Related provisions for PRIN 3.1.5

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EG 20.3.2RP
1The CCA Order does not require the FCA to publish procedures about its approach towards the commencement of criminal prosecutions. However, the FCA will normally follow its equivalent decision-making procedures for similar decisions under the Act as set out in EG 12.
EG 20.3.3RP
1The CCA Order does not require the FCA to publish procedures about its approach towards applications to the court for an injunction or restitution order. However, the FCA will normally follow its equivalent decision-making procedures for similar decisions under the Act as set out in EG 10 and EG 11.
EG 20.3.4RP
1The CCA Order requires the FCA to give third party rights as set out in section 393 of the Act and to give access to material, as set out in section 394 of the Act, in relation to warning notices and decision notices given under the CCA Order.
EG 20.3.5RP
1The CCA Order applies the procedural provisions of Part 9 of the Act, as modified by the CCA Order, in respect of matters that can be referred to the Tribunal. Referrals to the Tribunal in respect of decision notices given under sections 67 (pursuant to article 3(3) of the CCA Order) and 208 (pursuant to article 3(7) of the CCA Order) of the Act are treated as disciplinary referrals for the purpose of section 133 of the Act.
FEES 5.2.1GRP
Paragraph 9 of Schedule 17 to the Act (The Ombudsman Scheme) requires FOS Ltd to adopt an annual budget which has been approved by the FCA. The annual budget must distinguish between the costs of operating the Compulsory Jurisdiction and the Voluntary Jurisdiction. 3
FEES 5.2.2GRP
Section 234 of the Act (Industry Funding) enables the FCA to require the payment to it or to FOS Ltd, by firms or any class of firm, of specified amounts (or amounts calculated in a specified way) to cover the costs of: (1) the establishment of 1the Financial Ombudsman Service; and (2) its operation in relation to the Compulsory Jurisdiction.
FEES 5.2.3GRP
Paragraph 15 of Schedule 17 to the Act enables FOS Ltd to require firms subject to the Compulsory Jurisdiction and any other respondents to a complaint to pay specified fees to it in respect of complaints closed by the Financial Ombudsman Service.
FEES 5.2.5GRP
Paragraph 18 of Schedule 17 to the Act enables FOS Ltd to require VJ participants to pay to it such amounts at such times as it specifies in the standard terms.
FEES 5.2.6GRP
The relevant provisions of the rules in FEES 5 and FEES 2 will be applied to VJ participants through the standard terms made by FOS Ltd under paragraph 18 of Schedule 17 to the Act (see DISP 4).
PERG 9.4.1GRP
The first element of the definition is that open-ended investment companies are a corporate form of collective investment scheme. This means that they must have the features in section 235 of the Act.
PERG 9.4.2GRP
Section 235(1) states that a collective investment scheme means any arrangements with respect to property of any description. The purpose or effect of the arrangements must be to enable the persons taking part in them to participate in or receive profits or income arising from the acquisition, holding, management or disposal of the property or sums paid out of such profits or income. The participants must not have day-to-day control over the management of the property (section
PERG 9.4.4GRP
Analysing a typical corporate structure in terms of the definition of a collective investment scheme, money will be paid to the body corporate in exchange for shares or securities issued by it. The body corporate becomes the beneficial owner of that money in exchange for rights against the legal entity that is the body corporate. The body corporate then has its own duties and rights that are distinct from those of the holders of its shares or securities. Such arrangements will,
PERG 9.4.5GRP
Where a body corporate does come within the definition of a collective investment scheme in section 235(1) to (3), the only relevant issue is to determine whether or not it is excluded. As PERG 9.2.2 G (Introduction) explains, the exclusions are in the Schedule to the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Collective Investment Schemes) Order 2001 (SI 2001/1062) (Arrangements not amounting to a collective investment scheme). If a body corporate satisfies any of the exclusions
PERG 9.4.6GRP
In the FCA's view, the question of what constitutes a single scheme in line with section 235(4) of the Act does not arise in relation to a body corporate. This is simply because the body corporate is itself a collective investment scheme (and so is a single scheme). Section 235(4) contemplates a 'separate' pooling of parts of the property that is subject to the arrangements referred to in section 235(1). But to analyse a body corporate in this way requires looking through its
GEN 2.2.3RRP
Any rule in the Handbook which has the status letter "E" in the margin or heading:(1) is to be taken also to provide that contravention of the rule does not give rise to any of the consequences provided for by provisions of the Act other than section 138C36 (Evidential provisions); and36(2) incorporates the status letter "E" in the margin or heading as part of the rule.
GEN 2.2.4GRP
(1) The rules to which section 138C36 of the Act applies ("evidential provisions") are identified in the Handbook by the status letter "E" in the margin or heading.36(2) Other provisions in the Handbook, although also identified by the status letter "E" in the margin or heading, are actually not rules but provisions in codes and GEN 2.2.3 R does not apply to them. These code provisions are those provisions in the Code of Practice for Approved Persons (APER 3 and APER 4) and the
GEN 2.2.12GRP
The application of the Interpretation Act 1978 to the Handbook has the effect, in particular, that:(1) expressions in the Handbook used in the Act have the meanings which they bear in the Act, unless the contrary intention appears;(2) where reference is made in the Handbook to an enactment, it is a reference to that enactment as amended and includes a reference to that provision as extended or applied by or under any other enactment, unless the contrary intention appears; and(3)
GEN 2.2.18RRP
(1) If a firm, which is a partnership7 or unincorporated association, is dissolved, but its authorisation continues to have effect under section 32 of the Act (Partnerships and unincorporated associations) in relation to any partnership or unincorporated association7 which succeeds to the business of the dissolved firm, the successor partnership or unincorporated association7 is to be regarded as the same firm for the purposes of the Handbook unless the context otherwise requires7.77(2)
GEN 2.2.19GRP
In principle, it is possible to view a change of partners7 in a partnership7, or a change in the membership of the unincorporated association, as the formation of a new partnership7 or association. GEN 2.2.18 R reflects section 32 of the Act (Partnerships and unincorporated associations), which provides for the continuing authorisation of partnerships7 and unincorporated associations following a change in partners7 or members if certain conditions are satisfied. GEN 2.2.18 R
GEN 2.2.25GRP
36Examples of rules being interpreted as cut back by GEN 2.2.23 R include the following:(1) [deleted]1212(2) SYSC 6.1.1 R requires a firm to maintain adequate policies and procedures to ensure compliance with its obligations under the regulatory system; SYSC 6.1.1 R should be interpreted:(a) as applied by the FCA in respect of a PRA-authorised person's compliance with regulatory obligations that are the responsibility of the FCA (for example, in respect of a bank maintaining policies
COLL 11.6.1GRP
(1) Section 258A(1) and (2) and section 261Z(1) and (2)1 (Winding up or merger of master UCITS) of the Act, in implementation of article 60 of the UCITS Directive, provide1 that where a master UCITS is wound up, for whatever reason, the FCA is to direct the manager and trustee of any AUT or the authorised contractual scheme manager and depositary of any ACS1 which is a feeder UCITS of the master UCITS to wind up the scheme, unless one of the following conditions is satisfied:1(a)
COLL 11.6.3RRP
Where the authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme that is a feeder UCITS is notified that its master UCITS is to be wound up, it must submit to the FCA the following:(1) where the authorised fund manager of the feeder UCITS intends to invest at least 85% in value of the scheme property in units of another master UCITS:(a) its application for approval under section 283A of the Act for that investment;(b) where applicable, its notice under section 251 (Alteration of schemes and
COLL 11.6.5RRP
Where the authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme that is a feeder UCITS is notified that the master UCITS is to merge with another UCITS scheme or EEA UCITS scheme or divide into two or more such schemes, it must submit to the FCA the following:(1) where the authorised fund manager of the feeder UCITS intends it to continue to be a feeder UCITS of the same master UCITS:(a) its application under section 283A of the Act, for approval;(b) where applicable, a notice under section
COLL 11.6.10RRP
Where:(1) the FCA approves an application under sections 283A (Master-feeder structures), 252A or 261S1 (Proposal to convert to a non-feeder UCITS) of the Act or regulation 22A of the OEIC Regulations that arises as a result of the winding-up, merger or division of the master UCITS (other than an application pursuant to COLL 11.6.5R (1)); and1(2) the authorised fund manager of the feeder UCITS holds or receives cash in accordance with COLL 11.6.9R (4) or as a result of a winding-up;the
COLL 11.6.11GRP
COLL 11.6.10 R gives effect to sections 283A(4), 252A(8) and 261S(8)1 of the Act and regulation 22A(4) of the OEIC Regulations which require the FCA to impose certain conditions when approving the re-investment of cash received from a master UCITS which has been wound up.1
COLL 11.6.13RRP
Where the authorised fund manager of a feeder UCITS gives notice to the FCA under section 251 or section 261Q1 of the Act or regulation 21 of the OEIC Regulations that it intends to wind up the scheme, it must inform:(1) the unitholders of the feeder UCITS; and(2) where notice is given under COLL 11.6.5R (4) (Application for approval by a feeder UCITS where a master UCITS merges or divides), the authorised fund manager of the master UCITS;of its intention without undue delay.[Note:
COLL 9.3.1DRP
(1) If the operator of a scheme makes an application under section 272 of the Act (Individually recognised overseas schemes), the application must include the information in paragraph (4). 11(2) The documents must be in English or accompanied by a translation in English. (3) The documents must be certified by the operator to be true copies of the originals. (4) The operator of the scheme must provide the following information and documents with the application: 1(a) the name of
COLL 9.3.2RRP
An operator of a scheme recognised under section 272 of the Act must ensure the prospectus:(1) contains a statement that "Complaints about the operation of the scheme may be made to the FCA."; and(2) states whether or not investors in the scheme would be covered by the compensation scheme, and if so, it must state how they are covered and who they would need to contact for further information.
COLL 9.3.3RRP
(1) An operator of a scheme which is a recognised scheme by virtue of section 272 of the Act must comply with the requirements set out in COLL 4.2 (Pre-sale notifications). 11(2) Where a scheme recognised under section 2721of the Act is managed and authorised in Guernsey, Jersey, or the Isle of Man, the prospectus need not comply with the requirements of COLL 4.2.5 R (Table: contents of prospectus), providing it contains corresponding matter required under the law in its home
REC 4.7.1GRP
Under section 297 of the Act (Revoking recognition) 2and (for RAPs) under regulation 4 of the RAP regulations, the FCA3 has the power to revoke a recognition order relating to a recognised body. 3
REC 4.7.2AGRP
2Where the FCA3 makes a revocation order under section 297 of the Act in relation to a UK RIE which is also an RAP, the FCA3 will also revoke the recognition order relating to its status as an RAP.33
REC 4.7.3GRP
The FCA3 will usually consider revoking a recognition order if:3(1) the recognised body is failing or has failed to satisfy 2one or more of the recognised body requirements1and that failure has or will have serious consequences; or2(2) it would not be possible for the recognised body to comply with a direction under section 296 of the Act (FCA's3 power to give directions) or (for RAPs) regulation 3 of the RAP regulations;2 or 3(3) for some other reason, it would not be appropriate
REC 4.7.4GRP
The FCA3 would be likely to consider the conditions in REC 4.7.3 G (2) or REC 4.7.3 G (3) to be triggered1in the following circumstances:31(1) the recognised body appears not to have the resources or management to be able to organise its affairs so as to satisfy one or more of the recognised body requirements; or212(2) the recognised body does not appear to be willing to satisfy one or more of the recognised body requirements; or212(3) the recognised body is failing or has failed
REC 4.7.5GRP
In addition to the relevant 1factors set out in REC 4.7.4 G, the FCA3 will usually consider that it would not be able to secure an ROIE's3 compliance with the recognition requirements or other obligations in or under the Act by means of a direction under section 296 of the Act, if it appears to the FCA3 that the ROIE3 is prevented by any change in the legal framework or supervisory arrangements to which it is subject in its home territory from complying with the recognition requirements
SUP 13A.1.1GRP
(1) 1This chapter applies to an EEA firm that wishes to exercise an entitlement to establish a branch in, or provide cross border services into, the United Kingdom under a Single Market Directive or the auction regulation7. (The Act refers to such an entitlement as an EEA right and its exercise is referred to in the Handbook as "passporting".) (See SUP App 3 (Guidance on passporting issues) for further guidance on passporting.)(2) This chapter also applies to:(a) a Treaty firm
SUP 13A.1.2GRP
This chapter does not apply to:(1) an EEA firm that wishes to carry on in the United Kingdom activities which are outside the scope of its EEA right and the scope of a permission granted under Schedule 4 to the Act; in this case the EEA firm requires a "top-up permission" under Part 4A16 of the Act (see the appropriate UK regulator's website http://www.fca.org.uk/firms/about-authorisation/getting-authorised for the FCA and www.bankofengland.co.uk/pra/Pages/authorisations/newfirm/default.aspx
SUP 13A.1.3GRP
(1) Under the Gibraltar Order2 made under section 409 of the Act, a Gibraltar firm is treated as an EEA firm under Schedule 3 to the Act if it is:22(a) authorised in Gibraltar under the Solvency II Directive;12 or12(aA) [deleted]1212(b) authorised in Gibraltar under the CRD8; or282(c) authorised in Gibraltar under the Insurance Mediation Directive; or2(d) authorised in Gibraltar under the MiFID4;9 or114(e) authorised in Gibraltar under the UCITS Directive9; or11(f) authorised
SUP 13A.1.4GRP
(1) This chapter explains how an EEA firm and a Treaty firm can qualify for authorisation under Schedules 3 and 4 to the Act and how a UCITS qualifier is authorised under Schedule 5 to the Act. (2) This chapter also provides guidance on Schedule 3 to the Act for an incoming EEA firm that wishes to establish a branch in the United Kingdom instead of, or in addition to, providing cross border services into the United Kingdom or vice versa.
SUP 13A.1.5GRP
(1) EEA firms should note that this chapter only addresses the procedures which the appropriate UK regulator16 will follow under the Act.So, an EEA firm should consider this guidance in conjunction with the requirements with which it will have to comply in its Home State. 166(2) The guidance in this chapter represents the appropriate UK regulator's16 interpretation of the Single Market Directives, the auction regulation,7 the Act and the secondary legislation made under the Act.
SUP 2.3.1GRP
The appropriate regulator uses various methods of information gathering on its own initiative which require the cooperation of firms:55(1) Visits may be made by representatives or appointees of the appropriate regulator. These visits may be made on a regular basis, on a sample basis, for special purposes such as theme visits (looking at a particular issue across a range of firms), or when the appropriate regulator has a particular reason for visiting a firm. Appointees of the
SUP 2.3.3GRP
In complying with Principle 11, the appropriate regulator considers that a firm should, in relation to the discharge by the appropriate regulator of its functions under the Act:(1) make itself readily available for meetings with representatives or appointees of the appropriate regulator as reasonably requested;(2) give representatives or appointees of the appropriate regulator reasonable access to any records, files, tapes or computer systems, which are within the firm's possession
SUP 2.3.5RRP
(1) A firm must permit representatives of the appropriate regulator, or persons appointed for the purpose by the appropriate regulator, to have access, with or without notice, during reasonable business hours to any of its business premises in relation to the discharge of the appropriate regulator's functions under the Act or its obligations under the short selling regulation3.(2) A firm must take reasonable steps to ensure that its agents, suppliers under material outsourcing
SUP 2.3.7RRP
A firm must take reasonable steps to ensure that each of its suppliers under material outsourcing arrangements deals in an open and cooperative way with the appropriate regulator in the discharge of its functions under the Act in relation to the firm.
SUP 2.3.12AGRP
7In complying with Principle 11, the FCA considers that a firm should cooperate with it in providing information for other regulators. Sections 169 (Investigations etc. in support of overseas regulator) of the Act gives the FCA certain statutory powers to obtain information and appoint investigators for overseas regulators if required (see DEPP 7 and EG 3).
SUP 14.6.1GRP
Section 34 of the Act states that an incoming EEA firm no longer qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 3 to the Act if it ceases to be an incoming EEA firm as a result of:(1) having its EEA authorisation withdrawn by its Home State regulator; or(2) ceasing to have an EEA right in circumstances in which EEA authorisation is not required; this is relevant to a financial institution that is a subsidiary of a credit institution (of the kind mentioned in Article 345of the CRD5)
SUP 14.6.2GRP
In addition, under section 34(2) an incoming EEA firm may ask the appropriate UK regulator7 to give a direction cancelling its authorisation under Schedule 3 to the Act.7
SUP 14.6.9GRP
Section 35 of the Act states that an incoming Treaty firm no longer qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act if its Home State authorisation is withdrawn.
SUP 14.6.10GRP
In addition, under section 35(2) an incoming Treaty firm may ask the appropriate UK regulator7 to give a direction cancelling its authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act.7
SUP 14.6.11GRP
Section 36 of the Act states that a UCITS qualifier may ask the FCA7 to give a direction cancelling its authorisation under paragraph 1(1) of Schedule 5 to the Act. UCITS qualifiers should also refer to COLLG 3.1.11 G (Revocation of recognition of overseas schemes (section 279)3).1733
SUP 3.6.3GRP
Section 341 of the Act (Access to books etc.) provides that an auditor of a firm appointed under SUP 3.3.2 R: (1) has a right of access at all times to the firm's books, accounts and vouchers; and(2) is entitled to require from the firm's officers such information and explanations as he reasonably considers necessary for the performance of his duties as auditor.
SUP 3.6.5GRP
Section 413 (Protected items), under which no person may be required under the Act to produce, disclose or permit the inspection of protected items, is relevant to SUP 3.6.1 R and SUP 3.6.3 G.
SUP 3.6.6GRP
In complying with SUP 3.6.1 R, a firm should take reasonable steps to ensure that each of its appointed representatives or, where applicable, tied agents1 gives the firm's auditor the same rights of access to the books, accounts and vouchers of the appointed representative or tied agent1and entitlement to information and explanations from the appointed representative's or tied agent's1 officers as are given in respect of the firm by section 341 of the Act (see also SUP 12.5.5
SUP 3.6.7GRP
In complying with SUP 3.6.1 R, a firm should take reasonable steps to ensure that each of its suppliers under a material outsourcing arrangement gives the firm's auditor the same rights of access to the books, accounts and vouchers of the firm held by the supplier, and entitlement to information and explanations from the supplier's officers as are given in respect of the firm by section 341 of the Act.
SUP 3.6.9GRP
Firms and their officers, managers and controllers are reminded that, under section 346 of the Act (Provision of false or misleading information to auditor or actuary), knowingly or recklessly giving false information to an auditor appointed under SUP 3.3.2 R constitutes an offence in certain circumstances, which could render them liable to prosecution. This applies even when an auditor is also appointed under an obligation in another enactment.
SUP 8.2.1GRP
Under section 138A12of the Act (Modification or waiver of rules), the appropriate regulator12 may, on the application or with the consent of a firm, direct that its 9rules:121299(1) are not to apply to the firm; or(2) are to apply to the firm with such modifications as may be specified.
SUP 8.2.1AGRP
12SUP 8.2.1 G does not apply to:(1) rules made by either regulator under section 137O of the Act;(2) rules made by the FCA under sections 247 or 248 of the Act.
SUP 8.2.3GRP
Sections 250 and 261L11 of the Act and regulation 7 of the OEIC Regulations allow the FCA12 to waive the application of certain rules in COLL to:111210(1) a person, as respects a particular AUT, ACS11 or ICVC, on the application or with the consent of that person; and(2) an AUT, ACS11 or ICVC on the application or with the consent of the manager and trustee (in the case of an AUT), the authorised contractual scheme manager and depositary (in the case of an ACS)11 or the ICVC and
SUP 8.2.5GRP
Sections 250 and 261L11 of the Act and regulation 7 of the OEIC Regulations work by giving effect to section 138A12of the Act in respect of waivers given under section 250(2) and (3), section 261L(2) and (3)11 and regulation 7(1) and (2) of the OEIC Regulations.1112
EG 1.1.1RP
3This guide describes the FCA's approach to exercising the main enforcement powers given to it by the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (the Act) and by other legislation. It is broken down into two parts. The first part provides an overview of enforcement policy and process, with chapters about the FCA's approach to enforcement (chapter 2), the use of its main information gathering and investigation powers under the Act and the CRA (chapter 3), the conduct of investigations
EG 1.1.2RP
3In the areas set out below, the Act expressly requires the FCA to prepare and publish statements of policy or procedure on the exercise of its enforcement and investigation powers and in relation to the giving of statutory notices. (1) section 63C requires the FCA to publish a statement of its policy on the imposition, and amount, of financial penalties on persons that perform a controlled function without approval; (1A) sections 69 and 210 require the FCA to publish statements
EG 1.1.3RP
3This guide includes material on the investigation, disciplinary and criminal prosecution powers that are available to the FCA when it is performing functions as the competent authority under Part VI of the Act (Official listing). The Act provides a separate statutory framework within which the FCA must operate when it acts in that capacity. When determining whether to exercise its powers in its capacity as competent authority under Part VI, the FCA will have regard to the matters
EG 1.1.5RP
3Since most of the FCA’s enforcement powers are derived from it, this guide contains a large number of references to the Act. Users of the guide should therefore refer to the Act as well as to the guide where necessary. In the event of a discrepancy between the Act, or other relevant legislation, and the description of an enforcement power in the guide, the provisions of the Act or the other relevant legislation prevail. Defined terms used in the text are shown in italic type.
EG 1.1.8RP
3The material in this guide does not form part of the FCAHandbook and is not guidance on rules, but it is 'general guidance' as defined in section 139B of the Act. If you have any doubt about a legal or other provision or your responsibilities under the Act or other relevant requirements, you should seek appropriate legal advice from your legal adviser.
EG 19.27.2RP
2The AIFMD UK regulation includes information gathering and sanctioning powers that enable the FCA to investigate and take action for breaches of the regulations and directly applicable EU regulations. Specific standalone powers are in the AIFMD UK regulation for unauthorised AIFMs, by applying relevant sections of the Act. Amendments to the Act, including those made under the Financial Services and Markets Act (Qualifying EU
EG 19.27.3RP
2The FCA has decided that its approach to enforcing the AIFMD UK regulation requirements will mirror its general approach to enforcing the Act in EG 2. Therefore, the FCA will apply the same procedures and policies under the Act for appointing investigators and requiring information for breaches of the AIFMD UK regulation.
EG 19.27.7RP
2The AIFMD UK regulation does not require the FCA to publish procedures to commence criminal prosecutions. However, the FCA will normally follow its equivalent decision- making procedures for similar decisions under the Act.
EG 19.27.8RP
2The AIFMD UK regulation applies the procedural provisions of Part and Part 26 of the Act for matters that can be referred to the Tribunal and to warning and decision notices under the regulations as it applies to referrals and notices under the Act. The AIFMD UK regulation also applies sections 205 and 206 of the Act to unauthorised AIFMs and, accordingly, the FCA will give third party rights (section 393 of the Act) and access to material
EG 19.27.10RP
2As with cases under the Act, the FCA may settle or mediate appropriate cases involving civil breaches of the AIFMD UK regulation to assist it to exercise its functions. DEPP 5, DEPP 6.7 and EG 5 set out information on the FCA's settlement process and the settlement discount scheme.
EG 19.27.12RP
2Regulation 71(2) of the AIFMD UK regulation applies section 169 of the Act in respect of unauthorised AIFMs, which requires the FCA to have a statement of policy on the conduct of certain interviews in response to requests from overseas regulators. The FCA will follow the procedures described in DEPP 7.
PERG 9.10.1GRP
A number of controls apply under the Act to the promotion of shares or securities that are issued by any body corporate. These controls differ according to whether the person making the promotion is an unauthorised person (see PERG 9.10.2 G) or an authorised person (see PERG 9.10.3 G to PERG 9.10.6 G). In addition, where a body corporate is not an open-ended investment company:(1) the requirements of Prospectus Rules relating to the publication of an approved prospectus may1 apply
PERG 9.10.2GRP
The controls under the Act that apply to promotions of shares or securities by unauthorised persons are in section 21 of the Act (Restrictions on financial promotion). These controls apply where an unauthorised person makes a financial promotion in, or from, the United Kingdom that relates to the shares in or securities of any body corporate. The same controls apply regardless of whether the shares or securities being promoted are issued by a body corporate that is an open-ended
PERG 9.10.3GRP
Promotions made by authorised persons in the United Kingdom are generally subject to the controls inCOBS 4 (Communicating with clients, including financial promotions).3 However, in the case of shares in, or securities of, a body corporate which is an open-ended investment company, additional controls are imposed by Chapter II of Part XVII of the Act (Restrictions on promotion of collective investment schemes) (see PERG 8.20). Section 238 of the Act (Restrictions on promotion)
PERG 9.10.5GRP
There are a number of other exemptions in the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Promotion of Collective Investment Schemes) (Exemptions) Order 2001 (SI 2001/1060). In general terms, these exemptions are equivalent to the exemptions from section 21 of the Act that apply to units. There is guidance on those exemptions in PERG 8.20.3 G (Additional restriction on the promotion of collective investment schemes).
PERG 9.10.10GRP
7(1) A person carrying on the regulated activity of establishing, operating or winding up a collective investment scheme that is constituted as an open-ended investment company will need permission for those activities. In line with section 237(2) of the Act (Other definitions), the operator of a collective investment scheme that is an open-ended investment company is the company itself and therefore the starting point for an open-ended investment company that is incorporated
SUP 12.3.1GRP
In determining whether a firm has complied with any provision in or under the Act such as any Principle or other rule, anything that an appointed representative has done or omitted to do as respects the business for which the firm has accepted responsibility will be treated as having been done or omitted to be done by the firm (section 39(4) of the Act ).
SUP 12.3.2GRP
The firm is responsible, to the same extent as if it had expressly permitted it, for anything the appointed representative does or omits to do, in carrying on the business for which the firm has accepted responsibility (section 39(3) of the Act).
SUP 12.3.3GRP
In determining whether the firm has committed any offence,3 however, the knowledge or intentions of an appointed representative are not attributable to the firm, unless in all the circumstances it is reasonable for them to be attributed to it (section 39(6) of the Act).3
SUP 12.3.6GRP
1The effect of section 39A(6)(b) of the Act is to prohibit a UK MiFID investment firm from appointing an FCA registered tied agent unless it has accepted responsibility in writing for the agent's activities in acting as a tied agent.
PERG 2.5.1GRP
In addition to the requirements as to the business test and the link to the United Kingdom, two other essential elements must be present before a person needs authorisation under the Act. The first is that the investments must come within the scope of the system of regulation under the Act (see PERG 2.6). The second is that the activities, carried on in relation to those specified investments, are regulated under the Act (see PERG 2.7). Both investments and activities are defined
PERG 2.5.2GRP
The Regulated Activities Order contains exclusions. Exclusions may exist in relation to both the element of investment and the element of activity. Each should therefore be checked carefully. The exclusions that relate to specified investments are considered in PERG 2.6, together with the outline of the specified investments. The exclusions that relate to activities are considered separately from the outline of activities (see PERG 2.8 and PERG 2.9).
PERG 2.5.4GRP
It remains the Government's responsibility to ensure the proper implementation of MiFID2. Certain2persons subject to the requirements of MiFID2 must be brought within the scope of regulation under the Act. A core element of MiFID is the concept of investment firm.2 An investment firm is any person whose regular occupation or2 business is2 the provision of one or more2investment services to third parties or the performance of one or more investment activities on a professional
PERG 2.5.5GRP
For persons who are MiFID2investment firms, the activities that must be caught by the Regulated Activities Order are those that are caught by MiFID2. To achieve this result, some of the exclusions in the Order (that will apply to persons who are not caught by MiFID2) have been made unavailable to MiFID2investment firms when they provide or perform investment services and activities. A "MiFID investment firm", for these purposes, includes credit institutions to which MiFID applies
PERG 2.5.6GRP
The Insurance Mediation Directive has in part been implemented through various amendments to the Regulated Activities Order. These include article 4(4A) (Specified activities: general) which precludes a person who, for remuneration, takes up or pursues insurance mediation or reinsurance mediation in relation to a risk or commitment situated in an EEA State from making use of certain exclusions. In other cases, some of the exclusions provided in relation to particular regulated
SUP 18.1.1CGRP
3References to the ‘Memorandum of Understanding’ in this chapter is to the memorandum of understanding in force between the regulators under section 3E of the Act.
SUP 18.1.3GRP
Insurance business transfers are subject to Part VII of the Act and must be approved by the court under section 111. The following statutory pieces of legislation also apply:33(1) 3The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Control of Business Transfers) (Requirements on Applicants) Regulations 2001 (SI 2001/3625), as amended by the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Control of Business Transfers)(Requirements on Applicants) (Amendment) Regulations 2008 (SI 2008/1467)
SUP 18.1.4GRP
An insurance business transfer scheme is defined in section 105 of the Act and the definition has been extended to transfers from underwritingmembers and former members3 of Lloyd's.333(1) [deleted]3(a) [deleted]33(b) [deleted]33(c) [deleted]33(2) [deleted]33The business transferred may include liabilities and potential liabilities on expired policies, liabilities on current policies and liabilities on contracts to be written in the period until the transfer takes effect. The parties
SUP 18.1.6GRP
Under section 112 of the Act, the court has wide discretion to transfer property and liabilities to the transferee and to make orders in relation to incidental, consequential and supplementary matters.3
SUP 18.1.8GRP
3Legislation in respect of other transactions, for example, cross-border mergers, does not negate the requirements under Part VII of the Act. It is for the firms participating in such transactions to determine whether or not the proposed transfer gives rise to an insurance business transfer. The regulators expect firms proposing such transactions to discuss the proposal with them as soon as practicable.
PERG 9.8.1GRP
The test in section 236(3)(a) of the Act is whether the reasonable investor would expect that, were he to invest, he would be in a position to realise his investment within a period appearing to him to be reasonable. In the FCA's view, this is an objective test with the appropriate objective judgment to be applied being that of the hypothetical reasonable investor with qualities such as those mentioned in PERG 9.7.2 G (The investment condition: the 'reasonable investor').
PERG 9.8.2GRP
In the FCA's view, the 'realisation' of an investment means converting an asset into cash or money. The FCA does not consider that 'in specie' redemptions (in the sense of exchanging shares or securities of BC with other shares or securities) will generally count as realisation. Section 236(3)(a) refers to the realisation of an investment, the investment being represented by the 'value' of shares or securities held in BC. In the FCA's view, there is no realisation of value where
PERG 9.8.5GRP
The use of an expectation test ensures that the definition of an open-ended investment company is not limited to a situation where a holder of shares in, or securities of, a body corporate has an entitlement or an option to realise his investment. It is enough if, on the facts of any particular case, the reasonable investor would expect that he would be able to realise the investment. The following are examples of circumstances in which the FCA considers that a reasonable investor
PERG 9.8.7GRP
In the FCA's view, the fact that a person may invest in the period shortly before a redemption date would not cause a body corporate, that would not otherwise be regarded as such, to be open-ended. This is because the investment condition must be applied in relation to BC as a whole (see PERG 9.6.3 G (The investment condition (section 236(3) of the Act): general).
PERG 9.8.8GRP
Similarly, if BC issues shares or securities on different terms as to the period within which they are to be redeemed or repurchased (see PERG 9.6.4 G (The investment condition (section 236(3) of the Act): general), BC must be considered as a whole. Whether or not the expectation test is satisfied in relation to a particular body corporate is bound to involve taking account of the terms on which its shares or securities, or classes of shares or securities, are issued. But this
SUP 13A.4.1GRP
(1) Before an EEA firm5(other than an EEA pure reinsurer or an EEA firm that has received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation)53exercises an EEA right to establish a branch in the United Kingdom other than under the Insurance Mediation Directive, the Act requires it to satisfy the establishment conditions, as set out in paragraph 13(1) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act. (2) For the purposes of paragraph 13(1)(b)(iii) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act,
SUP 13A.4.2GRP
Where an EEA firm exercises its EEA right to establish a branch in the United Kingdom under the Insurance Mediation Directive, the Act requires it to satisfy the establishment conditions, as set out in paragraph 13(1A) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act.
SUP 13A.4.3GRP
For the purposes of paragraph 13(2)(b) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, the applicable provisions may include the appropriate UK regulator's11rules. The EEA firm is required to comply with relevant rules when carrying on a passported activity through a branch in the United Kingdom as well as with relevant UK legislation.11
SUP 13A.4.4GRP
(1) When the appropriate regulator11 receives a consent notice from the EEA firm'sHome State regulator, it will, under paragraphs 13(2)(b), (c) and 13(3) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, notify the applicable provisions (if any) to:11(a) the EEA firm; and(b) in the case of an EEA firm passporting under the Solvency II Directive,7 the Home State regulator;7within two months of the notice2 date.2(1A) The notice date is:2(a) for a MiFID investment firm, the date on which the
SUP 13A.4.4-AGRP
8When the FCA receives a consent notice from the EEA firm'sHome State regulator in respect of a EEA firm within paragraph 5(i) of Part I of Schedule 3 to the Act, it will, under paragraph 13(3A);(1) notify the firm of the applicable provisions (if any); and (2) use the information received from the EEA firm'sHome State regulator to enter the necessary information into the Financial Services Register.