Related provisions for GEN 1.1.2
221 - 240 of 619 items.
1Decisions about whether to apply to the civil courts for restitution orders under the Act will be made by the RDC Chairman or, in an urgent case and if the Chairman is not available, by an RDC Deputy Chairman. In an exceptionally urgent case the matter will be decided by the director of Enforcement or, in his or her absence, another member of the FCA's executive of at least director of division level.
1The FCA has power to apply to the court for a restitution order under section 382 of the Act and (in the case of market abuse) under section 383 of the Act. It also has an administrative power to require restitution under section 384 of the Act. When deciding whether to exercise these powers, the FCA will consider whether this would be the best use of the FCA's limited resources taking into account, for example, the likely amount of any recovery and the costs of achieving and
This chapter gives guidance to UK firms. In most cases UK firms will be authorised persons under the Act. However, under the CRD2, a subsidiary of a firm which is a credit institution6 meets the criteria set out in that Directive also has an EEA right. Such an unauthorised subsidiary is known as a financial institution. References in this chapter to a UK firm include a financial institution. The chapter does not provide guidance for Solvency II firms. Solvency II firms should
A UK firm should be aware that the guidance is the FCA's5 interpretation of the Single Market Directives, the Act and the legislation made under the Act. The guidance is not exhaustive and is not a substitute for firms consulting the legislation or taking their own legal advice in the United Kingdom and in the relevant EEA States.5
(1) UK RIEs4 are exempt persons under section 285 of the Act (Exemption for recognised investment exchanges and clearing houses).4(2) UK RIEs4 must satisfy recognition requirements prescribed by the Treasury (in certain cases with the approval of the Secretary of State) in the Recognition Requirements Regulations. UK RIEs must also satisfy the MiFID implementing requirements in the MiFID Regulation.2RAPs must satisfy the recognition requirements prescribed by the Treasury in the
Firms are reminded that section 398 of the Act (Misleading the FCA or PRA:9 residual cases) makes it an offence for a firm knowingly or recklessly to provide the FCA3 with information which is false or misleading in a material particular in purported compliance with the FCA's3rules or any other requirement imposed by or under the Act. An offence by a body corporate, partnership or unincorporated association may be attributed to an officer or certain other persons (section 400
4The rights and duties of auditors are set out in SUP 3.8 (Rights and duties of all auditors) and SUP 3.10 (Duties of auditors: notification and report on client assets). SUP 3.8.10 G includes the auditor's statutory duty to report certain matters to the FCA8 imposed by regulations made by the Treasury under sections 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act (information given by auditor or actuary to a regulator8). An auditor should bear these rights and duties in mind when carrying out client
This chapter sets out the FCA's3 approach to the supervision of recognised bodies and contains guidance on: 3(1) the arrangements for investigating complaints about recognised bodies made under section 299 of the Act (Complaints about recognised bodies) (REC 4.4); (2) the FCA's3approach to the exercise of its powers under:3(a) (for RIEs)2section 296 of the Act (Appropriate regulator's3 power to give directions) or (for RAPs) regulation 3 of the RAP regulations2 to give directions
1The effect of sections 20 (Authorised persons acting without permission) and 39(4) (Exemption of appointed representatives) of the Act is that the regulated activities covered by an appointed representative's appointment need to:(1) fall within the scope of the principal's permission; or(2) be excluded from being regulated activities when carried on by the principal, for example because they fall within article 28 of the Regulated Activities Order (Arranging transactions to which
(1) 8A tied agent that is an appointed representative may not start to act as a tied agent until it is included on the applicable register (section 39(1A) of the Act). If the tied agent is established in the UK, the register maintained by the FCA is the applicable register for these purposes. If the tied agent is established in another EEA State, it should consult section 39(1B) of the Act to determine the applicable register.(2) A UK MiFID investment firm that appoints an FCA
A public sector issuer that seeks admission of debt securities referred to in paragraphs 2 and 4 of Schedule 11A of the Act must submit to the FCA in final form a completed Application for Admission of Securities to the Official List.Note: The Application for Admission of Securities to the Official List form can be found on the UKLA section of the FCA's website.1
(1) The effect of section 59 of the Act is that if a person is to perform certain functions (which are known as controlled functions) for a credit union, the credit union should first apply for approval to:2(a) the FCA (if the controlled function is specified by the FCA in its rules); or2(b) the PRA (if the controlled function is specified by the PRA in its rules).2(2) The firm should not allow the person to perform that function until the firm receives the approval.2(3) A person
This guidance is issued under section 139A of Act (Guidance). It is designed to throw light on particular aspects of regulatory requirements, not to be an exhaustive description of a person's obligations. If a person acts in line with the guidance in the circumstances contemplated by it, then the FCA will proceed on the footing that the person has complied with aspects of the requirement to which the guidance relates.
Where collective investment schemes are concerned additional restrictions are placed on their promotion to ensure that only those which are regulated are promoted to the general public. This is achieved by a combination of sections 21 and 238 (Restrictions on promotion) of the Act as explained in PERG 8.20.2 G. A regulated collective investment scheme is:(1) an authorised unit trust scheme; or(1A) an authorised contractual scheme; or7(2) an investment company with variable capital;
Section 21 precludes the promotion by unauthorised persons of unregulated collective investment schemes unless the financial promotion is approved by an authorised person or is exempt. Section 238 then precludes the promotion of an unregulated collective investment scheme by authorised persons except where:(1) there is an exemption in an order made by the Treasury under section 238(6); or(2) the financial promotion is permitted under rules made by the FCA under section 238(5)
As explained in SUP 8, under section 138A3 of the Act, the appropriate regulator may not grant a waiver to a firm unless it is satisfied that:3(1) compliance by the firm with the rules, or with the rules as modified, would be unduly burdensome or would not achieve the purpose for which the rules were made; and(2) the waiver would not adversely affect the advancement of any of the appropriate regulator's objectives.33
The conditions relating to the use of an approach listed in BIPRU 1.3.2 G referred to in the relevant chapter of BIPRU are minimum standards. Satisfaction of those conditions does not automatically mean the appropriate regulator will grant a waiver referred to in those paragraphs. The appropriate regulator will in addition also apply the tests in section 138A of the Act.
(1) SUP 10C.12 describes the regime for conditional and time-limited approvals.(2) In particular, SUP 10C.12 sets out the FCA's policies on giving approval under section 59 subject to conditions or for a limited period only, as required by section 63ZD of the Act (Statement of policy relating to conditional approval and variation).(3) The policies described in SUP 10C.12 also apply when the FCA is considering whether to give its consent to an application made to the PRA for approval.(4)
The provisions in: (1) section 59 of the Act that say a firm should take reasonable care to ensure that no person performs a controlled function without approval (see SUP 10C.10.3G); and(2) section 63A of the Act, under which a person performing a controlled function without approval may be subject to a penalty (see SUP 10C.10.4G);apply not only to the performance of an FCA-designated senior management function by someone who has not been approved to perform that function but
Sections 59 and 63A of the Act show that failure to observe a condition does not in itself invalidate an approval. Instead, both the firm and the SMF manager may be subject to a penalty for breach of the Act. Such a failure may also:(1) involve a breach of FCArules by the firm and a breach by the SMF manager of COCON; and(2) call into question the fitness of the SMF manager.
2In the event that the appropriate regulator decides that the possible reduction in risk weighted exposure amounts which the originator would achieve by the securitisation referred to in BIPRU 9.4.11R is not justified by a commensurate transfer of credit risk to third parties, it will use its powers under section 55J (Variation etc on the Authority's own initiative) of the Act to require the firm to increase its risk weight exposure amount to an amount commensurate with the appropriate
2BIPRU 1.3.10 G sets out the appropriate regulator's approach to the granting of waivers. The conditions in BIPRU 9.4.15D are minimum requirements. Satisfaction of those does not automatically mean the appropriate regulator will grant the relevant waiver. The appropriate regulator will in addition also apply the tests in section 138A (Modification or waiver of rules) of the Act.
DTR 7.1 does not apply to:(1) any issuer which
is a subsidiary undertaking of
a parent undertaking where the parent undertaking is subject to DTR 7.1, or
to requirements implementing Article 41 of the Audit
Directive in any other EEA State;[Note: Article 41.6(a) of the Audit Directive](2) any issuer the sole
business of which is to act as the issuer of asset-backed
securities provided the entity makes a statement available to
the public setting out the reasons for which it considers
If a person established in the EEA: (1) does not have an EEA right; (2) does not have permission as a UCITS qualifier; and(3) does not have, or does not wish to exercise, a Treaty right (see SUP 13A.3.4 G to SUP 13A.3.11 G);to carry on a particular regulated activity in the United Kingdom, it must seek Part 4A permission from the appropriate UK regulator3 to do so (see the appropriate UK regulator's website: http://www.fca.org.uk/firms/about-authorisation/getting-authorised for
For guidance on how to apply for Part 4A permission3 under the Act, see the appropriate UK regulator's website: http://www.fca.org.uk/firms/about-authorisation/getting-authorised for the FCA and www.bankofengland.co.uk/pra/Pages/authorisations/newfirm/default.aspx for the PRA.31 If an EEA firm or Treaty firm wishes to make any subsequent changes to its top-up permission, it can make an application for variation of that permission (see SUP 6 (Applications to vary and cancel Part
1The FCA's approach to enforcing the Payment Services Regulations will mirror its general approach to enforcing the Act, as set out in EG 2. It will seek to exercise its enforcement powers in a manner that is transparent, proportionate, responsive to the issue, and consistent with its publicly stated policies. It will also seek to ensure fair treatment when exercising its enforcement powers. Finally, it will aim to change the behaviour of the person who is the subject of its
1The Payment Services Regulations, for the most part, mirror the FCA's investigative, sanctioning and regulatory powers under the Act. The FCA has decided to adopt procedures and policies in relation to the use of those powers akin to those it has under the Act. Key features of the FCA's approach are described below.