of operations). A firm should understand the effect of any differences in processes and systems at each of its locations, particularly if they are in different countries, having regard to:(1) the business operating environment of each country (for example, the likelihood and impact of political disruptions or
If a firm is not a significant IFPRU firm its recovery plan must include:(1) a summary of the key elements of the recovery plan;(2) information on the governance of the firm, including: (a) how the recovery plan is integrated into the corporate governance of the firm; and (b) the firm's overall risk management framework;(3) a description of the legal and financial structures of the firm, including:(a) the core business lines; and(b) critical functions;(4) recovery options, including:(a)
The FCA will:(1) expect the issuer to demonstrate that it has in place appropriate systems, controls, procedures and policies, including in relation to risk management, underwriting, arrears and valuation; (2) expect the issuer to demonstrate that the cash-flows generated by the assets would be sufficient to meet the payments due in a timely manner including under conditions of economic stress and in the event of the failure of the issuer;(3) take account of any over collateralisation
In determining whether the UK recognised body meets the recognition requirement in Regulation 6(3), the FCA3 may have regard to whether that body has ensured that the person who performs that function on its behalf:3(1) has sufficient resources to be able to perform the function (after allowing for any other activities);(2) has adequate systems and controls to manage that function and to report on its performance to the UK recognised body;(3) is managed by persons of sufficient
In determining whether a UK recognised body continues to satisfy the recognition requirements where it has made arrangements for any function to be performed on its behalf by any person , the FCA3 may have regard, in addition to any of the matters described in the appropriate section of this chapter, to the arrangements made to exercise control over the performance of the function, including:3(1) the contracts (and other relevant documents) between the UK recognised body and the
If the RRD group includes an IFPRU 730k firm that is not a significant IFPRU firm (and does not include an IFPRU 730k firm that is a significant IFPRU firm) the group recovery plan must include:(1) a summary of the key elements of the group recovery plan;(2) information on the governance of the group, including: (a) how the group recovery plan is integrated into the corporate governance of the group; and (b) the group's overall risk management framework;(3) a description of the
Where the FCA2 receives a complaint about a recognised body, it will, in the first instance, seek to establish whether the complainant has approached the recognised body. Where this is not the case, the FCA2 will ask the complainant to complain to the recognised body. Where the complainant is dissatisfied with the handling of the complaint, but has not exhausted the recognised body's own internal complaints procedures (in the case of a complaint against a UK recognised body, including
Situations when the FCA may impose restrictions or limitations on the services a primary information provider can provide include (but are not limited to) where it appears to the FCA that:(1) the primary information provider's ability to satisfy its obligations in DTR 8.4 would be likely to be compromised; or(2) the primary information provider is proposing to make changes to its systems and controls or operations which would be likely to prevent it from satisfying any of its
(1) [deleted]88(2) In this context, the FCA will interpret the term 'appropriate88' as meaning sufficient in terms of quantity, quality and availability, and 'resources' as including all financial resources (though only in the case of firms not carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity)8, non-financial resources and means of managing its resources; for example, capital, provisions against liabilities, holdings of or access to cash and other liquid assets, human
(1) [deleted]88(2) Relevant matters to which the FCA may have regard when assessing whether a firm will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, this threshold condition8may include but are not limited to:(a) (in relation to a firm other than a firm carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity),8 whether there are any indications that the firm may have difficulties if the application is granted, at the time of the grant or in the future, in complying with any of the
Where the authorised fund manager of a feeder UCITS gives notice to the FCA under section 251 or section 261Q1 of the Act or regulation 21 of the OEIC Regulations that it intends to wind up the scheme, it must inform:(1) the unitholders of the feeder UCITS; and(2) where notice is given under COLL 11.6.5R (4) (Application for approval by a feeder UCITS where a master UCITS merges or divides), the authorised fund manager of the master UCITS;of its intention without undue delay.[Note:
(1) In addition to the requirement under CASS 7.13.57 R, before adopting the alternative approach, a firm must send a written report to the FCA prepared by an independent auditor of the firm in line with a reasonable assurance engagement, stating the matters set out in (2).(2) The written report in (1) must state whether, in the auditor's opinion:(a) the firm's systems and controls are suitably designed to enable it to comply with CASS 7.13.62 R to CASS 7.13.65 R; and(b) the firm's
(1) 6SYSC 14.1.29G(6) does not apply to a Solvency II firm.(2) SYSC 14.1.29G(7) does not apply to a Solvency II firm, but only in relation to references to the internal audit function. It does apply to a Solvency II firm in relation to references to the internal audit committee.(3) For Solvency II firms, the PRA has made rules implementing the governance provisions of the Solvency II Directive relating to internal controls (article 46), see PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions
SYSC 12.1.13R(2)(dA) requires the firm to ensure that the risk management processes and internal control mechanisms at the level of any UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group of which a firm is a member, comply with the obligations in this section on a consolidated basis (or sub-consolidated basis).
3(1) A firm must have robust governance arrangements, which include a clear organisational structure with well defined, transparent and consistent lines of responsibility, effective processes to identify, manage, monitor and report the risks it is or might be exposed to, and internal control mechanisms, including sound administrative and accounting procedures and effective control and safeguard arrangements for information processing systems.8(2) [deleted]1313[Note: article 74
(1) 8If the UK firm'sEEA right derives from the CRD12 or10MiFID8,10 the appropriate UK regulator20 will give the Host State regulator a consent notice within three months unless it has reason to doubt the adequacy of a UK firm's resources or its administrative structure.8 The Host State regulator then has a further two months to notify the applicable provisions (if any) and prepare for the supervision, as appropriate, of the UK firm, or in the case of a MiFID investment firm,