Related provisions for LR 11.1.1D

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SUP 2.4.2GRP
The FCA uses mystery shopping to help it protect consumers. This may be by seeking information about a particular practice across a range of firms (SUP 2.4.3 G (1)) or the practices of a particular firm (SUP 2.4.3 G (2)). One of the risks consumers face is that they may be sold financial products which are inappropriate to them. A problem in protecting consumers from this risk is that it is very difficult to establish after the event what a firm has said to a 'genuine' consumer
SUP 2.4.3GRP
The FCA may carry out mystery shopping:(1) together with a programme of visits to obtain information about a particular practice, looking at a particular issue across a range of firms, when the FCA may advise the firms of the issues beforehand; the practice being scrutinised may be that of firms or a class of firms in carrying on regulated activities or ancillary activities or in communicating or approving financial promotions; (2) together with focused visits (concentrating on
SUP 2.4.4GRP
Telephone calls and meetings held during mystery shopping will be recorded. The FCA expects that any mystery shopping it arranges will be conducted in accordance with the Market Research Society Code of Practice.
SUP 2.4.5GRP
1The FCA may use the information it obtains from mystery shopping in support of both its supervisory functions and its enforcement functions. This includes sharing any information so obtained with firms and approved persons.
LR 5.4.2RRP
The FCA may restore the listing of any securities that have been suspended if it considers that the smooth operation of the market is no longer jeopardised or if the suspension is no longer required to protect investors. The FCA may restore the listing even though the issuer does not request it.
LR 5.4.3GRP
(1) An issuer that has the listing of any of its securities suspended may request the FCA to have them restored.(2) The request should be made sufficiently in advance of the time and date the issuer wishes the securities to be restored.(3) Requests received for when the market opens should allow sufficient time for the FCA to deal with the request.(4) The request may be an oral request. The FCA may require documentary evidence that the events that lead to the suspension are no
LR 5.4.4RRP
The FCA will refuse a request to restore the listing of securities if it is not satisfied of the matters set out in LR 5.4.2 R.
LR 5.4.5GRP
(1) If an issuer has requested the FCA to restore the listing of any securities, it may withdraw its request at any time while the securities are still suspended. The withdrawal request should initially be made by telephone and then confirmed in writing as soon as possible.(2) Even if a request to restore has been withdrawn, the FCA may restore the listing of securities if it believes the circumstances justify it.
LR 5.4.6GRP
(1) If an underlying instrument is restored, the securitised derivative'slisting will normally be restored.(2) For a securitised derivative relating to a basket of underlying instruments that has been suspended, the securitised derivative's listing may be restored by the FCA, irrespective of whether or not the underlying instrument has been restored, if:(a) the issuer of the securitised derivative confirms to the FCA that despite the relevant underlying instrument(s) suspension
DTR 1A.2.1RRP
(1) The FCA may dispense with, or modify, the transparency rules in such cases and by reference to such circumstances as it considers appropriate (subject to the terms of directives and the Act).(2) A dispensation or modification may be either unconditional or subject to specified conditions.(3) If an issuer, or other person has applied for, or been granted, a dispensation or modification, it must notify the FCA immediately it becomes aware of any matter which is material to the
DTR 1A.2.2RRP
(1) An application to the FCA to dispense with or modify, a transparency rule must be in writing.(2) The application must:(a) contain a clear explanation of why the dispensation or modification is requested;(b) include details of any special requirements, for example, the date by which the dispensation or modification is required;(c) contain all relevant information that should reasonably be brought to the FCA's attention;(d) contain any statement or information that is required
DTR 1A.2.4GRP

An issuer or other person should consult with the FCA at the earliest possible stage if they:

  1. (1)

    are in doubt about how the transparency rules apply in a particular situation; or

  2. (2)

    consider that it may be necessary for the FCA to dispense with or modify a transparency rule.

DTR 1A.2.5GRP

1Where a transparency rule refers to consultation with the FCA, submissions should be made in writing other than in circumstances of exceptional urgency.

Address for correspondence

Note: The FCA's address for correspondence in relation to the disclosure rules is:

Primary Market Monitoring

Markets Division

The Financial Conduct Authority

25 The North Colonnade

Canary Wharf

London E14 5HS

DEPP 6.6.1GRP
(1) The FCA2 attaches considerable importance to the timely submission by firms of reports. This is because the information that they contain is essential to the FCA's2 assessment of whether a firm is complying with the requirements and standards of the regulatory system and to the FCA2 understanding of that firm's business.222(2) DEPP 6.6.1 G to DEPP 6.6.5 G set out the FCA's2 policy in relation to financial penalties for late submission of reports and is in addition to the FCA's2
DEPP 6.6.2GRP
In addition to the factors considered in Step 2 for cases against firms (DEPP 6.5A) and cases against individuals (DEPP 6.5B),1 the following considerations are relevant.1(1) In general, the FCA's2 approach to disciplinary action arising from the late submission of a report will depend upon the length of time after the due date that the report in question is submitted.2(2) If the person concerned is an individual, it is open to him to make representations to the FCA2 as to why
DEPP 6.6.3GRP
In addition, in appropriate cases, the FCA2 may bring disciplinary action against the individuals3 within the firm's management who are ultimately responsible for ensuring that the firm's reports are completed and returned to the FCA2.22
DEPP 6.6.4GRP
In applying the guidance in this section, the FCA2 may treat a report which is materially incomplete or inaccurate as not received until it has been submitted in a form which is materially complete and accurate. For the purposes of the guidance, the FCA2 may also treat a report as not received where the method by which it is submitted to the FCA2 does not comply with the prescribed method of submission.222
DEPP 6.6.5GRP
In most late reporting cases, it will not be necessary for the FCA2 to appoint an investigator since the fact of the breach will be clear. It follows that the FCA2 will not usually send the firm concerned a preliminary findings letter for late-reporting disciplinary action.22
PERG 9.3.2GRP
Each of these aspects of the definition is considered in greater detail in PERG 9.4 (Collective investment scheme (section 235 of the Act)) to PERG 9.9 (The investment condition: the 'satisfaction test' (section 236(3)(b) of the Act)). Although the definition has a number of elements, the FCA considers that it requires an overall view to be taken of the body corporate. This is of particular importance in relation to the investment condition (see PERG 9.6.3 G and PERG 9.6.4 G (The
PERG 9.3.4GRP
In the FCA's view, all of the elements of the definition are clearly objective tests. In applying the definition to any particular case, a person would need to have regard to all the circumstances. This includes any changes in the way that the body corporate operates.
PERG 9.3.5GRP
The FCA understands that the aim of the definition in section 236 of the Act is to include any body corporate which, looked at as a whole, functions as an open-ended investment vehicle. The definition operates against a background that there is a wide range of different circumstances in which any particular body corporate can be established and operated. For example, the definition applies to bodies corporate wherever they are formed. So, in the application of the definition to
PERG 9.3.6GRP
For a body corporate formed outside the United Kingdom, there is an additional issue as to how the applicable corporate law and the definition of open-ended investment company in the Act relate to one another. The FCA understands this to operate as follows. The term 'body corporate' is defined in section 417(1) of the Act (Interpretation) as including 'a body corporate constituted under the law of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom'. So, whether or not any particular
EG 13.9.1RP
1The FCA recognises that the bankruptcy of an individual or the sequestration of an individual's estate are significant measures which may have significant personal and professional implications for the individual involved. In considering whether to present a petition the FCA's principal considerations will be its statutory objectives including the protection of consumers.
EG 13.9.2RP
1The FCA is also mindful that whilst the winding up of an unauthorised company or partnership should bring an end to any unlawful activity, this is not necessarily the effect of bankruptcy or sequestration. The FCA may, in certain cases, consider the use of powers to petition for bankruptcy or sequestration in conjunction with the use of other powers to seek injunctions and other relief from the court. In particular, where the individual controls assets belonging
EG 13.9.3RP
1If an individual appears to be unable to pay a regulated activity debt, or to have no reasonable prospect of doing so, then section 372 of the Act permits the FCA to petition for the individual's bankruptcy, or in Scotland, for the sequestration of the individual's estate. The FCA will petition for bankruptcy or sequestration only if it believes that the individual is, in fact, insolvent. In determining this, as a general rule, the FCA will serve a demand requiring the individual
EG 13.9.4RP
1The FCA will consider the response of the individual to that demand on its own facts and in the light of information, if any, available to the FCA. Exceptionally, the FCA may not first proceed to serve a demand if: (1) the individual is already in default of a regulated activity debt which has fallen due and payable; and (2) the FCA is satisfied, either because the individual has confirmed it or on the information already available to the FCA, that the individual is insolvent
EG 13.9.5RP
1If the FCA believes that the individual is insolvent, the factors it will consider when it decides whether to seek a bankruptcy order or sequestration award include: (1) whether others have taken steps to deal with the individual's insolvency, including a proposal by the individual of a voluntary arrangement, a petition by the individual for his own bankruptcy or sequestration, or a petition by a third party for the individual's bankruptcy or the sequestration of the individual's
GEN 6.1.1RRP
1This chapter applies to every firm, but only with respect to business that can be regulated under sections 137A (The FCA's general rules) and 137G (The PRA's general rules)of the Act.55
GEN 6.1.4RRP
In this chapter 'financial penalty' means a financial penalty that the appropriate regulator5 has imposed, or may impose, under the Act. It does not include a financial penalty imposed by any other body.5
GEN 6.1.4ARRP
2No firm, except a sole trader, may pay a financial penalty imposed by the appropriate regulator5 on a present or former employee, director or partner of the firm or of an affiliated company.5
GEN 6.1.7GRP
GEN 6.1.4A R,2GEN 6.1.5 R and GEN 6.1.6 R do not prevent a firm or member from entering into, arranging, claiming on or making any payment under a contract of insurance which indemnifies any person against all or part of the costs of defending appropriate regulator5 enforcement action or any costs they may be ordered to pay to the appropriate regulator5.55
LR 13.2.1RRP
A listed company must not circulate or publish any of the following types of circular unless it has been approved by the5FCA:55(1) a class 1 circular; or5(2) a related party circular; or5(3) a circular that proposes the purchase by a listed company of its own shares which is required by LR 13.7.1R (2) to include a working capital statement; or5[Note: LR 12.4.10 G](4) a circular that proposes a reconstruction or a refinancing of a listed company which is required by LR 9.5.12
LR 13.2.4RRP
The following documents (to the extent applicable) must be lodged with the FCA in final form before it will approve a circular:(1) a Sponsors Declaration for the Production of a Circular completed by the sponsor;(2) for a class 1 circular or related party circular, a letter setting out any items of information required by this chapter that are not applicable in that particular case; and4(3) [deleted]4(4) any other document that the FCA has sought in advance from the listed company
LR 13.2.7RRP
If a circular submitted for approval is amended, two copies of amended drafts must be resubmitted, marked to show changes made to conform with FCA comments and to indicate other changes.
LR 13.2.8GRP
The FCA will approve a circular if it is satisfied that the requirements of this chapter are satisfied.
LR 13.2.9GRP
The FCA will only approve a circular between 9a.m. and 5.30p.m. on a business day (unless alternative arrangements are made in advance).Note: LR 9.6.1 R requires a company to forward to the FCA two copies of all circulars issued (whether or not they require approval) for publication on the document viewing facility.
COCON 4.2.16GRP
The following is a non-exhaustive list of examples of conduct that would be in breach of rule SC2.(1) Failing to take reasonable steps to implement (either personally or through a compliance department or other departments) adequate and appropriate systems of control to comply with the relevant requirements and standards of the regulatory system for the activities of the firm.(2) Failing to take reasonable steps to monitor (either personally or through a compliance department
COCON 4.2.19GRP
The FCA recognises that a senior conduct rules staff member will have to exercise their own judgement in deciding how issues are dealt with and sometimes that judgement will, with the benefit of hindsight, be shown to have been wrong. The senior conduct rules staff member will not be in breach of rule SC3 in COCON 2.2.3R unless they fail to exercise due and reasonable consideration before they delegate the resolution of an issue or authority for dealing with a part of the business
COCON 4.2.20GRP
Senior conduct rules staff members will not always manage the business on a day-to-day basis themselves. The extent to which they do so will depend on a number of factors, including the nature, scale and complexity of the business and their position within it. The larger and more complex the business, the greater the need for clear and effective delegation and reporting lines, which may involve documenting the scope of that delegation and the reporting lines in writing. The FCA
COCON 4.2.24GRP
In determining whether or not the conduct of a senior conduct rules staff member complies with rule SC3 in COCON 2.2.3R, the factors which the FCA would expect to take into account include:(1) the competence, knowledge or seniority of the delegate; and (2) the past performance and record of the delegate.
COCON 4.2.25GRP
For the purpose of rule SC4 in COCON 2.2.4R, regulators in addition to the FCA and the PRA are those which have recognised jurisdiction in relation to activities to which COCON applies and have a power to call for information from the relevant person in connection with their function or the business for which they are responsible. This may include an exchange or an overseas regulator.
COCON 4.2.28GRP
(1) If a senior conduct rules staff member comes across a piece of information that is something of3 which they think the FCA or PRA could reasonably expect notice, they should determine whether that information falls within the scope of their responsibilities:2(a) (for an SMF manager)2 by virtue of that person’sstatement of responsibilities; or2(b) (for an approved person performing a significant influence function in a Solvency II firm or a small non-directive insurer3) including
COCON 4.2.29GRP
In determining whether or not a person's conduct complies with rule SC4 in COCON 2.2.4R, the factors which the FCA would expect to take into account include:(1) whether it would be reasonable for the individual to assume that the information would be of material significance to the regulator concerned; (2) whether the information related to the individual themselves or to their firm; and(3) whether any decision not to report the matter was taken after reasonable enquiry and analysis
EG 13.10.1RP
1In general terms, the approval of a voluntary arrangement (in relation to companies, partnerships and individuals) requires more than 75% of the creditors to whom notice of a meeting has been sent and who are present in person or by proxy. The arrangement must also not be opposed by more than 50% of creditors given notice of the meeting and who have notified their claim, but excluding secured creditors and creditors who are, in the case of companies or partnerships, connected
EG 13.10.2RP
1Exceptionally, the FCA will consider making such a challenge using its powers in sections 356 and 357 of the Act after considering, in particular, the following matters: (1) The composition of the creditors of the company including the ratio of consumer to non-consumer creditors or the nature of their claims; (2) whether the FCA has concerns, or is aware of concerns of creditors, about the regularity of the meeting or the identification of connected or associated
EG 13.10.3RP
1Similarly, the FCA will not normally use its powers under section 358 of the Act to petition for sequestration of a debtor's estate following the grant of a trust deed, if the trust deed has been, or appears likely to be, acceded to by a majority of creditors.:
EG 13.10.4RP
1In considering whether to exercise its powers under Schedule A1 to the 1986 Act to make a challenge in relation to acts, omissions or decisions of a nominee during a moratorium, the FCA will have regard to the following matters in particular: (1) whether the FCA is aware of matters indicating that the proposed voluntary arrangement does not have a reasonable prospect of being approved and implemented or that the company is likely to have insufficient funds available to it to
GEN 4.5.3RRP
A firm must not indicate or imply that it is authorised by the FCA4 in respect of business for which it is not so authorised.4
GEN 4.5.4RRP
A firm must not indicate or imply that it is regulated or otherwise supervised by the FCA4 in respect of business for which it is not regulated by the FCA4.44
GEN 4.5.6GRP
(1) Neither an incoming EEA firm nor an incoming Treaty firm is authorised by the FCA or PRA4 when acting as such.4(2) It is likely to be misleading for a firm that is not authorised by the FCA or PRA4 to state or imply that it is so authorised. It is also likely to be misleading for a firm to state or imply that a client will have recourse to the Financial Ombudsman Service or the FSCS where this is not the case.4(3) [deleted]44
GEN 4.5.6AGRP
4As well as potentially breaching the requirements in this section, misleading statements by a firm may involve a breach of Principle 7 (Communications with clients) or section Part 7 (Offences relating to financial services) of the Financial Services Act 2012, as well as giving rise to private law actions for misrepresentation.
EG 1.1.1RP
3This guide describes the FCA's approach to exercising the main enforcement powers given to it by the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (the Act) and by other legislation. It is broken down into two parts. The first part provides an overview of enforcement policy and process, with chapters about the FCA's approach to enforcement (chapter 2), the use of its main information gathering and investigation powers under the Act and the CRA (chapter 3), the conduct of investigations
EG 1.1.2RP
3In the areas set out below, the Act expressly requires the FCA to prepare and publish statements of policy or procedure on the exercise of its enforcement and investigation powers and in relation to the giving of statutory notices. (1) section 63C requires the FCA to publish a statement of its policy on the imposition, and amount, of financial penalties on persons that perform a controlled function without approval; (1-A) 1section 63ZD requires the FCA, among other things, to
EG 1.1.3RP
3This guide includes material on the investigation, disciplinary and criminal prosecution powers that are available to the FCA when it is performing functions as the competent authority under Part VI of the Act (Official listing). The Act provides a separate statutory framework within which the FCA must operate when it acts in that capacity. When determining whether to exercise its powers in its capacity as competent authority under Part VI, the FCA will have regard to the matters
EG 1.1.4RP
3The FCA has a range of enforcement powers, and in any particular enforcement situation, the FCA may need to consider which power to use and whether to use one or more powers. So in any particular case, it may be necessary to refer to a number of chapters of the guide.
EG 1.1.5RP
3Since most of the FCA’s enforcement powers are derived from it, this guide contains a large number of references to the Act. Users of the guide should therefore refer to the Act as well as to the guide where necessary. In the event of a discrepancy between the Act, or other relevant legislation, and the description of an enforcement power in the guide, the provisions of the Act or the other relevant legislation prevail. Defined terms used in the text are shown in italic type.
SUP 10C.16.1RRP
(1) 2If a firm (A):(a) is considering appointing a person to perform any FCA controlled function;(b) requests another firm (B), as a current or former employer of that person, for a reference or other information in connection with that appointment; and(c) indicates to B the purpose of the request;B must, as soon as reasonably practicable, give to A all relevant information of which it is aware.(2) When giving the information to A under (1), B must have regard to the purpose of
SUP 10C.16.5GRP
(1) The obligations to supply information to:(a) the FCA under this chapter;(b) another firm under SUP 10C.16.1R;apply notwithstanding any:(c) agreement (for example a 'COT 3' Agreement settled by the Advisory, Conciliation and Arbitration Service (ACAS)); or(d) any other arrangements entered into by a firm and an employee upon termination of the employee’s employment.(2) A firm should not enter into any such arrangements or agreements that could conflict with its obligations
SUP 10C.16.6GRP
Failing to disclose relevant information to the FCA may be a criminal offence under section 398 of the Act.
REC 6.2.1GRP
(1) Overseas investment exchanges which are considering whether to seek authorisation or recognition should first consider whether they will be carrying on regulated activities in the United Kingdom. Overseas investment exchanges which do not carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom need take no action.33(2) Prospective applicants should discuss authorisation and recognition with the FCA3 before deciding whether to seek authorisation or recognition.3
REC 6.2.2GRP
A prospective applicant may wish to contact the Markets Division at the FCA3 at an early stage for advice on the preparation, scheduling and practical aspects of an application to become an overseas recognised body.3
REC 6.2.3GRP
Applicants for authorised person status should refer to the FCA3 website "How do I get authorised":http://www.fca.org.uk/firms/about-authorisation 31. Applications for recognition as an overseas recognised body should be addressed to:The Financial Conduct Authority3 (Markets Division)25 The North ColonnadeCanary WharfLondon E14 5HS133
REC 6.2.4GRP
There is no standard application form for application for recognition as an ROIE2. An application should be made in accordance with any direction the FCA3 may make under section 287 (Application by an investment exchange) of the Act and should include:333(1) the information, evidence and explanatory material necessary to demonstrate to the FCA3 that the recognition requirements (set out in REC 6.3) will be met;(2) the application fee (see REC 7);(3) the address of the applicant's
REC 6.2.5GRP
The FCA3 may require further information from the applicant and may need to have discussions with the appropriate authorities in the applicant's home territory. To allow sufficient time for applications to be processed and for the necessary contacts to be made with the appropriate home territory authorities, applications should be made not later than six months before the applicant wishes the recognition order to take effect. No guarantee can be given that a decision will be reached
SYSC 3.2.6EGRP
5The FCA, when considering whether a breach of its rules on systems and controls against money laundering has occurred, will have regard to whether a firm has followed relevant provisions in the guidance for the UK financial sector issued by the Joint Money Laundering Steering Group.
SYSC 3.2.6IRRP
5A firm must:(1) appoint an individual as MLRO, with responsibility for oversight of its compliance with the FCA'srules on systems and controls against money laundering; and(2) ensure that its MLRO has a level of authority and independence within the firm and access to resources and information sufficient to enable him to carry out that responsibility.
SYSC 3.2.6JGRP
5The job of the MLRO within a firm is to act as the focal point for all activity within the firm relating to anti-money laundering. The FCA expects that a firm'sMLRO will be based in the United Kingdom.
SYSC 3.2.6KGRP
14The FCA provides guidance on steps that a firm can take to reduce the risk that it might be used to further financial crime in FC (Financial crime: a guide for firms).
SYSC 3.2.10GRP
(1) Depending on the nature, scale and complexity of its business, it may be appropriate for a firm to have a separate risk assessment function responsible for assessing the risks that the firm faces and advising the governing body and senior managers on them.(2) The organisation and responsibilities of a risk assessment function should be documented. The function should be adequately resourced and staffed by an appropriate number of competent staff who are sufficiently independent
SYSC 3.2.16GRP
9(1) Depending on the nature, scale and complexity of its business, it may be appropriate for a firm to delegate much of the task of monitoring the appropriateness and effectiveness of its systems and controls to an internal audit function. An internal audit function should have clear responsibilities and reporting lines to an audit committee or appropriate senior manager, be adequately resourced and staffed by competent individuals, be independent of the day-to-day activities
SYSC 3.2.19GRP
A firm, other than a Solvency II firm,15 should have in place appropriate arrangements, having regard to the nature, scale and complexity of its business, to ensure that it can continue to function and meet its regulatory obligations in the event of unforeseen interruption. These arrangements should be regularly updated and tested to ensure their effectiveness. Solvency II firms are subject to the business continuity requirements in PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions
CASS 7.13.24GRP
The rules in SUP 16.14 provide that CASS large firms and CASS medium firms must report to the FCA in relation to the identity of the entities with which they deposit client money and the amounts of client money deposited with those entities. The FCA will use that information to monitor compliance with the diversification rule in CASS 7.13.20 R.
CASS 7.13.57RRP
At least three months before adopting the alternative approach for a particular business line, a firm must: (1) inform the FCA in writing that it intends to adopt the alternative approach for that particular business line; and(2) if requested by the FCA, make any documents it created under CASS 7.13.55 R2 available to the FCA for inspection.
CASS 7.13.58RRP
(1) In addition to the requirement under CASS 7.13.57 R, before adopting the alternative approach, a firm must send a written report to the FCA prepared by an independent auditor of the firm in line with a reasonable assurance engagement, stating the matters set out in (2).(2) The written report in (1) must state whether, in the auditor's opinion:(a) the firm's systems and controls are suitably designed to enable it to comply with CASS 7.13.62 R to CASS 7.13.65 R; and(b) the firm's
CASS 7.13.60RRP
A firm that uses the alternative approach must not materially change how it will calculate and maintain the alternative approach mandatory prudent segregation amount under CASS 7.13.65 R unless:(1) an auditor of the firm has prepared a report that complies with the requirements in CASS 7.13.58 R (2)(b) in respect of the firm's proposed changes; and (2) the firm provides a copy of the report prepared by the auditor under (a) to the FCA before implementing the change.
COBS 20.2.41BGRP
(1) 2The aim of the discussions in COBS 20.2.41A R is to:(a) allow the FCA to comment on the adequacy of the firm's planning; and(b) seek agreement with the firm on any other appropriate actions to ensure with-profits policyholders are treated fairly.(2) If the firm is no longer effecting a material volume of new with-profits policies (other than by reinsurance) into a with-profits fund; or if it is ceding by way of reinsurance most or all of the new with-profits policies which
COBS 20.2.42RRP
A firm that is seeking to make a reattribution of its inherited estate must:(1) first discuss with the FCA7 (as part of its determination under COBS 20.2.21 R):227(a) its projections for capital required to support existing business, which must include an assessment of:2(i) the firm's future risk appetite for the with-profits fund and other relevant business; and2(ii) how much of the margin for prudence can be identified as excessive and removed from the projected capital requirements;
COBS 20.2.43GRP
The firm should include an independent element in the policyholder advocate selection process, which may include consulting representative groups of policyholders or using the services of a recruitment consultant. When considering an application for approval of a nominee to perform the policyholder advocate role, the FCA will have regard to the extent to which the firm has involved others in the selection process.
COBS 20.2.44GRP
The precise role of the policyholder advocate in any particular case will depend on the nature of the firm and the reattribution proposed. A firm will need to discuss, with a view to agreeing,2 with the FCA the precise role of the policyholder advocate in a particular case (COBS 20.2.45 R). However, the role of the policyholder advocate should include:(1) negotiating with the firm, on behalf of the relevant with-profits policyholders, the benefits to be offered to them in exchange
COBS 20.2.45RRP
A firm must:(1) notify the FCA of the terms on which it proposes to appoint a policyholder advocate (whether or not the candidate was nominated by the FCA); and(2) ensure that the terms of appointment for the policyholder advocate:(a) include a description of the role of the policyholder advocate as agreed with the FCA under COBS 20.2.44 G;2(aA) stress the independent nature of the policyholder advocate's appointment and function, and are consistent with it;2(b) define the relationship
COBS 20.2.55GRP
2For the purposes of COBS 20.2.54R (3) the FCA will have regard to, amongst other things, the factors set out in COBS 20.2.41BG (3).
COBS 20.2.61GRP
(1) 4A mutual operating a common fund may seek to undertake an exercise to identify that part of the fund to which the mutual considers it would be fair for relevant provisions in COBS 20 not to apply. (2) To give regulatory effect to the identification exercise, the FCA expects that a mutual will need to apply to the FCA to modify the relevant provisions in COBS 20 and elsewhere which are dependent on the definition of the with-profits fund. (3) A mutual will need to demonstrate
REC 2.6.6UKRP

Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 7E

2The rules of the [UK RIE] must provide that the [UK RIE] must not exercise its power to suspend or remove from trading on a regulated market operated by it any financial instrument which no longer complies with its rules, where such step would be likely to cause significant damage to the interests of investors or the orderly functioning of the financial markets.

REC 2.6.26GRP
2In determining whether:(1) business conducted by means of a UK RIE'sfacilities is conducted so;5(2) [deleted]55as to afford proper protection to investors, the FCA5 may, in addition to the matters dealt with in REC 2.7 to REC 2.12, have regard to all the arrangements made by the UK recognised body concerning the operation of its facilities.5
REC 2.6.27GRP
2The FCA5 may also have regard to the extent to which the UK recognised body's rules, procedures and the arrangements for monitoring and overseeing the use of its facilities:5(1) include appropriate measures to prevent the use of its facilities for abusive or improper purposes;(2) provide appropriate safeguards for investors against fraud or misconduct, recklessness, negligence or incompetence by users of its facilities;(3) provide appropriate information to enable users of its
REC 2.6.28GRP
2In determining whether a UK RIE is ensuring that business conducted by means of its facilities is conducted in an orderly manner (and so as to afford proper protection to investors), the FCA5 may have regard to the extent to which the UK RIE's rules and procedures:5(1) are consistent with the Code of Market Conduct (see MAR 1);(2) prohibit abusive trading practices or the deliberate reporting or publication of false information about trades; and(3) prohibit or prevent:(a) trades
REC 2.6.29GRP
2In determining whether a UK RIE is ensuring that business conducted by means of its facilities is conducted in an orderly manner (and so as to afford proper protection to investors), the FCA5 may have regard to whether the UK RIE's arrangements and practices: 5(1) enable members and clients for whom they act to obtain the best price available at the time for their size and type of trade;(2) ensure:(a) sufficient pre-trade transparency in the UK RIE's markets taking account of
COLL 4.2.3RRP
(1) The authorised fund manager of an AUT, ACS21 or an ICVC16 must:16(a) provide16 a copy of the scheme's most recent prospectus drawn up and published in accordance with COLL 4.2.2 R (Publishing the prospectus) free of charge to any person on request; and16(b) file a copy of the scheme's original prospectus, together with all revisions thereto, with the FCA and, where a UCITS scheme is managed by an EEA UCITS management company, with that company's Home State regulator on request.1616(1A)
COLL 4.2.3ARRP
(1) 16The authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme that is a feeder UCITS must:(a) where requested by an investor, provide a copy of the prospectus of its master UCITS free of charge; and(b) file a copy of the prospectus of its master UCITS and any amendments thereto with the FCA.(2) Except where an investor requests a paper copy or the use of electronic communications is not appropriate, the prospectus of the master UCITS may be provided in a durable medium other than paper
COLL 4.2.3BRRP
(1) 18The authorised fund manager of a feeder NURS must, where requested by an investor or the FCA , provide such person with a copy of the prospectus of its qualifying master scheme free of charge.(2) 18Except where an investor requests a paper copy or the use of electronic communications is not appropriate, the prospectus of the qualifying master scheme may be provided in a durable medium other than paper, or by means of a website that meets the website conditions.20
COLL 4.2.5RRP

This table belongs to COLL 4.2.2 R (Publishing the prospectus).

Document status

1

A statement that the document is the prospectus of the authorised fund valid as at a particular date (which shall be the date of the document).

Authorised fund

2

A description of the authorised fund including:

(a)

its name;

(b)

whether it is an ICVC, ACS21 or an AUT;17

3(ba)

whether it is a UCITS scheme or a non-UCITS retail scheme;

17(bb)

a statement that unitholders in an AUT, ICVC or co-ownership scheme21 are not liable for the debts of the authorised fund;21

(bc)

a statement that the scheme property of a co-ownership scheme is beneficially owned by the participants as tenants in common (or, in Scotland, is the common property of the participants);21

(bd)

a statement that a unitholder in a limited partnership scheme is not liable for the debts or obligations of the limited partnership scheme beyond the amount of the scheme property which is available to the authorised contractual scheme manager to meet such debts or obligations, provided that the unitholder does not take part in the management of the partnership business;21

(be)

a statement that the exercise of rights conferred on limited partners by FCArules does not constitute taking part in the management of the partnership business;21

(c)

for an ICVC, the address of its head office and the address of the place in the United Kingdom for service on the ICVC of notices or other documents required or authorised to be served on it;

(ca)

for an ACS that is a limited partnership scheme, the address of the proposed principal place of business of the limited partnership scheme;21

(d)

the effective date of the authorisation order made by the FCA and relevant details of termination, if the duration of the authorised fund is limited;

(e)

its base currency;

(f)

for an ICVC, the maximum and minimum sizes of its capital;

18

(g)

the circumstances in which it may be wound up under the rules and a summary of the procedure for, and the rights of unitholders under, such a winding up; and1817

18(h)

if it is not an umbrella, a statement that it is a feeder UCITS, a feeder NURS, a fund of alternative investment funds or a property authorised investment fund22, where that is the case.

22

Umbrella ICVCs or co-ownership schemes21

2A

The following statements for an ICVC or a co-ownership scheme which is an umbrella:21

21

(a)

for an ICVC, a statement that21its sub-funds are segregated portfolios of assets and, accordingly, the assets of a sub-fund belong exclusively to that sub-fund and shall not be used to discharge directly or indirectly the liabilities of, or claims against, any other person or body, including the umbrella, or any other sub-fund, and shall not be available for any such purpose;

21

(aa)

for a co-ownership scheme, a statement that the property subject to a sub-fund is beneficially owned by the participants in that sub-fund as tenants in common (or, in Scotland, is the common property of the participants in that sub-fund) and must not be used to discharge any liabilities of, or meet any claims against, any person other than the participants in that sub-fund; and21

(b)

for an ICVC or a co-ownership scheme, a statement that21 while the provisions of the OEIC Regulations, and section 261P (Segregated liability in relation to umbrella co-ownership schemes) of the Act in the case of co-ownership schemes,21 provide for segregated liability between sub-funds, the concept of segregated liability is relatively new. Accordingly, where claims are brought by local creditors in foreign courts or under foreign law contracts, it is not yet known how those foreign courts will react to regulations 11A and 11B of the OEIC Regulations or, as the case may be, section 261P of the Act.2118

18Umbrella Schemes

182B

For a UCITS scheme or non-UCITS retail scheme which is an umbrella, a statement detailing whether each specific sub-fund is a feeder UCITS, a feeder NURS,22 a fund of alternative investment funds or a property authorised investment fund22, as appropriate.

22

Investment objectives and policy

3

The following particulars of the investment objectives and policy of the authorised fund:

(a)

the investment objectives, including its financial objectives;

(b)

the authorised fund's investment policy for achieving those investment objectives, including the general nature of the portfolio and, if appropriate, any intended specialisation;

(c)

an indication of any limitations on that investment policy;22

22(ca)

for an authorised fund that has indicated in its name, investment objectives or fund literature (including in any financial promotions for the fund), through use of descriptions such as 'absolute return', 'total return' or similar, an intention to deliver positive returns in all market conditions (and where there is no actual guarantee of such returns), additional statements in the authorised fund's investment objectives specifying:

(i)

that capital is in fact at risk;

(ii)

the investment period over which the authorised fund aims to achieve a positive return; and

(iii)

there is no guarantee that this will be achieved over that specific, or any, time period;

(d)

the description of assets which the capital property may consist of;

(e)

the proportion of the capital property which may consist of an asset of any description;

(f)

the description of transactions which may be effected on behalf of the authorised fund and an indication of any techniques and instruments or borrowing powers which may be used in the management of the authorised fund;

(g)

a list of the eligible markets through which the authorised fund may invest or deal in accordance with COLL 5.2.10 R (2)(b) (Eligible markets: requirements);

(h)

for an ICVC, a statement as to whether it is intended that the scheme will have an interest in any immovable property or movable property ((in accordance with COLL 5.6.4 R (2) (Investment powers: general) or COLL 5.2.8 R (2) (UCITS schemes: general)) for the direct pursuit of the ICVC's business;

(i)

where COLL 5.2.12 R (3) (Spread: government and public securities) applies, a prominent statement as to the fact that more than 35% of the scheme property is or may be invested in government and public securities and the names of the individual states, local authorities or public international bodies in whose securities the authorised fund may invest more than 35% of the scheme property;

(k)

for an authorised fund which may invest in other schemes, the extent to which the scheme property may be invested in the units of schemes which are managed by the authorised fund manager or by its associate;

14

(ka)

where a scheme is a feeder scheme (other than a feeder UCITS or a feeder NURS)18,16 which (in respect of investment in units in collective investment schemes) is dedicated to units in a single collective investment scheme, details of the master scheme and the minimum (and, if relevant, maximum) investment that the feeder scheme may make in it;

1618

(l)

where a scheme invests principally in scheme units, deposits or derivatives, or replicates an index in accordance with COLL 5.2.31 R or COLL 5.6.23 R (Schemes replicating an index), a prominent statement regarding this investment policy;

(m)

where derivatives transactions may be used in a scheme, a prominent statement as to whether these transactions are for the purposes of efficient portfolio management (including10hedging)10 or meeting the investment objectives or both and the possible outcome of the use of derivatives on the risk profile of the scheme;

(n)

information concerning the profile of the typical investor for whom the scheme is designed;

(o)

information concerning the historical performance of the scheme presented in accordance with COBS 4.6.2 R (the rules on past performance);6

6

(p)

for a non-UCITS retail scheme which invests in immovables, a statement of the countries or territories of situation of land or buildings in which the authorised fund may invest;

(q)

for a UCITS scheme which invests a substantial portion of its assets in other schemes, a statement of the maximum level of management fees that may be charged to that UCITS scheme and to the schemes in which it invests;

5(qa)

where the authorised fund is a qualifying money market fund, short-term money market fund or money market fund, 15a statement identifying it as such a fund 15and a statement that the authorised fund's investment objectives and policies will meet the conditions specified in the definition of qualifying money market fund, short-term money market fund or money market fund, as appropriate;15

15

(r)

where the net asset value of a UCITS scheme is likely to have high volatility owing to its portfolio composition or the portfolio management techniques that may be used, a prominent statement to that effect;

16

(s)

for a UCITS scheme, a statement that any unitholder may obtain on request the types of information (which must be listed) referred to in COLL 4.2.3R (3) (Availability of prospectus and long report); and16

16(t)

for a UCITS scheme that is or is intended to be a master UCITS, a statement that it is not a feeder UCITS and will not hold units of a feeder UCITS.

Reporting, distributions and accounting dates

4

Relevant details of the reporting, accounting and distribution information which includes:

(a)

the accounting and distribution dates;

(b)

procedures for:

(i)

determining and applying income (including how any distributable income is paid);

(ii)

unclaimed distributions; and

(iii)

if relevant, calculating, paying and accounting for income equalisation;

(c)

the accounting reference date and when the long report will be published in accordance with COLL 4.5.14 R (Publication and availability of annual and half-yearly long report); and

(d)

when the short report will be sent to unitholders in accordance with COLL 4.5.13 R (Provision of short report).

Characteristics of the units

5

Information as to:

(a)

where there is more than one class of unit in issue or available for issue, the name of each such class and the rights attached to each class in so far as they vary from the rights attached to other classes;

(b)

where the instrument constituting the fund23 provides for the issue of bearer certificates, that fact and what procedures will operate for them;

23

(c)

how unitholders may exercise their voting rights and what these amount to;

(d)

where a mandatory redemption, cancellation or conversion of units from one class to another may be required, in what circumstances it may be required; and

(e)

for an AUT, the fact that the nature of the right represented by units is that of a beneficial interest under a trust.

215A

ACSs: UCITS and NURS eligible investors

(a)

A statement that units may not be issued to a person other than a:

(i)

professional ACS investor; or

(ii)

large ACS investor; or

(iii)

person who already holds units in the scheme.

(b)

A statement that the authorised contractual scheme manager must redeem units as soon as practicable after becoming aware that those units are vested in anyone (whether as a result of subscription or transfer of units) other than a person meeting the criteria in paragraph 5A(a).

215B

ACSs: UCITS and NURS transfer of units

(a)

A statement whether the transfer of units in the ACSscheme is either:

(i)

prohibited; or

(ii)

allowed;

by the instrument constituting the fund23 and prospectus.

23

(b)

Where transfer of units is allowed by the instrument constituting the fund23 and prospectus in accordance with (a)(ii), a statement that units may only be transferred in accordance with the conditions specified by FCArules, including that units may not be transferred to a person other than a:

23

(i)

professional ACS investor; or

(ii)

large ACS investor; or

(iii)

person who already holds units in the scheme.

(c)

For a co-ownership scheme which is an umbrella, a statement in accordance with (5B)(a)(i) or (ii) and, where appropriate, a statement in accordance with (5B)(b), must also be made for the sub-funds. Where individual sub-funds have differing policies in relation to transfer of units, separate statements are required.

Authorised fund manager

6

The following particulars of the authorised fund manager:

(a)

its name;

(b)

the nature of its corporate form;

(c)

the date of its incorporation;

(d)

the address of its registered office;

(e)

the address of its head office, if that is different from the address of its registered office;

(f)

if neither its registered office nor its head office is in the United Kingdom, the address of its principal place of business in the United Kingdom;

(g)

if the duration of its corporate status is limited, when that status will or may cease; and

(h)

the amount of its issued share capital and how much of it is paid up.

Directors of an ICVC, other than the ACD

7

Other than for the ACD:

(a)

the names and positions in the ICVC of any other directors (if any); and

(b)

the manner, amount and calculation of the remuneration of such directors.

Depositary

8

The following particulars of the depositary:

(a)

its name;

(b)

the nature of its corporate form;

(c)

the address of its registered office;

(d)

the address of its head office, if that is different from the address of its registered office;

(e)

if neither its registered office nor its head office is in the United Kingdom, the address of its principal place of business in the United Kingdom; and

(f)

a description of its principal business activity.

Investment adviser

9

If an investment adviser is retained in connection with the business of an authorised fund:

(a)

its name; and

(b)

where it carries on a significant activity other than providing services to the authorised fund as an investment adviser, what that significant activity is.

Auditor

10

The name of the auditor of the authorised fund.

Contracts and other relationships with parties

11

The following relevant details:

(a)

for an ICVC:

(i)

a summary of the material provisions of the contract between the ICVC and the ACD3 which may be relevant to unitholders including provisions (if any) relating to remuneration, termination, compensation on termination and indemnity;

3

(ii)

the main business activities of each of the directors (other than those connected with the business of the ICVC) where these are of significance to the ICVC's business;

(iii)

if any director is a body corporate in a group of which any other corporate director of the ICVC is a member, a statement of that fact;

3

(iv)

the main terms of each contract of service between the ICVC and a director in summary form; and3

3(v)

for an ICVC that does not hold annual general meetings, a statement that copies of contracts of service between the ICVC and its directors, including the ACD, will be provided to a unitholder on request;

(b)

the names of the directors of the authorised fund manager and the main business activities of each of the directors (other than those connected with the business of the authorised fund) where these are of significance to the authorised fund's business;

(c)

a summary of the material provisions of the contract between the ICVC or the manager of the AUT and the depositary which may be relevant to unitholders, including provisions relating to the remuneration of the depositary;

21(ca)

in the case of an ACS, a summary of the material provisions of the contracts between:

(i)

the authorised fund manager and the nominated partner (if any); and

(ii)

the authorised fund manager and depositary;

which may be relevant to unitholders, including provisions relating to the remuneration of the depositary;

(d)

if an investment adviser retained in connection with the business of the authorised fund is a body corporate in a group of which any director of the ICVC or the authorised fund manager21 of the AUTor ACS21 is a member, that fact;

21

(e)

a summary of the material provisions of any contract between the authorised fund manager or the ICVC and any investment adviser which may be relevant to unitholders;

(f)

if an investment adviser retained in connection with the business of the authorised fund has the authority of the authorised fund manager or the ICVC to make decisions on behalf of the authorised fund manager or the ICVC, that fact and a description of the matters in relation to which it has that authority;

(g)

a list of:16

16

16(i)

the functions which the authorised fund manager has delegated in accordance with FCA rules or, for an EEA UCITS management company, in accordance with applicable Home State measures implementing article 13 of the UCITS Directive; and

16(ii)

the person to whom such functions have been delegated; and

(h)

in what capacity (if any), the authorised fund manager acts in relation to any other regulated collective investment schemes2 and the name of such schemes.

2

Register of Unitholders

12

Details of:

(a)

the address in the United Kingdom where the register of unitholders, and where relevant the plan register is kept and can be inspected by unitholders; and

(b)

the registrar's name and address.

Payments out of scheme property

13

In relation to each type of payment from the scheme property, details of:

(a)

who the payment is made to;

(b)

what the payment is for;

(c)

the rate or amount where available;

(d)

how it will be calculated and accrued;

(e)

when it will be paid; and

(f)

where a performance fee is taken, examples of its operation in plain English and the maximum it can amount to.

Allocation of payments

14

If, in accordance with COLL 6.7.10 R4 (Allocation of payments to income or capital), the authorised fund manager and the depositary have agreed that all or part of any income expense payments may be treated as a capital expense:

(a)

that fact;

(b)

the policy for allocation of these payments; and

(c)

a statement that this policy may result in capital erosion or constrain capital growth.

Moveable and immovable property (ICVC only)

15

An estimate of any expenses likely to be incurred by the ICVC in respect of movable and immovable property in which the ICVC has an interest.

Valuation and pricing of scheme property

16

In relation to the valuation of scheme property and pricing of units1:

1

(a)

either:1

1

(i)

in the case of a single-priced authorised fund,1 a provision that there must be only a single price for any unit as determined from time to time by reference to a particular valuation point; or1

(ii)

1in the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, the authorised fund manager's policy for determining prices for the sale and redemption of units by reference to a particular valuation point and an explanation of how those prices may differ;

(b)

details of:

(i)

how the value of the scheme property is to be determined in relation to each purpose for which the scheme property must be valued;

(ii)

how frequently and at what time or times of the day the scheme property will be regularly valued for dealing purposes and a description of any circumstance in which the scheme property may be specially valued;

(iii)

where relevant, how the price of units of each class will be determined for dealing purposes;

1

(iv)

where and at what frequency the most recent prices will be published; and

(v)

1where relevant in the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, the authorised fund manager's policy in relation to large deals; and

(c)

if provisions in (a) and (b) do not take effect when the instrument constituting the fund23 or (where appropriate) supplemental trust deed takes effect, a statement of the time from which those provisions are to take effect or how it will be determined.

23

Dealing

17

The following particulars:

(a)

the procedures, the dealing periods and the circumstances in which the authorised fund manager will effect:

(i)

the sale and redemption of units and the settlement of transactions (including the minimum number or value of units which one person may hold or which may be subject to any transaction of sale or redemption) for each class of unit in the authorised fund; and

(ii)

any direct issue or cancellation of units by an ICVC or by the depositary of an AUT or ACS21 (as appropriate) through the authorised fund manager in accordance with COLL 6.2.7R (2) (Issue and cancellation of units through an authorised fund manager);

21

(b)

the circumstances in which the redemption of units may be suspended;

(c)

whether certificates will be issued in respect of registered units;

(d)

the circumstances in which the authorised fund manager may arrange for, and the procedure for the issue or cancellation of units in specie;

(e)

the investment exchanges (if any) on which units in the scheme are listed or dealt;

(f)

the circumstances and conditions for issuing units in an authorised fund which limit the issue of any class of units in accordance with 13COLL 6.2.18 R13 (Limited issue);

(g)

the circumstances and procedures for the limitation or deferral of redemptions in accordance with 13COLL 6.2.19 R13 (Limited redemption) or 13COLL 6.2.21 R13 (Deferred redemption);

12

(h)

in a prospectus available during the period of any initial offer:

(i)

the length of the initial offer period;

(ii)

the initial price of a unit, which must be in the base currency;

(iii)

the arrangements for issuing units during the initial offer, including the authorised fund manager's intentions on investing the subscriptions received during the initial offer;

(iv)

the circumstances when the initial offer will end;

(v)

whether units will be sold or issued in any other currency; and12

(vi)

any other relevant details of the initial offer12; and12

(i)

whether a unitholder may effect transfer of title to units on the authority of an electronic communication and if so the conditions that must be satisfied in order to effect a transfer.12

Dilution

18

In the case of a single-priced authorised fund, details1 of what is meant by dilution including:

(a)

a statement explaining:

(i)

that it is not possible to predict accurately whether dilution is likely to occur; and

(ii)

which of the policies the authorised fund manager is adopting under COLL 6.3.8 (1) (Dilution) together with an explanation of how this policy may affect the future growth of the authorised fund; and

(b)

if the authorised fund manager may require a dilution levy or make a dilution adjustment, a statement of:

(i)

the authorised fund manager's policy in deciding when to require a dilution levy, including the authorised fund manager's policy on large deals, or when to make a dilution adjustment;

(ii)

the estimated rate or amount of any dilution levy or dilution adjustment based either on historical data or future projections; and

(iii)

the likelihood that the authorised fund manager may require a dilution levy or make a dilution adjustment and the basis (historical or projected) on which the statement is made.

SDRT provision

19

An explanation of:

(a)

what is meant by stamp duty reserve tax, SDRT provision and large deals; and

(b)

the authorised fund manager's policy on imposing an SDRT provision including its policy on large deals, and the occasions, and the likely frequency of the occasions, in which an SDRT provision may be imposed and the maximum rate of it (a usual rate may also be stated).

Forward and historic pricing

20

The authorised fund manager's normal basis of pricing under COLL 6.3.9 (Forward and historic pricing).

Preliminary charge

21

Where relevant, a statement authorising the authorised fund manager to make a preliminary charge and specifying the basis for and current amount or rate of that charge.

Redemption charge

22

Where relevant, a statement authorising the authorised fund manager to deduct a redemption charge out of the proceeds of redemption; and if the authorised fund manager makes a redemption charge:

(a)

the current amount of that charge or if it is variable, the rate or method of calculating it;

(b)

if the amount, rate or method has been changed, that details of any previous amount, rate or method may be obtained from the authorised fund manager on request; and

(c)

how the order in which units acquired at different times by a unitholder is to be determined so far as necessary for the purposes of the imposition of the redemption charge.

9Property Authorised Investment Funds

922A

For a property authorised investment fund, a statement that:

(1)

[deleted]22

22

(2)

no body corporate may seek to obtain or intentionally maintain a holding of more than19 10% of the net asset value of the fund; and

19

(3)

in the event that the authorised fund manager reasonably considers that a body corporate holds more than 10% of the net asset value of the fund, the authorised fund manager is entitled to delay any redemption or cancellation of units if the authorised fund manager reasonably considers such action to be:

(a)

necessary in order to enable an orderly reduction of the holding to below 10%; and

(b)

in the interests of the unitholders as a whole.

18
18 18

General information

23

Details of:

(a)

the address at which copies of the instrument constituting the fund,23 any amending instrument and the most recent annual and half-yearly long reports may be inspected and from which copies may be obtained;

23

(b)

the manner in which any notice or document will be served on unitholders;

(c)

the extent to which and the circumstances in which:

(i)

the scheme is liable to pay or suffer tax on any appreciation in the value of the scheme property or on the income derived from the scheme property; and

(ii)

deductions by way of withholding tax may be made from distributions of income to unitholders and payments made to unitholders on the redemption of units;

3

(d)

for a UCITS scheme, any possible fees or expenses not described in paragraphs 13 to 22, distinguishing between those to be paid by a unitholder and those to be paid out of scheme property; and3

3

3(e)

for an ICVC, whether or not annual general meetings will be held.

Information on the umbrella

24

In the case of a scheme which is an umbrella with two or more sub-funds11, the following information:

(a)

that a unitholder is entitled to exchange units in one sub-fund for units in any other sub-fund (other than a sub-fund which has limited the issue of units);

(b)

that an exchange of units in one sub-fund for units in any other sub-fund is treated as a redemption and sale and will, for persons subject to United Kingdom taxation, be a realisation for the purposes of capital gains taxation;

(c)

that in no circumstances will a unitholder who exchanges units in one sub-fund for units in any other sub-fund be given a right by law to withdraw from or cancel the transaction;

(d)

the policy for allocating between sub-funds any assets of, or costs, charges and expenses payable out of, the scheme property which are not attributable to any particular sub-fund;

(e)

what charges, if any, may be made on exchanging units in one sub-fund for units in any other sub-fund; and11

(f)

for each sub-fund, the currency in which the scheme property allocated to it will be valued and the price of units calculated and payments made, if this currency is not the base currency of the scheme which is an umbrella.11

(g)

[deleted]11

11

Application of the prospectus contents to an umbrella

25

For a scheme which is an umbrella, information required must be stated:

(a)

in relation to each sub-fund where the information for any sub-fund differs from that for any other; and

(b)

for the umbrella as a whole, but only where the information is relevant to the umbrella as a whole.16

16Information on a feeder UCITS

1625A

In the case of a feeder UCITS, the following information:

(a)

a declaration that the feeder UCITS is a feeder of a particular master UCITS and as such permanently invests at least 85% in value of the scheme property in units of that master UCITS;

(b)

the investment objective and policy, including the risk profile; and whether the performance records of the feeder UCITS and the master UCITS are identical, or to what extent and for which reasons they differ, including a description of how the balance of the scheme property which is not invested in units of the master UCITS is invested in accordance with COLL 5.8.3 R (Balance of scheme property: investment restrictions on a feeder UCITS);

(c)

a brief description of the master UCITS, its organisation, its investment objective and policy, including the risk profile, and an indication of how the prospectus of the master UCITS may be obtained;

(d)

a summary of the master-feeder agreement or where applicable, the internal conduct of business rules referred to in COLL 11.3.2 R (2) (Master-feeder agreement and internal conduct of business rules);

(e)

how the unitholders may obtain further information on the master UCITS and the master-feeder agreement;

(f)

a description of all remuneration or reimbursement of costs payable by the feeder UCITS by virtue of its investment in units of the master UCITS, as well as the aggregate charges of the feeder UCITS and the master UCITS; and

(g)

a description of the tax implications of the investment into the master UCITS for the feeder UCITS.

[Note: article 63(1) of the UCITS Directive]18

18Information on a feeder NURS

1825B

In the case of a feeder NURS, the following information:

(a)

a declaration that the feeder NURS is a feeder of a particular qualifying master scheme and as such is dedicated to units in a single qualifying master scheme and the minimum (and, if relevant, maximum) investment that the feeder NURS may make in its qualifying master scheme;

(b)

the investment objective and policy of the feeder NURS, including its risk profile; and whether the performance records of the feeder NURS and the qualifying master scheme are identical, or to what extent and for which reasons they differ, including a description of how the balance of the scheme property which is not invested in units of the qualifying master scheme is invested in accordance with COLL 5.6.7 R (6A) (Spread: general);

(c)

a brief description of the qualifying master scheme, its organisation, its investment objective and policy, including the risk profile, and an indication of how the prospectus of the qualifying master scheme may be obtained;

(d)

how the unitholders may obtain further information on the qualifying master scheme;

(e)

a description of all remuneration or reimbursement of costs payable by the feeder NURS by virtue of its investment in units of the qualifying master scheme, as well as the aggregate charges of the feeder NURS and the qualifying master scheme; and

(f)

a description of the tax implications of the investment into the qualifying master scheme for the feeder NURS.

Marketing in another EEA state

26

A prospectus of a UCITS scheme which is prepared for the purpose of marketing units in a EEA State other than the United Kingdom, must give details as to:

(a)

what special arrangements have been made:

(i)

for paying in that EEA State amounts distributable to unitholders resident in that EEA State;

(ii)

for redeeming in that EEA State the units of unitholders resident in that EEA State;

(iii)

for inspecting and obtaining copies in that EEA State of the instrument constituting the fund23 and amendments to it, the prospectus and the annual and half-yearly long report; and

23

(iv)

for making public the price of units of each class; and

(b)

how the ICVC or the authorised fund manager of an AUT or ACS21 will publish in that EEA State notice:

21

(i)

that the annual and half-yearly long report are available for inspection;

(ii)

that a distribution has been declared;

(iii)

of the calling of a meeting of unitholders; and

(iv)

of the termination of the authorised fund or the revocation of its authorisation.

7Investment in overseas8 property through an intermediate holding vehicle

726A

7If investment in an overseas8 immovable is to be made through an intermediate holding vehicle or a series of intermediate holding vehicles, a statement disclosing the existence of that intermediate holding vehicle or series of intermediate holding vehicles and confirming that the purpose of that intermediate holding vehicle or series of intermediate holding vehicle is to enable the holding of overseas8 immovables by the scheme.

Additional information

27

Any other material information which is within the knowledge of the directors of an ICVC or the authorised fund manager of an AUT or ACS, or which the directors or authorised fund manager21 would have obtained by making reasonable enquiries, including but not confined to, the following matters:

21

(a)

information which investors and their professional advisers would reasonably require, and reasonably expect to find in the prospectus, for the purpose of making an informed judgement about the merits of investing in the authorised fund and the extent and characteristics of the risks accepted by so participating;

(b)

a clear and easily understandable explanation of any risks which investment in the authorised fund may reasonably be regarded as presenting for reasonably prudent investors of moderate means;

(c)

if there is any arrangement intended to result in a particular capital or income return from a holding of units in the authorised fund or any investment objective of giving protection to the capital value of, or income return from, such a holding:

(i)

details of that arrangement or protection;

(ii)

for any related guarantee, sufficient details about the guarantor and the guarantee to enable a fair assessment of the value of the guarantee;

(iii)

a description of the risks that could affect achievement of that return or protection; and

(iv)

details of the arrangements by which the authorised fund manager will notify unitholders of any action required by the unitholders to obtain the benefit of the guarantee; and

(d)

whether any notice has been given to unitholders of the authorised fund manager intention to propose a change to the scheme and if so, its particulars.

[Note: A transitional provision applies to row 3(ca) of this table: see COLL TP 1.28.]22

COLL 4.2.6GRP
(1) In relation to COLL 4.2.5R (3)(b) the prospectus might include:(a) a description of the extent (if any) to which that policy does not envisage the authorised fund remaining fully invested at all times;(b) for a non-UCITS retail scheme which may invest in immovable property:(i) the maximum extent to which the scheme property may be invested in immovables; and(ii) a statement of the policy of the authorised fund manager in relation to insurance of3 immovables forming part of
CREDS 2.2.26GRP
The main reasons why a credit union should maintain adequate accounting and other records are:(1) to provide the governing body5 with adequate financial and other information to enable it to conduct its business in a prudent manner on a day-to-day basis;(2) to safeguard the assets of the credit union and the interests of members and persons too young to be members; (3) to assist officers of the credit union to fulfil their regulatory and statutory duties in relation to the preparation
CREDS 2.2.33ARRP
5A credit union must maintain information systems to enable the governing body to direct and control the credit union's business effectively, and to provide the information required by the FCA.
CREDS 2.2.67GRP
5SYSC 4.7 says that a relevant authorised person, including a credit union, should:(1) allocate a number of specified management responsibilities (called FCA-prescribed senior management responsibilities) to one or more of its SMF managers; and(2) ensure that, at all times, one or more of its SMF managers have overall responsibility for each of the activities, business areas and management functions of the firm.
CREDS 2.2.69GRP
(1) 5The list of FCA-prescribed senior management responsibilities that a credit union should allocate is simpler than for most other relevant authorised persons.(2) SYSC 4.7.7R sets out a list of FCA-prescribed senior management responsibilities, including the ones that apply to credit unions.
CREDS 2.2.71GRP
5Under section 63E(1) of the Act, a relevant authorised person (including a credit union) should take reasonable care to ensure that no employee of the firm performs an FCA-specified significant-harm function under an arrangement entered into by the firm in relation to the carrying on by that firm of a regulated activity, unless the employee has a valid certificate issued by that firm to perform the function to which the certificate relates. The definition of employee for these
CREDS 2.2.72GRP
5SYSC 5.2 gives details about the certification requirement described in CREDS 2.2.71G and sets out rules and guidance about it, including a list of FCA-specified significant-harm functions.