Related provisions for IFPRU 7.1.7
61 - 80 of 1010 items.
1The FCA has investigation and sanctioning powers in relation to both criminal and civil breaches of the Money Laundering Regulations. The Money Laundering Regulations impose requirements including, amongst other things, obligations to apply customer due diligence measures and conduct ongoing monitoring of business relationships on designated types of business.
1The FCA is responsible for monitoring and enforcing compliance with the Regulations not only by authorised firms who are within the Money Laundering Regulations’ scope, but also by what the Regulations describe as “Annex I financial institutions”. These are businesses which are not otherwise authorised by us but which carry out certain of the activities listed in Annex I of the Banking Consolidation Directive28, now Annex I of the CRD. The activities include lending (e.g. forfaiters
1The Money Laundering Regulations add to the range of options available to the FCA for dealing with anti-money laundering failures. These options are: • to prosecute both authorised firms and Annex I financial institutions;to take regulatory action against authorised firms for failures which breach the FCA'srules and requirements (for example, under Principle 3 or SYSC 3.2.6R or SYSC 6.1.1R); and• to impose civil penalties on both authorised firms and Annex I financial institutions
1This means that there will be situations in which the FCA has powers to investigate and take action under both the Act and the Money Laundering Regulations. The FCA will consider all the circumstances of the case when deciding what action to take and, if it is appropriate to notify the subject about the investigation, will in doing so inform them about the basis upon which the investigation is being conducted and what powers it is using. The FCA will adopt the approach outlined
1The Money Laundering Regulations also provide investigation powers that the FCA can use when investigating whether breachesof the Regulations have taken place. These powers include: • the power to require information from, and attendance of, relevant and connected persons (regulation 37); and• powers of entry and inspection without or under warrant (regulations 38 and 39).The use of these powers will be limited to those cases in which the FCAexpects to take action under the
1The FCA will adopt a risk-based approach to its enforcement of the Money Laundering Regulations. Failures in anti-money laundering controls will not automatically result in disciplinary sanctions, although enforcement action is more likely where a firm has not taken adequate steps to identify its money laundering risks or put in place appropriate controls to mitigate those risks, and failed to take steps to ensure that controls are being effectively implemented.
1However, the Money Laundering Regulations say little about the way in which investigation and sanctioning powers should be used, so the FCA has decided to adopt enforcement and decision making procedures which are broadly akin to those under the Act. Key features of the FCA's approach are described below.
The issuer must ensure that a director or a1senior manager of the issuer verifies the application by confirming on the FCA's form that the issuer has obtained the appropriate third party advice or reports as required by RCB 2.3.16 D and is satisfied that:(1) the information provided in the application is correct and complete; and (2) the arrangements relating to the covered bond or programme will comply with the requirements in the RCB Regulations and in RCB.
Where the FCA has published evidence showing that a well-developed and long-established residential property market is present in that territory with loss rates which do not exceed the limits in article 125(3) of the EU CRR (Exposures fully and completely secured by mortgages on residential property), a firm does not need to meet the condition in article 125(2)(b) of the EU CRR in order to consider an exposure, or any part of an exposure, as fully and completely secured for the
For the purposes of articles 124(2) and 126(2) of the EU CRR, and in addition to the conditions in those regulations, a firm may only treat exposures as fully and completely secured by mortgages on commercial immovable property located in the UK1 in line with article 126 where annual average losses stemming from lending secured by mortgages on commercial property in the UK did not exceed 0.5% of risk-weighted exposure amounts over a representative period. A firm must calculate
The FCA confirms that, in relation to the concessionary treatment set out in article 119(5) of the EU CRR, there are no financial institutions currently authorised and supervised by it (other than those to which the EU CRR applies directly) that are subject to prudential requirements that it considers to be comparable in terms of robustness to those applied to institutions under the EU CRR.[Note: article 119(5) of the EU CRR]
Where an exposure is denominated in a currency other than the euro, the FCA expects a firm to use appropriate and consistent exchange rates to determine compliance with relevant thresholds in the EU CRR. Accordingly, a firm should calculate the euro equivalent value of the exposure for the purposes of establishing compliance with the aggregate monetary limit of €1 million for retail exposures using a set of exchange rates the firm considers to be appropriate. The FCA expects a
The FCA considers an Ijara mortgage to be an example of an exposure to a tenant under a property leasing transaction concerning residential property under which the firm is the lessor and the tenant has an option to purchase. Accordingly, the FCA expects exposures to Ijara mortgages to be subject to all of the requirements that apply to exposures secured by mortgages on residential property, including in respect of periodic property revaluation (see articles 124 and 125 of the
The FCA expects a firm with exposure to a lifetime mortgage to inform the FCA of the difference in the own funds requirements on those exposures under the EU CRR and the credit risk capital requirement that would have applied under BIPRU 3.4.56A R.The FCA will use this information in its consideration of relevant risks in its supervisory assessment of the firm (see articles 124, 125 and 208 of the EU CRR).
When determining the portion of a past due item that is secured, the FCA expects the secured portion of an exposure covered by a mortgage indemnity product that is eligible for credit risk mitigation purposes under Part Three, Title II, Chapter 4 of the EU CRR (Credit risk mitigation) to qualify as an eligible guarantee (see article 129(2) of the EU CRR).
When determining whether exposures in the form of units or shares in a CIU are associated with particularly high risk, the FCA expects the following features would be likely to give rise to such risk:(1) an absence of external credit assessment of such CIU from an ECAI recognised under article 132(2) of the EU CRR (Items representing securitisation positions) and where such CIU has specific features (such as high levels of leverage or lack of transparency) that prevent it from
The FCA expects a firm's assessment of whether types of exposure referred to in article 128(3) of the EU CRR are associated with particularly high risk to include consideration of exposures arising out of a venture capital business (whether the firm itself carries on the venture capital business or not) . The FCA considers "venture capital business" to include the business of carrying on any of the following:(1) advising on investments, managing investments, arranging (bringing
Until such time as the European Commission adopts implementing technical standards drafted by the European Supervisory Authorities Joint Committee to specify for all ECAIs the relevant credit assessments of the ECAI that correspond to credit quality steps, the FCA expects a firm to continue to have regard to the table mapping the credit assessments of certain ECAIs to credit quality steps produced in accordance with regulation 22(3) of the Capital Requirements Regulations 2006.
A firm must demonstrate to the FCA that any additional tier 1 instrument or tier 2 instrument issued by it that is governed by the law of a third country is by its terms capable, as part of a resolution of the firm, of being written down or converted into a common equity tier 1 instrument of the firm to the same extent as an equivalent own funds instrument issued under the law of the UK.
A firm must notify the FCA of the following:(1) its intention; or(2) the intention of another member of its group that is not a firm, but is included in the supervision on a consolidated basis of the firm;to issue a capital instrument that it believes will qualify under the EUCRR as own funds other than a common equity tier 1 capital at least one month before the intended date of issue.
A firm does not have to give notice under IFPRU 3.2.10 R if the capital instrument is: (1) an ordinary share; or(2) a debt instrument issued under a debt securities programme under which the firm or group member has previously issued and the firm has notified the FCA, in accordance with IFPRU 3.2.10 R, prior to a previous issuance under the programme.
A firm must notify the FCA of its intention, or the intention of another member of its group that is not a firm included in the supervision on a consolidated basis of the firm, to amend or otherwise vary the terms of any own funds instrument included in its own funds or the own funds of its consolidated group at least one month before the intended date of such amendment or other variation.
1The FCA has information gathering and sanctioning powers under the Act which are applicable to breaches of EMIR requirements
by authorised persons or recognised bodies. The OTC derivatives, CCPs and trade repositories regulation adds to the powers available to the FCA for dealing with breaches of EMIR requirements and sets out information gathering and sanctioning powers enabling the FCA to investigate and take action for breaches of the EMIR requirements
1The FCA may require a non-authorised counterparty that is subject to obligations under EMIR to provide specified information or specified documents so that it can verify whether the non-authorised counterparty has complied with EMIR. The FCA also has the power to require a person to provide specified information or specified documents so that it can verify whether the person is subject to EMIR. The FCA may require the above information to be provided in such form, or to be verified
(1) 1The FCA has the power to publish a statement or impose a financial penalty of such amount as it considers appropriate on: (a) a financial counterparty who is not an authorised person, a non- financial counterparty or any other person who has breached an EMIR requirement or regulation 7 or 8 of the OTC derivatives,
CCPs and trade repositories regulation; (b) a financial counterparty who is an authorised person who has breached regulation 8 of the
1As the power to impose penalties for contravention of an EMIR requirement or regulations 7 or 8 of the OTC derivatives, CCPs and trade repositories regulation mirrors similar powers to that the FCA has under the Act, the FCA will adopt procedures and policies in relation to the use of those powers akin to those it has adopted under the Act, subject to EG 19.26.3(2).
1The FCA will use the sanctioning powers where it is appropriate to do so and with regard to the relevant factors listed in DEPP 6.2.1G and DEPP 6.4. In determining the appropriate level of financial penalty, the FCA will have regard to the principles set out in DEPP 6.5, DEPP 6.5A, DEPP 6.5B, DEPP 6.5D and DEPP 6.7.
1Where the FCA proposes or decides to take action to publish a statement or impose a financial penalty referred to in EG 19.26.3, it will give the person concerned a warning notice or a decision notice respectively. In the case of a public statement, the warning notice or decision notice will also set out the terms of the statement. In the case of a financial penalty, the warning notice or decision notice will also state the amount of the penalty. On receiving a warning notice,
A decision to: (1) revoke a recognition order under section 297 of the Act (Revoking recognition) or (for RAPs) regulation 4 of the RAP regulations; or3(2) make a direction under section 296 (FCA's4powers to give directions) or (for RAPs) regulation 3 of the RAP regulations; or34(3) refuse to make a recognition order under section 290 (Recognition orders) or 290A (Refusal of recognition on ground of excessive regulatory provision) or (for RAPs) regulation 2 of the RAP regulations32;is
In considering whether it would be appropriate to exercise the powers under section 296 or section 297 of the Act or (for RAPs) regulation 3 or 4 of the RAP regulations,3 the FCA4 will have regard to all relevant information and factors including:4(1) its guidance to recognised bodies;(2) the results of its routine supervision of the body concerned;(3) the extent to which the failure or likely failure to satisfy one or more of the recognised body requirements31may affect the statutory
In considering whether or not to make a recognition order, the FCA4 will have regard to all relevant information and factors, including its guidance to recognised bodies and applicants and the information provided by applicants. Details of the application processes and other guidance for applicants are set out in REC 5 and (for overseas applications) REC 6.4
Before exercising its powers under section 296 or section 297 of the Act or (for RAPs) regulation 3 or 4 of the RAP regulations3, the FCA4 will usually discuss its intention, and the basis for this, with the key individuals or other appropriate representatives of the recognised body. It will usually discuss its intention not to make a recognition order with appropriate representatives of the applicant.4
3Key steps in the section 298 procedure4
| 4 | ||
(1) |
give written notice to theRIE4 (or applicant); 4 |
The notice will state why the FCA4 intends to take the action it proposes to take, and include an invitation to make representations, and the period within which representations should be made (unless subsequently extended by the FCA)4. 4 |
(2)4 4 |
receive representations from the RIE or applicant concerned;4 4 |
The FCA4 will not usually consider oral representations without first receiving written representations from theRIE (or applicant)4. It will normally only hear oral representations from the RIE4 on request. 444 |
(3)4 4 |
write promptly to RIE (or applicant)4 who requests the opportunity to make oral representations if it decides not to hear that person's representations; 4 |
The FCA4 will indicate why it will not hear oral representations and the FCA4 will allow the RIE (or applicant)4 further time to respond. 444 |
(4)4 4 |
have regard to representations made; |
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(5)4 4 |
(when it has reached its decision) notify the RIE4 (or applicant) concerned in writing. 4 |
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| 4 |
4For RAPs, key steps in the regulation 5 procedure
The FCA will: |
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(1) |
give written notice to the RAP (or applicant); |
The notice will state why the FCA intends to take the action it proposes to take, and include an invitation to make representations, and the date by which representations should be made. |
(2) |
take such steps as it considers reasonably practicable to bring the notice to the attention of the members of the RAP or of the applicant, as the case may be; |
The FCA will also notify persons individually (as far as it considers it reasonably practicable to do so) if it considers that the action it proposes to take would affect them adversely in a way which would be different from its effect on other persons of the same class. |
(3) |
publish the notice so as to bring it to the attention of other persons likely to be affected; |
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(4) |
receive representations from the RAP or applicant concerned, any member of the RAP or applicant, and any other person who is likely to be affected by the action the FCA proposes to take; |
The FCA will not usually consider oral representations without first receiving written representations from the person concerned. It will normally only hear oral representations from the RAP (or applicant) itself or of a person whom it has notified individually, on request. |
(5) |
write promptly to any person who requests the opportunity to make oral representations if it decides not to hear that person's representations; |
The FCA will indicate why it will not hear oral representations and the FCA will allow the person concerned further time to respond. |
(6) |
have regard to representations made; |
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(7) |
(when it has reached its decision) notify the RAP (or applicant) concerned in writing; |
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(8) |
(if it has decided to give a direction, or revoke or refuse to make a recognition order) take such steps as it considers reasonably practicable to bring its decision to the attention of members of the RAP or applicant and to other persons likely to be affected. |
The FCA will usually give notice of its decision to the same persons and in the same manner as it gave notice of its intention to act. |
If a UK firm is passporting under the UCITS Directive, regulation 12(1) states that the UK firm must not make a change in its programme of operations, or the activities to be carried on under its EEA right, unless the relevant requirements in regulation 12(2) have been complied with. These requirements are:5(1) the UK firm has given a notice to the FCA15 and to the Host State regulator stating the details of the proposed change; or15(2) if the change arises as a result of circumstances
5For further details on giving the notices to the appropriate UK regulator, as described in SUP 13.7.3 G (1), SUP 13.7.3A G, SUP 13.7.3B G, SUP 13.7.5 G (1)and SUP 13.7.6 G,15UK firms may wish to use the standard electronic15 form available from the FCA and PRA authorisation teams 15(see SUP 13.12 (Sources of further information)).151551515
15Where the PRA is the appropriate UK regulator, it will consult the FCA before deciding whether to give consent to a change (or proposed change) and where the FCA is the appropriate UK regulator, it will consult the PRA before deciding whether to give consent in relation to a UK firm whose immediate group includes a PRA-authorised person.
(1) 11A UK firm which has exercised an EEA right deriving from the MCD to provide a cross border service, must not make any material changes to the service unless it has complied with the requirements in regulation 17(B)(2).(2) The requirements in regulation 17(B)(2) are that;(a) the UK firm has given notice to the FCA stating the details of the proposed change; and(b) the period of one month has elapsed, beginning with the day on which the UK firm gave notice.(3) Paragraph (1)
1On obtaining information concerning possible financial crime facilitated through or involving an incoming ECA provider, or detriment to UK markets or UK ECA recipients caused by the activities of an incoming ECA provider, the FCA will contact the relevant EEA regulator of the incoming ECA provider. The FCA would expect the relevant EEA regulator to consider the matter, investigate it where appropriate and keep the FCA informed about what action, if any, was being taken. The FCA
1However, there are likely to be circumstances in which the FCA will need to use the electronic commerce activity direction power. Examples could include where it was necessary to stop the behaviour complained of, or to make the continued provision of services by the incoming ECA provider conditional upon compliance with specified requirements. Overall, the FCA may use the direction power: (1) where: (a) the behaviour complained of was causing, or had the potential to cause,
1The question of whether the FCA decides to prevent or prohibit the incoming electronic commerce activity, or to make it subject to certain requirements (for example, compliance with specified rules), will depend on the overall circumstance of the case. A relevant consideration will be whether the FCA is satisfied that its concerns over the incoming electronic commerce activity can be adequately addressed through the imposition of a requirement, rather than a complete prohibition
1The FCA may consider that a case is urgent, in particular, where: (1) the information available to it indicates serious concerns about the incoming electronic commerce activity that need to be addressed immediately; and (2) circumstances indicate that it is appropriate to use the direction power immediately to prohibit the incoming electronic commerce activity, or to make the carrying on of the activity subject to specified requirements.
1The FCA will consider the full circumstances of the case when deciding whether exercising the direction power, without first taking the procedural steps set out in regulation 6, is an appropriate response to such concerns. The factors the FCA may consider include those listed in paragraph 19.9.4 of this guide. There may be other relevant factors.
1The FCA's decision to make, revoke or vary an electronic commerce activity direction will generally be taken by the RDC Chairman. However, this is subject to two exceptions. (1) In an urgent case and if the Chairman is not available, the decision will be taken by an RDC Deputy Chairman and where possible, but subject to the need to act swiftly, one other RDC
member.
(2) If a provider who has been notified of the FCA's intention to make
1Where a provider must be given the opportunity to make representations in relation to a proposed direction or variation of a direction, the RDC Chairman will determine in each case the manner and the period within which those representations should be made. If the FCA decides to issue a direction or vary it at its own initiative, or if the FCA refuses an application to vary or revoke a direction, the person to whom the direction applies may refer the matter to the Tribunal.
1Regulation 10(8) of the ECD Regulations provides that if the FCA makes a direction, it may publish, in such manner as it considers appropriate, such information about the matter to which the direction relates as it considers appropriate in furtherance of any of the objectives referred to in paragraph of this guide. However, under Regulation 10(9), the FCA may not publish information relating to a direction if publication would, in the FCA's
opinion, be unfair to the
1When deciding what information, if any, to publish and the appropriate manner of publication, the FCA will consider the full circumstances of each case. The FCA anticipates that it will generally be appropriate to publish relevant details of a direction, in order to protect and inform consumers. However, in accordance with the Regulation 10(9) prohibition, it will not publish information if it considers that publication would be unfair to the provider or prejudicial to the interests
If a registered society fails to file an R by the date it is required to be filed:(1) the R used to determine the amount of the periodic fee payable by the registered society will be that shown in the R last filed with the FCA or its predecessor; and(2) the registered society must pay an administrative fee equal to the lower of the periodic fee payable by the registered society under Annex 1R for that year, and £250.
If a registered society ceases to be a registered society on or after 1 April in a particular financial year, but before an invoice for the periodic fee payable under 1.2.1 R for the financial year in which the society ceases to be a registered society has been issued by the FCA, the periodic fee payable by that registered society under 1.2.1 R is the amount of the periodic fee under Annex 1R for the immediately preceding financial year.
A registered society need not pay a periodic fee on the date which it is due under the relevant provision in these rules, if:(1) that date falls during a period during which circumstances of the sort set out in R(Emergencies) exist, and that registered society has reasonable grounds to believe that those circumstances impair its ability to pay the fee, in which case it must pay on or before the fifth business day after the end of that period; or(2) that date would otherwise
The FCA expects to issue invoices for periodic fees at least 30 days before the date on which they fall due. Accordingly, it will generally be the case that a registered society will have at least 30 days from the issue of the invoice before an administrative fee becomes payable, and at least 45 days before any interest becomes payable.
6(1) A firm must notify the FCA that it has become or ceased to be closely linked with any person and ensure the following:454(a) where a firm has elected to report changes in close links on a monthly basis under SUP 11.9.5A R, the notification must be made in line with SUP 11.9.3BA R; and4(b) in any other case, the notification must be made by completing the Close Links Notification Form (see SUP 11.9.3B G) and must include the information in SUP 11.9.3D G.4(2) If a group includes
6The firm must make a notification to the FCA under SUP 11.9.1A R:(1) as soon as reasonably practicable and no later than one month after it becomes aware that it has become or ceased to be closely linked with any person; or(2) where a firm has elected to report on a monthly basis, within fifteen business days of the end of each month by completing 4the Close Links Monthly Report for that month and must submit the group organisation chart on a quarterly basis unless there have
6(1) A firm elects to report changes in close links on a monthly basis by sending a written notice of election to the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA.(2) An election to report changes in close links on a monthly basis will stand until such time as the firm gives its usual supervisory contact at the FCA at least one month's written notice of its intention to cease reporting changes in close links on a monthly basis.
Under section 294(4) of the Act, before the FCA1 may give a waiver of notification rules, it must be satisfied that:1(1) compliance by the recognised body with those notification rules, or with those rules as unmodified, would be unduly burdensome or would not achieve the purpose for which those rules were made; and(2) the waiver would not result in undue risk to persons whose interests those rules are designed to protect.
There is no application form, but applicants should make their application formally and in writing and in accordance with any direction the FCA1 may make under section 294(2) of the Act. Each application should set out at least:1(1) full particulars of the waiver which is requested; (2) the reason why the recognised body believes that the criteria set out in section 294(4) (and described in REC 3.3.3 G) would be met, if this waiver were granted; and (3) where the recognised body
Any waiver given by the FCA1 under section 294 of the Act will be made in writing, stating: 1(1) the name of the recognised body in respect of which the waiver is made;(2) the notification rules which are to be waived or modified in respect of that body;(3) where relevant, the manner in which any rule is to be modified;(4) any condition or time limit to which the waiver is subject; and(5) the date from which the waiver is to take effect.
Where the FCA1 considers that it will not give the waiver which has been applied for, the FCA1 will give reasons to the applicant for its decision. The FCA1 will endeavour, where practicable, to inform an applicant in advance where it seems that an application is likely to fail unless it is amended or expanded, so that the applicant will have the opportunity to make any necessary amendments or additions before the application is considered.111
The FCA1 will periodically review any waiver it has given. The FCA1 has the right to revoke a waiver under section 294(6) of the Act. This right is likely to be exercised in the event of a material change in the circumstances of the recognised body or in any fact on the basis of which the waiver was given.11
Every firm will have one or more persons responsible for directing its affairs. These persons will be performing the FCA governing functions and will be required to be FCA-approved persons unless the application provisions in SUP 10A.1, or the particular description of an FCA controlled function, provide otherwise. For example, each director of a company incorporated under the Companies Acts will perform an FCA governing functions. However, if the firm is a PRA-authorised person,
(1) This paragraph explains the basis on which the director function and the non-executive director function are applied to persons who have a position with the firm'sparent undertaking or holding company under SUP 10A.6.8 R or SUP 10A.6.13 R.(2) The basic position is set out in SUP 10A.3.4 G. As is the case with all controlled functions, SUP 10A.6.8 R and SUP 10A.6.13 R are subject to the overriding provisions in SUP 10A.3.1 R, which sets out the requirements of section 59(1)
For a branch in the United Kingdom of an overseas firm, the FCA would not normally expect the overseas chief executive of the firm as a whole to be FCA-approved for this function where there is a senior manager under him with specific responsibility for those activities of the branch which are subject to the UKregulatory system. In some circumstances, the person within the firm responsible for UK operations may, if the function is likely to enable him to exercise significant influence
The effect of SUP 10A.1.17 R is that regulated activity in SUP 10A.6.23 R (and elsewhere) is to be taken as not including an activity that is a non-mainstream regulated activity. Therefore, a partner whose only regulated activities are incidental to his professional services, in a partnership whose principal purpose is to carry on other than regulated activities, need not be an FCA-approved person. What amounts to the principal purpose of the firm is a matter of fact in each case
Typically a non-directive friendly Society will appoint a “committee of management” to direct its affairs. However, the governing arrangements may be informal and flexible. If this is the case, the FCA would expect the society to resolve to give responsibility for the carrying on of regulated activities to one individual who is appropriate in all the circumstances. That individual may, for example, have the title of chief executive or similar. The individual would have to be an
If a direct payment service provider2 does not pay the total amount of its PSR fees before the end of the date on which it is due, it must pay to the FCA2: (1) an administrative fee of £250; plus(2) interest on any unpaid part of the fee at an annual rate of 5% above the Official Bank Rate from time to time in force, accruing daily from the date on which the amount concerned became due.
An auditor of a firm must submit a client assets 5report addressed to the FCA which: 5(1) 5(a) states the matters set out in SUP 3.10.5 R; and55(b) specifies the matters to which SUP 3.10.9 R and SUP 3.10.9A R refer; or (2) if the firm claims not to hold client money or custody assets, states whether anything has come to the auditor's attention that causes him to believe that the firm held client money or custody assets during the period covered by the report.
SUP 3.10.4 R provides that an auditor must ensure that a client assets report is prepared in accordance with the terms of, as the case may be, a reasonable assurance engagement or a limited assurance engagement. However, the FCA also expects an auditor to have regard, where relevant, to material published by the Financial Reporting Council 11that deals specifically with the client assets report which the auditor is required to submit to the FCA. In the FCA's view, a client assets
335(1) 5If an auditor expects that it will fail to comply with SUP 3.10.7 R, it must no later than the end of the four month period in question:(a) notify the FCA that it expects that it will be unable to deliver a client assets report by the end of that period; and(b) ensure that the notification in (a) is accompanied by a full account of the reasons for its expected failure to comply with SUP 3.10.7 R.(2) If an auditor fails to comply with SUP 3.10.7 R, it must promptly:(a)
1The rights and duties of auditors are set out in SUP 3.8 (Rights and duties of all auditors) and SUP 3.10 (Duties of auditors: notification and report on client assets). SUP 3.8.10 G also refers to the auditor's statutory duty to report certain matters to the FCA imposed by regulations made by the Treasury under sections 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act (information given by auditor or actuary to a regulator). An auditor should bear these rights and duties in mind when carrying out
1It is the responsibility of an insurance intermediary's senior management to determine, on a continuing basis, whether the firm is an exempt insurance intermediary for the purposes of this requirement and to appoint an auditor if management determines the firm is no longer exempt. SUP 3.7 (amplified by SUP 15) sets out what a firm should consider when deciding whether it should notify the FCA of matters raised by its auditor.
5An auditor must:(1) deliver to a firm a draft of its client assets report such that the firm has an adequate period of time to consider the auditor’s findings and to provide the auditor with comments of the kind to which SUP 3.11.1 G refers; and(2) unless it is the auditor of a firm falling within category (10) of SUP 3.1.2 R, deliver to the firm a copy of the final report at the same time as it delivers that report to the FCA in accordance with SUP 3.10.7 R.
(1) 5The FCA expects that the list of breaches will include every breach of a rule in CASS insofar as that rule is within the scope of the client assets report and is identified in the course of the auditor’s review of the period covered by the report, whether identified by the auditor or disclosed to it by the firm, or by any third party.(2) 5For the purpose of determining whether to qualify its opinion or express an adverse opinion, the FCA would expect an auditor to exercise
2The AIFMD
UK regulation includes information gathering and sanctioning powers that enable the FCA to investigate and take action for breaches of the regulations and directly applicable EU regulations. Specific standalone powers are in the AIFMD
UK regulation for unauthorised AIFMs, by applying relevant sections of the Act. Amendments to the Act, including those made under the Financial Services and Markets Act (Qualifying EU
2The FCA has decided that its approach to enforcing the AIFMD
UK regulation requirements will mirror its general approach to enforcing the Act in EG 2. Therefore, the FCA will apply the same procedures and policies under the Act for appointing investigators and requiring information for breaches of the AIFMD UK regulation.
2The FCA will respect the principle of proportionality when taking action against EuSEF or EuVECA
managers for breaches identified in articles 22 and 21 of the directly applicable EuSEF regulation and EuVECA regulation, respectively. The FCA may take action to ensure compliance with the regulations or prohibit the use of the designation of EuSEF
manager or EuVECA manager and revoke registration of such managers. The prohibition route is more
2The RDC is the FCA's decision maker for some decisions under the AIFMD
UK regulation, as set out in DEPP 2 Annex 1G. The RDC will make its decisions following the procedure in DEPP 3.2 or, where appropriate, DEPP 3.3 and 3.4. For decisions made by executive procedures, the procedures to be followed are in DEPP 4.
2The AIFMD
UK regulation applies the procedural provisions of Part and Part 26 of the Act for matters that can be referred to the Tribunal and to warning and decision notices under the regulations as it applies to referrals and notices under the Act. The AIFMD
UK regulation also applies sections 205 and 206 of the Act to unauthorised AIFMs and, accordingly, the FCA will give third party rights (section 393 of the Act) and access to material
2When determining whether to take action to impose a penalty under the AIFMD
UK regulation, the FCA's policy includes having regard to the relevant factors in DEPP 6.2 and DEPP 6.4. When determining the level of financial penalty, the FCA's policy includes having regard to relevant principles and factors in DEPP 6.5 to 6.5A, DEPP 6.5B, DEPP 6.5D and DEPP 6.7.
2Regulation 71(2) of the AIFMD
UK regulation applies section 169 of the Act in respect of unauthorised AIFMs, which requires the FCA to have a statement of policy on the conduct of certain interviews in response to requests from overseas regulators. The FCA will follow the procedures described in DEPP 7.
1Where the FCA interviews a person, it will allow the person to be accompanied by a legal adviser, if they wish. The FCA will also, where appropriate, explain what use can be made of the answers in proceedings against them. Where the interview is tape-recorded, the person will be given a copy of the audio tape of the interview and, where a transcript is made, a copy of the transcript.
1
Individuals suspected of a criminal offence may be interviewed under caution. These interviews will be subject to all the safeguards of the relevant Police and Criminal Evidence Act Codes and are voluntary on the part of the suspect. The FCA will warn the suspect at the start of the interview of their right to remain silent (and the consequences of remaining silent) and will inform the suspect that they are entitled to have a legal adviser present. The FCA
1If a suspect has been interviewed by the FCA using statutory powers, before they are re-interviewed on a voluntary basis (under caution or otherwise), the FCA will explain the difference between the two types of interview. The FCA will also tell the individual about the limited use that can be made of their previous answers in criminal proceedings or in proceedings in which the FCA seeks a penalty for market abuse under Part VIII of the Act.
1Conversely, where a suspect has been interviewed under caution, and the FCA later wishes to conduct a compulsory interview with them, the FCA will explain the difference between the two types of interview, and will notify the individual of the limited use that can be made of his answers in the compulsory interview.
1On occasion, where the police have a power of arrest, the FCA may make a request to the police for assistance to arrest the individual for questioning by the FCA (FCA investigators do not have powers of arrest), for example: (1) where it appears likely that inviting an individual to attend on a voluntary basis would prejudice an ongoing investigation or risk the destruction of evidence or the dissipation of assets; or (2) where a suspect declines an invitation to attend a voluntary
1Where the FCA has appointed an investigator in response to a request from an overseas regulator or EEA regulator, it may, under sections 169(7) or 131FA of the Act respectively, direct the investigator to allow a representative of that regulator to attend, and take part in, any interview conducted for the purposes of the investigation. However, the FCA may only use this power if it is satisfied that any information obtained by an overseas regulator or EEA regulator as a result
1The factors that the FCA may take into account when deciding whether to make a direction under section 169(7) include the following: (1) the complexity of the case; (2) the nature and sensitivity of the information sought; (3) the FCA's own interest in the case; (4) costs, where no Community obligation is involved, and the availability of resources; and (5) the availability of similar assistance to UK authorities in similar circumstances.
Achieving the regulatory objectives involves the FCA informing itself of developments in firms and in markets. The Act requires the FCA to maintain arrangements for supervising authorised persons (section 1L(1)). 5 The Act also requires the FCA to take certain steps to cooperate with other relevant bodies and 3regulators (section 354A). For these purposes, the FCA needs to have access to a broad range of information about a firm's business.5
The FCA receives the information in SUP 2.1.3 G through a variety of means, including notifications by firms (see SUP 15) and regular reporting by firms (see SUP 16). This chapter is concerned with the methods of information gathering that the FCA may use on its own initiative in the discharge of its functions under the Act. This chapter does not deal with the information gathering powers that the FCA has under the Unfair Terms Regulations and the CRA. 7These are dealt with in
Part XI of the Act (Information Gathering and Investigations) gives the FCA10 statutory powers, including: 10(1) to require the provision of information (see sections 165 and 103EG 32);31032310(2) to require reports from skilled persons (see section 166 and SUP 5);(3) to appoint investigators (see sections 167, 168 and 169 of the Act and EG 32); and2(4) to apply for a warrant to enter premises (see section 176 of the Act and EG 42).2
The FCA prefers to discharge its functions by working in an open and cooperative relationship with firms. The FCA will look to obtain information in the context of that relationship unless it appears that obtaining information in that way will not achieve the necessary results, in which case it will use its statutory powers. The FCA has exercised its rule-making powers to make Principle 11 which requires that a firm must deal with its regulators in an open and cooperative way,
The purpose of SUP 2.3 is to amplify Principle 11 in the context of information gathering by the FCA on its own initiative in the discharge of its functions under the Act. SUP 2.3 therefore sets out, in guidance on Principle 11 and in rules, how the FCA expects firms to deal with the FCA in that context, including the steps that a firm should take with a view to ensuring that certain connected persons should also cooperate with the FCA.
The purpose of SUP 2.4 is to explain a particular method of information gathering used by the FCA, known as "mystery shopping". Information about how a firm sells financial products can be very difficult to obtain, and the purpose of this method is to obtain such information from individuals who approach a firm in the role of potential retail consumers on the FCA's initiative. The FCA may seek information about particular issues or the activities of individual firms by means
Where a UK RIE proposes to operate a new regulated market or close an existing regulated market it must give the FCA3notice of that event and the information specified for the purposes of this rule in REC 3.14A.3 R, at the same time as that proposal is first formally communicated to its members or shareholders (or any group or class of them). 3
Where a UK RIE proposes to operate a new MTF or close an existing MTF it must give the FCA3notice of that event and the information specified for the purposes of this rule in REC 3.14A.5 R, at the same time as that proposal is first formally communicated to its members or shareholders (or any group or class of them).3
The following information is specified for the purposes of REC 3.14A.4 R:(1) where the UK RIE proposes to operate a new MTF:(a) a description of the MTF; and(b) a description of the specified investments which will be admitted to trading on that MTF.(2) where the UK RIE proposes to close a MTF, the name of that MTF.
The appropriate regulator4 is required by sections 138B(1) and (2)4 of the Act to publish a waiver unless it is satisfied that it is inappropriate or unnecessary to do so. If the appropriate regulator4 publishes a waiver, it will not publish details of why a waiver was required or any of the supporting information given in a waiver application.444
4The FCA must consult the PRA before publishing or deciding not to publish a waiver which relates to:(1) a PRA-authorised person; or(2) an authorised person who has as a member of its immediate group a PRA-authorised person;unless the waiver relates to rules made by the FCA under sections 247 or 248 of the Act.
When considering whether it is satisfied under section 138B(2)4, the appropriate regulator4 is required by section 138B(3)4 of the Act:444(1) to take into account whether the waiver relates to a rule contravention of which is actionable under section 138D4 of the Act (Actions for damages); Schedule 5 identifies such rules;4(2) to consider whether its publication would prejudice, to an unreasonable degree, the commercial interests of the firm concerned, or any other member of its
Waivers can affect the legal rights of third parties, including consumers. In the appropriate regulator's4 view it is important that the fact and effect of such waivers should be transparent. So the fact that a waiver relates to a rule that is actionable under section 138D4 of the Act (see SUP 8.6.2 G (1)) will tend to argue in favour of publication.44
In considering whether commercial interests would be prejudiced to an unreasonable degree (see SUP 8.6.2 G (2)), the appropriate regulator4 will weigh the prejudice to firms' commercial interests against the interests of consumers, markets and other third parties in disclosure. In doing so the appropriate regulator4 will consider factors such as the extent to which publication of the waiver would involve the premature release of proprietary information to commercial rivals, for
If, after taking into account the matters in SUP 8.3.3 D to SUP 8.6.6 G, a firm believes there are good grounds for the appropriate regulator4 either to withhold publication or to publish the waiver without disclosing the identity of the firm, it should make this clear in its application. If the appropriate regulator4proposes to publish a waiver against the wishes of the firm, the appropriate regulator4 will give the firm the opportunity to withdraw its application before the
A decision to withhold a waiver or identity of a firm from publication may be for a limited period only, usually as long as the duration of the relevant grounds for non-publication. If the appropriate regulator4 proposes to publish information about a waiver that had previously been withheld, it will first give the firm an opportunity to make representations.4
Paragraph 23 of Schedule 1ZA18 of2 the Act,7regulation 92 of the Payment Services Regulations, 22 regulation 59 of the Electronic Money Regulations7and article 25(a) of the MCD Order22 enable the FCA18 to charge fees to cover its costs and expenses in carrying out its functions. The corresponding provisions for the FSCS levy ,5FOS levies and CFEB levies5 are set out in FEES 6.1,5FEES 5.2 and FEES 7.1.4 G5 respectively. Case fees payable to the FOS Ltd are set out in FEES 5.5B.
3Regulation 92 of the Payment Services Regulations and regulation 59 of the Electronic Money Regulations each provide7 that the functions of the FCA18 under the respective7 regulations are treated for the purposes of paragraph 23 of Schedule 1ZA18 to the Act as functions conferred on the FCA18 under the Act. Paragraph 23(7) 22 however, has not been included 22.7This is 22the FCA's187 obligation to ensure that the amount of penalties received or expected to be received are not
The FCA’s12fees payable will vary from one fee year18 to another, and will reflect the FCA’s12funding requirement for that period and the other key components, as described in FEES 2.1.7G. Periodic fees, which will normally be payable on an annual basis, will provide the majority of the funding required to enable the FCA12to undertake its statutory functions.18181818181818
The key components of the FCA12fee mechanism (excluding the FSCS5levy, the FOS5 levy and case fees, and the CFEB levy5which are dealt with in FEES 5,5FEES 6 and FEES 7)5 are:555(1) a funding requirement derived from:(a) the FCA’s12financial management and reporting framework;(b) the FCA’s12budget; and(c) adjustments for audited variances between budgeted and actual expenditure in the previous accounting year, and reserves movements (in accordance with the FCA’s12reserves policy);(2)
18PRA-authorised persons and persons seeking to become PRA-authorised persons should note that the FCA and the PRA have agreed for the FCA to act as the PRA's collection 12agent for 12PRA fees. Where applicable, both PRA and FCA fees should be paid as a single payment to the FCA, which will receive the payment in its own capacity in respect of FCA fees and in its capacity as collection 12agent for the PRA in respect of the PRA fees. References to this arrangement will be referred