Related provisions for LR 15.4.26

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FEES 3.2.7RRP

Table of application, notification, vetting and other fees payable to the FCA32

31

31Part 1: Application, notification and vetting fees

31(1) Fee payer

(2) Fee payable (£)37

Due date

(a) Any applicant for Part 4A permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission) whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (ga) of this table26

(1) Unless (2) or (3) 80applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 which apply to that application.

When both (A) and (B) apply, 50% of the tariff payable under (1):34

(2) 50% of the tariff payable under (1) is payable when either (a) or (b) apply:

(a) the application is one referred to in paragraph p; or

(b) the application is a limited permission case under .

(A) the application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 6; and34

(B) the application is:34

(i) a straightforward case under paragraph 2(d) or 3(g) of FEES 3 Annex 1;

(ii) a moderately complex case under paragraph 2(e) or 3(h) of FEES 3 Annex 1; or

(iii) a limited permission case under paragraph 3(i) of FEES 3 Annex 1.

(3) If the applicant applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order at the same time as applying for a Part 4A permission, the fee payable is the higher of: 80

(i) the fee otherwise payable in (1) or (2); and 80

(ii) the fee payable in FEES 3 Annex 10AR. 80

134343434

On or before the application is made

(aa) A person who makes an application under section 24A of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 31 (Applications for a standard licence where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant application”)30

As (a) above less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant application.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

(b) Any Treaty firm that wishes to exercise a Treaty right to qualify for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act (Treaty rights) in respect of regulated activities for which it does not have an EEA right, except for a firm providing cross border services only4

(1) Where no certificate has been issued under paragraph 3(4) of Schedule 4 to the Act the fee payable is, in respect of a particular exercise, set out in FEES 3 Annex 1, part 4

(2) Where a certificate in (i) has been issued no fee is payable

On or before the notice of exercise is given

(c) Any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order

2,000

On or before the application is made

(d) Applicants for an authorisation order for, or recognition under section 272 of the Act27 of, a collective investment scheme

FEES 3 Annex 2R, part 227

27

On or before the application is made

(da) Applicants for the authorisation of an AIF as a UK ELTIF36

FEES 3 Annex 2R, part 2A36

On or before the date the application is made36

(e) The management company27 of a scheme making a notification under section 264 of the Act

2727

FEES 3 Annex 2R, part 327

27

On or before the date the application is made28

28(ea)

(i) An AIFM (other than a UK AIFM or an EEA AIFM with a branch in the UK) notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 57 of the AIFMD UK regulation

(ii) An AIFM notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 58 or 59 of the AIFMD UK regulation

FEES 3 Annex 2 R, part 4

On or before the date the notification is made

28(eb) An applicant for registration on the register of small registered UK AIFM which the FCA is required to maintain under regulation 10 of the AIFMD UK regulation

£750

On or before the date the application is made

(f) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body.

10,000

30 days after the order is granted

(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body:17

(i) under section 287 of the Act; or17

(ii) under regulation 2(1) of the RAP regulations17

78

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1

On or before the date the application is made26

26(ga) Any applicant for:

(i) a Part 4A permission to carry out the regulated activity of administering a specified benchmark; or35administering a specified benchmark for one or more specified benchmarks or;35

(ii) varying its Part 4A permission to carry out the regulated activity of administering a specified benchmark for one or more specified benchmarks35

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(h) Any applicant for recognition as an ROIE78 under section 287 or section 292 of the Act

7878

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(i) [deleted]35

35		 35 35

(j) Applicant for approval as sponsor (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(k) [deleted]35

35		 35 35

(l) Under the listing rules, an issuer involved in specific events or transactions during the year where documentation is subject to a transaction vetting

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 1, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (v) or super transaction under category 7(q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA

(m) Under the prospectus rules, an issuer or person requesting approval or vetting of the documents arising in relation to specific events or transactions that it might be involved in during the year

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 2, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (v) or super transaction under category 7(q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA

(n) Applicants to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges

50,000

On or before the date the application is made

2(o) In relation to a BIPRU firm, either:29

(i) a firm applying to the FCA29 for permission to use one of the advanced prudential calculation approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6 R (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches or (in the case of any application being made for such permission to the FCA29 as EEA consolidated supervisor under the (transposing parts of the BCD and CAD, as applicable under article 95(2) of the EUCRR29)) any firm making such an application ;5 or

(ii) in the case of an application to 5a Home State regulator other than the FCA295for the use of the Internal Ratings Based approach and the Home State regulator requesting the FCA's29 assistance in accordance with the Capital Requirements Regulations 2006 (transposing parts of the BCD and CAD, as applicable under article 95(2) of the EUCRR29), any firm to which the FCA29 would have to apply any decision to permit the use of that approach.5

1122957829578295782978297829

(1) Unless5 (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6.5

(2) (a) Unless5 (b) applies a1firm submitting a second application for the permission or5guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6, but only in respect of that second application

(b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission5 based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.1

(c) No fee is payable where the Home State regulator has requested the assistance described in paragraph (o)(ii) of column 1 except in the cases specified in 5FEES 3 Annex 6.2

52512555785785

Where the firm has made an application directly to the FCA29, on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the FCA29 notifies the firm that its EEA parent's Home State regulator has requested assistance.229

27829782978

29(oa) Either:

(i) a firm applying to the 37FCA

for permission to use one of the internal approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6A (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches or (in the case of any application being made for such permission to the 37FCA

as consolidating supervisor under the EU CRR) any firm making such an application; or

(ii) in the case of an application to the consolidating supervisor other than the 37FCA

for the use of the IRB approach and the consolidating supervisor requesting the 37FCA's

assistance in accordance with the EU CRR, any firm to which the 37FCA would have to apply any decision to permit the use of that approach.

3737373737

(1) Unless (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6A.

(2) (a) Unless (b) applies a firm submitting a second application for the permission or guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6A, but only in respect of that second application.

(b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.

(c) No fee is payable where the consolidating supervisor has requested the assistance described in paragraph (oa)(ii) of column 1.

37

Where the firm has made an application directly to the 37FCA , on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the 37FCA notifies the firm that its EEA parent's consolidating supervisor has requested assistance.

3737

(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part 4A permission whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (ga) of this table26

(1) Unless (2), (2A), (3), (3A), (3B) or 3(C) 80 applies, if the proposed new1 business of the firm would1 fall within one or more activity groups specified in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 1AR not applicable before the application1, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37 which apply to that application.

(2) Subject to (2A) below, if the firm's application includes an application for a Part 4A permission to carry on a new credit-related regulated activity, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37

that would be payable under (1) above or, if higher, 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37

that would be payable in relation to the new credit-related regulated activity30.37

(2A) If an applicant which already has a Part 4A permission to carry on a credit-related regulated activity exclusively applies for a Part 4A permission to carry on a new credit-related regulated activity, that is specified in Part 3 of FEES 3 Annex 1R37

in the straightforward category (or if it exclusively applies for a number of such permissions), the fee is £25030.37

(3) If the firm is in the A.1 fee-block at the date of the application and the variation involves adding any of the regulated activities of meeting of repayment claims or managing dormant account funds (including the investment of such funds), the fee is 50% of the fee in FEES 3 Annex 1 R that applies to that application11

(3A) If the applicant had a limited permission prior to the application to vary its Part 4A permission, 100% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37

which apply to that application30.37

(3B) If the applicant has a limited permission and its application exclusively relates to another limited permission, the fee is 030

(3C) If the applicant applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order at the same time as it applies for a variation of its Part 4A permission, the fee is the highest of the fees set out in FEES 3 Annex 10AR and the amount otherwise payable in (1), (2), (2A), (3), (3A) or (3B), or (4).80

(4) 11 In all other cases, other than applications by credit unions, the fee payable is 250 for firms which are not, or are not seeking to become, a PRA-authorised person, and 125 for firms which are, or are seeking to become, a PRA-authorised person,78 unless the variation involves only the reduction (and no other increases) in the scope of a Part 4A permission in which case no fee is payable.1

30308080178783778378080371373030233737371137

On or before the date the application is made

30(pa) A person who makes an application under section 30(1) of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 33 (Variations at request of licensee where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant variation application”)

As (a) or 31(p) above, less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant variation application.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

2(q) A super7transaction, being one where:

(i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 1.5 billion and it is a new applicant for a premium listing1379 under the listing rules, or involved in a reverse or hostile takeover or a significant restructuring; or

(ii) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 5 billion and is involved in a class 1 transaction,7 a transaction requiring vetting of an equity prospectus or equivalent document or a transaction requiring vetting of a prospectus or listing particulars in relation to a Depositary Receipt.22

713797227

50,000

On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA.3

33

2(r) Providers of reporting or trade matching systems applying for recognition under MiFID as an Approved Reporting Mechanism.

100,0006

6

Having received its application, within 30 days after the FCA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.6

56

5(s) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme, a transferor.

Note - for the purpose of this paragraph an insurance business transfer scheme consists of a single transferor and a single transferee. Where however such a scheme is part of a single larger scheme, that larger scheme is treated as a single insurance business transfer scheme. If an insurance business transfer scheme includes more than one transferor in accordance with this paragraph, the transferors are liable to pay the fee under column (2) jointly.

Either (1) or (2) as set out below:

(1) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme involving long term insurance business, 9,25037; or

(2) in the case of an insurance business transfer scheme not involving long term insurance business, 5,000.

7777377777377737

On or before any application is made for the appointment of a person as an independent expert.

37

6(t) A firm, a third party acting on a firm's behalf, an operator of a regulated market or an operator of an MTF applying to the FCA to report transaction reports directly to the FCA.

20

100,000

Having received its application, within 30 days after the FCA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.

(u) [deleted]34

34		 34 34

(v) A significant transaction, being one where:

(i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 500 million and is producing an equity prospectus or equivalent document, a prospectus or listing particulars22 in relation to a Depository Receipt or a document in relation to a class 1 transaction; or

(ii) the issuer is producing a document for vetting in relation to a reverse takeover, a hostile takeover or a significant restructuring.

A significant transaction does not include a super transaction.

22

20,000

On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA.

[deleted]35

35		 35 35

(x)

(i) An issuer or person who:

(1) is a fee payer under one or more of the categories set out in (ii); and

(2) requests the FCA's approval or vetting of a document that includes a mineral expert's report.

(ii) The categories are (1), (m) (q), and (v) of this table.

(iii) A fee under this category is payable in addition to any fee payable under the categories set out in (ii).

5,000

On or before the date the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA.8

8(y) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised payment institution under regulation 5 of the Payment Services Regulations

The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8 which apply to that application.

Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in

FEES 3 Annex 8R

On or before the date the application is made.

(z) An application by a small payment institution for authorisation as an authorised payment institution because regulation 15 of the Payment Services Regulations applies

The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application.

On or before the date the application is made.

(za) An applicant for registration as a small payment institution under regulation 12 of the Payment Services Regulations

FEES 3 Annex 8R, paragraph (1). Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 8R.

On or before the date the application is made.

(zb) An authorised payment institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Payment Services Regulations.

(1) If the payment services carried on by the authorised payment institution prior to the variation only fall within paragraph (f) or (g) or (h) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and any of the payment services in paragraphs (a) to (e) of that Schedule will apply after variation, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application.

(2) Where the

authorised payment institution:(i) already has authorisation to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other services in (a) to (g); or

(ii) has authorisation to provide payment services in either paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to extend its authorisation to include the other paragraph ((f) or (g));

the fee payable is 250 irrespective of the number of agents it has.

(3) In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable.

On or before the date the application is made.

(zc) A small payment institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Payment Services Regulations

(1) If the payment services carried on by the small payment institution prior to the variation only fall within paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and any of the payment services in paragraphs (a) to (e) of that Schedule will apply after variation, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8Rwhich apply to that application.

(2) Where the small payment institution:

(i) is already registered to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other of the services in (a) to (g); or

(ii) is registered to provide payment services in either paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to extend its registration to include the other paragraph ((f) or (g));the fee payable is 250 irrespective of the number of agents it has.

(2)

(3) In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable.

On or before the date the application is made.

A financial institution notifying the FSAFCA in accordance with regulation 121(2)(a) of the Payment Services Regulations.

50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3Annex 8R, paragraphs (2) to (5) which apply to that application.

On or before the date the application is made.

(ze) Any person to which the Special Project Fee for restructuring applies under FEES 3 Annex 9.12

12

Special Project Fee for restructuring in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 9 .

30 days of the date of the invoice.9

(zf) [deleted]78

78		 78 91678

16(zg) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution under regulation 5 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zh) An applicant for registration as a small electronic money institution under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zi) An application by a small electronic money institution for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution14because regulation 16 of the Electronic Money Regulations applies.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zj) An authorised electronic money institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zk) A small electronic money institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

15(zl) An applicant for recognition as an accredited body.

2,500

On or before the date the application is made.18

18(zm) An issuer applying for registration of a regulated covered bond.

(1) Unless (2) applies, 45,000.

(2) In the case of a proposed covered bond or programme where the assets in the asset pool will consist primarily of UK residential mortgages, 25,000.

On or before the date the application is made.

18(zn) An issuer who proposes to make a material change to the contractual terms of a regulated covered bond under RCB 3.5.4 D.

6,500

On or before the date the notification under RCB 3.5.4 D is made.21

21(zo) In the case of persons in respect of which the FCA has given notice of its intention to take, or appoint a competent person to take, any steps under CONRED 2.5.12R, either:

(i) a Firm (as defined in CONRED 2.1.1R(1); or

(ii) a person falling within CONRED 2.1.2R(1).

An amount equal to:

(1) a sum determined by the number of hours, or part of an hour, taken by the FCA in relation to work conducted in taking steps under recorded on the FCA's systems, multiplied by the rate in FEES 3 Annex 9 (11)R; or

(2) any amount invoiced to the FCA by a competent person in relation to any work carried out by that competent person in connection with its appointment by the FCA under CONRED 2.5.12R.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

78(zp) A person in respect of which the FCA37 has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to provide it with a report pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act and SUP 5.2.

37

Any amount invoiced to the FCA37 by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the FCA37 pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act.

37

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

78(zq) A person in respect of which the FCA37 has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to collect or update information pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act .

37

Any amount invoiced to the FCA37 by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the FCA 37 pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act.

3737

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.33

33(zr) An applicant for approval as a primary information provider.

1,500

On or before the application for approval is made.

30(zs) Applicant for FCA permission for an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) and/or money paid or property transferred under and agreement to be retained under 3128A(3)(b) of the Act

(1) If the application is for permission for an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) of the Act and for permission for money paid or property transferred under an agreement to be retained under section 28A(3)(b) of the Act, the fee is 31£3,500 per type of agreement specified in the application.30

(2) If the application is for permission for an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) of the Act only, the fee is £3,500 per type of agreement specified in the application.31

(3) If the application is for permission for money paid or property transferred under an agreement to be retained under section 28A(3)(b) of the Act only, the fee is £3,500 per type of agreement specified in the application.31

Where there are a number of agreements of the same type, only one fee is payable in respect of those agreements. A number of agreements are of the same type when those agreements are entered into on the same terms and conditions.

On or before the date the application is made.

(zt) An applicant for registration in the Financial Services Register under article 8(1) of the MCD Order. 80

Unless (1), or (2) applies, the fee as set out in FEES 3 Annex 10A. 80

(1) If the applicant is applying for a Part 4A permission at the same time as it applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, the fee payable in row (a), column (2) paragraph (3) of this Table. 80

(2) If the applicant is applying for a variation of a Part 4A permission at the same time as it applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, the fee payable in row (p), column 2 paragraph (3)(c) of this Table. 80

On or before the application is made.80

32Part 2: Other fees

(1) Fee payer

(2) Fee payable

(3) Due date

(a)

(i) An issuer which has not made public its annual financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.1.3 R.

(ii) An issuer which has not made public its half-yearly financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.2.2 R (2).

(i) Where the issuer has not made public its annual financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.1.3 R, £250 in respect of that annual financial report.

(ii) Where the issuer has not made public its half-yearly financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.2.2 R (2), £250 in respect of that half-yearly financial report.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

[Note:Guidance on how a firm liable to pay a fee under both rows (s) and (ze) of this table for the same transaction should expect to be treated is set out in FEES 3 Annex 11 G.]19

LR 15.3.4RRP
An application for the listing of securities of a multi-class fund or umbrella fund must provide details of the various classes or designations of securities intended to be issued by the applicant.
PERG 9.5.5GRP
In the FCA's view, the question of whether funds are invested by BC with the aim of spreading investment risk is not affected by the levels of risk involved in particular investments. What matters for these purposes is that the aim is to spread the risk, whatever it may be. For example, the value of each of BC's investments, if taken separately, might be subject to a high level of risk. However, this would not itself result in BC failing to satisfy the property condition as long
LR 1.6.1ARRP
1An issuer must comply with the rules that are applicable to every security in the category of listing which applies to each security the issuer has listed. The categories of listing are:(1) premium listing (commercial company); (2) premium listing (closed-ended investment fund);(3) premium listing (open-ended investment companies);(4) standard listing (shares);(5) standard listing (debt and debt-like securities);(6) standard listing (certificates representing certain securities);(7)
SUP App 2.1.5GRP
10SUP App 2.7.1 G is made by the FCA for the purpose of its application to dormant account fund operators, rather than insurers.
LR 16.3.6RRP
An applicant which is a multi-class or umbrella fund which seeks to create a new class of security without increasing its share capital for which listing has previously been granted, must provide the FCA with the details of the new class and no further application for listing is required.
LR 15.1.1RRP
2This chapter applies to a closed-ended investment fund applying for, or with, a premium listing3.33
COLL 4.1.2GRP
This chapter helps in achieving the statutory objective of protecting consumers by ensuring consumers have access to up-to-date detailed information about an authorised fund particularly before buying units and thereafter an appropriate level of investor involvement exists by providing a framework for them to:(1) participate in the decisions on key issues concerning the authorised fund; and(2) be sent regular and relevant information about the authorised fund.
EG 15.3.1RP
1When it decides whether to exercise its power to disqualify an auditor or actuary under section 345(1), and what the scope of any disqualification will be, the FCA will take into account all the circumstances of the case. These may include, but are not limited to, the following factors: (1) the nature and seriousness of any breach of rules and the effect of that breach: the rules are set out in SUP 3 (Auditors) and SUP 4 (Actuaries), and in the case of firms which are ICVCs,
EG 15.4.1RP
1When deciding whether or not to disqualify an auditor under section 249(1) or section 261K(1) of the Act (concerning the power to disqualify an auditor for breach of trust scheme rules or contractual scheme rules), and in setting the disqualification, the FCA will take into account all the circumstances of the case. These may include, but are not limited to, the following circumstances: (1) the effect of the auditor's breach of a duty imposed by trust scheme
LR 1.5.1GRP
(1) 1Under the listing rules each issuer must satisfy the requirements in the rules that are specified to apply to it and its relevant securities. In some cases a listing is described as being either a standard listing or a premium listing.(2) A listing that is described as a standard listing sets requirements that are based on the minimum EU directive standards. A listing that is described as a premium listing will include requirements that exceed those required under relevant
FEES 5.9.3GRP
[deleted]3838
DISP 1.1.3RRP
(1) Subject to DISP 1.1.5 R, this15 chapter applies to a firm in respect of complaints from eligible complainants concerning activities carried on from an establishment maintained by it or its appointed representative in the United Kingdom.15(2) For complaints relating to the MiFID business of a firm, the complaints handling rules and the complaints record rule:(a) apply to complaints from retail clients and do not apply to complaints from eligible complainants who are not retail
DISP 1.1.5RRP
This chapter does not apply to:(1) [deleted]739739(2) [deleted]1414(3) an authorised professional firm in respect of expressions of dissatisfaction about its non-mainstream regulated activities; 1516(4) complaints in respect of auction regulation bidding;1615(5) a full-scope UK AIFM, small authorised UK AIFM or an incoming EEA AIFM, for complaints concerning AIFM management functions carried on for a closed-ended corporate AIF; and16(6) a depositary, for complaints concerning
COLL 8.4.10RRP
(1) The ICVC or depositary of an AUT or ACS9 (on the instructions of the authorised fund manager)9 may borrow money for the use of the authorised fund on terms that the borrowing is to be repayable out of the scheme property.99(2) The authorised fund manager must ensure that the authorised fund's borrowing does not, on any day, exceed 100 % of the net value of the scheme property and must take reasonable care to ensure that arrangements are in place that will enable borrowings
COLL 8.4.11RRP
(1) Any investment in land or a building held within the scheme property of a qualified investor scheme must be in an immovable within (2).(2) For an immovable :(a) it must be situated in a country or territory identified in the prospectus;(b) the authorised fund manager must have taken reasonable care to determine that the title to the interest in the immovable is a good marketable title; and(c) the authorised fund manager of an AUT or ACS9 or the ICVC must have received a report
COLL 4.4.2RRP
(1) The authorised fund manager, the depositary or the other directors of an ICVC may convene a general meeting of unitholders at any time.(2) The unitholders may request the convening of a general meeting by a requisition which must:(a) state the objects of the meeting;(b) be dated;(c) be signed by unitholders who, at that date, are registered as the unitholders of units representing not less than one-tenth in value (or such lower proportion stated in the instrument constituting
COLL 4.4.4RRP
(1) Unless a unit in the authorised fund is a participating security, in this section "unitholders" means unitholders as at a cut-off date selected by the authorised fund manager which is a reasonable time before notices of the relevant meeting are sent out.(2) If any unit in the authorised fund is a participating security, a registered unitholder of such a unit is entitled to receive a notice of a meeting or a notice of an adjourned meeting under COLL 4.4.5 R (Notice of general
INSPRU 3.2.5AGRP
(1) 3GENPRU 2 Annex 7 R (3) requires firms to consider first whether an asset is a derivative or quasi-derivative transaction notwithstanding that it is also capable of falling within one or more other categories in GENPRU 2 Annex 7 R (1). If it is a derivative or quasi-derivative transaction it is only admissible if it satisfies the conditions for it to be approved under INSPRU 3.2.5 R. Firms should be able to justify whether or not their assets are derivatives or quasi-derivatives.(2)
INSPRU 3.2.36ARRP
(1) 1For the purposes of the rules on permitted links, a stock lending transaction (including a repo transaction) is approved if:(a) the assets lent are permitted links;(b) the counterparty is an authorised person, an approved counterparty, a person registered as a broker-dealer with the Securities and Exchange Commission of the United States of America or a bank, or a branch of a bank, supervised, and authorised to deal in investments as principal, with respect to OTC derivatives
FEES 4.2.11RRP

Table of periodic fees payable to the FCA65

65

1 Fee payer

2 Fee payable

3 Due date

4 Events occurring during the period leading to modified periodic fee

Any firm (except an AIFM qualifier,25ICVC or a UCITS qualifier)

As specified in FEES 4.3.1 R in relation to FEES 4 Annex 2AR and FEES 4 Annex 11 R65

(1) Unless (2) or (3) apply7, on or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R.12

(2) Unless (3) applies, if 7an event specified in column 4 occurs during the course of a fee year,64 30 days after the occurrence of that event, or if later the dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R.7

(3) Where the permission is for operating a multilateral trading facility, the date specified in FEES 4 Annex 10 (Periodic fees for MTF operators).

7764

Firm receives permission, or becomes authorised or registered under the Payment Services Regulations or the Electronic Money Regulations12;9 or firm9extends permission or its payment service activities916

9

Persons who hold a certificate issued by the FCA64 under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order (Advice given in newspapers etc.)

64

£1,08431

31

(1) Unless (2) applies, on or before 1 August or, if later, within 30 days of the date of the invoice23

(2) If an event in column 4

occurs

during the course of a fee year,64 30 days after the occurrence of that event

2364

Certificate issued to person by FCA64 under Article 54 RAO

64

Any manager of an AUT23;

23

In relation to each unit trust the amount specified in part 1 of 25FEES 4 Annex 4

Authorisation order is made in relation to the relevant scheme24

24Any authorised fund manager of an authorised contractual scheme;

In relation to each authorised contractual scheme the amount specified in part 1 of25FEES 4 Annex 4

Any ACD of an ICVC; and

In relation to each ICVC,25 the amount specified in part 1 of25FEES 4 Annex 4

Persons who, under the constitution or founding arrangements of a recognised scheme, are 33responsible for the management of the property held for or within the scheme;

In relation to each recognised scheme the amount specified in part 1 of25FEES 4 Annex 4

The relevant scheme becomes a recognised scheme25

Not applicable

AIFM of a UK ELTIF33

In relation to each ELTIF the amount specified in part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 433

(1) Unless (2) applies, on or before 1 August or, if later, within 30 days of the date of the invoice.33

(2) If an event in column 4 occurs during the course of a fee year, 30 days after the occurrence of that event.33

The ELTIF is authorised by the FCA under the ELTIF regulation33

Designated professional body

FEES 4 Annex 5

On or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R23

23

Not applicable

UK recognised body

FEES 4 Annex 6, part 1 for a UK RIE ; and

FEES 4 Annex 6 R, part 1A for a UK RIE that is also an RAP13

65

(1) On or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R23

(2) If the event in column 4 occurs during the course of a fee year64, 30 days after the occurrence of that event

2364

Recognition order is made.

The modified1166 periodic fee is specified in FEES 4 Annex 6 R, Part 1and (in the case of an RAP) Part 1A.131166

1166116611661166

ROIE65

65

FEES 4 Annex 6, part 2

(1) On or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R23

(2) If the event in column 4 occurs during the course of a fee year64, 30 days after the occurrence of that event.

2364

Recognition order is made.

The modified1166 periodic fee is specified in FEES 4 Annex 6, Part 2.1166

1166116611661166

Listedissuers (in LR) of shares, depositary receipts and securitised derivatives (in LR), unless the conditions set out below apply.3

The first condition is that the listedissuer, or a related entity, has already paid a periodic fee in respect of the period concerned. The second condition is that the listedissuer is subject to listing rules as a result of a reverse takeover, or that the listedissuer is a newly formed entity, created as a result of a restructuring.3

FEES 4 Annex 7

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

Listedissuer3 (in LR) becomes subject to listing rules

3

Sponsors

£27,100 per fee year (see Note)31

10122323311210231

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

(1)14Approval of sponsor, unless (2) applies.14

(2) In the case of approval of a sponsor following a change of legal status in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 7, the balance of the fee otherwise due from the original sponsor.

Where a payment is made in accordance with (2) the original sponsor's obligation to pay that fee ceases.14

All non-listed issuers (in DTR) of shares, depositary receipts and securitised derivatives.6

6

FEES 4 Annex 8, except for Table 329

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

Non-listed issuer (in DTR) becomes subject to disclosure rules and transparency rules629

29Any primary information provider

FEES 4 Annex 8, Table 3

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

A person is approved as a primary information provider

6All firms reporting transactions in securities derivatives10to the FCA64 in accordance with SUP 17, and market operators who provide facilities for trading in securities derivatives.10

6410

FEES 4 Annex 9 R

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

Not applicable

15Any issuer of a regulated covered bond.

FEES 4 Annex 11R

(1) Unless (2) applies, on or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R

(2) If an event specified in column 4 occurs during the course of a fee year64, 30 days after the occurrence of that event or, if later, the dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R

64

A person becomes registered as an issuer of a regulated covered bond

26(i) An AIFM (other than a UK AIFM or an EEA AIFM with a branch in the UK) which has notified the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 57 of the AIFMD UK regulation and which has not ceased to market that AIF in the UK as at 1 April of the current fee year.

(ii) An AIFM which has notified the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 58 or 59 of the AIFMD UK regulation and which has not ceased to market that AIF in the UK as at 1 April of the current fee year.

For each notification made by the AIFM of the kind specified in part 2 of FEES 4 Annex 4, the amount specified in part 2 of FEES 4 Annex 4

(1) Unless (2) applies, on or before 1 August, or, if later, within 30 days of the date of the invoice

(2) If an event in column 4 occurs during the course of a financial year, 30 days after the occurrence of that event

The FCA receives a notification to market in the UK

26A small registered UK AIFM

The basic fee contained in part 3 of FEES 4 Annex 4

The AIFM is registered by the FCA under regulation 10 of the AIFMD UK regulation.

30Each of the following that makes transaction reports directly to the FCA under SUP 17 (Transaction reporting):

(1) a firm;

(2) a third party acting on a firm's behalf;

(3) an approved reporting mechanism;

(4) an operator of a regulated market; and

(5) an operator of an MTF.

FEES 4 Annex 3A

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

The FCA enters into arrangements with the fee payer under which it can make transaction reports directly to the FCA

Note:Sponsors on the list of approved sponsors as at 1 April each year will be liable for the full year's annual fee unless FEES 4.3.13 R applies.2

FEES 4.4.9DRP
3To the extent that a firm4 has provided the information required by FEES 4.4.7 D to the FCA as part of its compliance with another provision of the Handbook, it is deemed to have complied with the provisions of that direction.444
COLL 8.2.3RRP
4(1) The authorised fund manager must ensure that the name of the scheme, a sub-fund or a class of unit is not undesirable or misleading.(2) An authorised fund or a sub-fund may only be named or marketed as a ‘money market fund’ if it is:(a) a short-term money market fund; or(b) a money market fund.4[Note: Box 1, paragraph 2 of CESR's guidelines on a common definition of European money market funds]4
COLL 8.2.6RRP

This table belongs to COLL 8.2.5 R

1

Description of the authorised fund

Information detailing:

(1)

the name of the authorised fund;

(2)

that the authorised fund is a qualified investor scheme; and

(3)

in the case of an ICVC, whether the head office of the company is situated in England and Wales or Wales or Scotland or Northern Ireland.

3Property Authorised Investment Funds

1A

For a property authorised investment fund, a statement that:

(1)

it is a property authorised investment fund;

(2)

no body corporate may seek to obtain or intentionally maintain a holding of more that 10% of the net asset value of the fund; and

(3)

in the event that the authorised fund manager reasonably considers that a body corporate holds more than 10% of the net asset value of the fund, the authorised fund manager is entitled to delay any redemption or cancellation of units in accordance with 6A if the authorised fund manager reasonably considers such action to be:

(a)

necessary in order to enable an orderly reduction of the holding to below 10%; and

(b)

in the interests of the unitholders as a whole.

2

Constitution

The following statements:

(1)

the scheme property of the scheme is entrusted to a depositary for safekeeping (subject to any exception permitted by the rules);

(2)

if relevant, the duration of the scheme is limited and, if so, for how long;

(3)

charges and expenses of the scheme may be taken out of scheme property;

(4)

for an ICVC:

(a)

what the maximum and minimum sizes of the scheme's capital are; and

(b)

the unitholders are not liable for the debts of the company;5

6

5(4A)

for an ICVC which is an umbrella, a statement that the assets of a sub-fund belong exclusively to that sub-fund and shall not be used to discharge directly or indirectly the liabilities of, or claims against, any other person or body, including the umbrella, or any other sub-fund, and shall not be available for any such purpose;6

6(4B)

for a co-ownership scheme which is an umbrella, the property subject to a sub-fund is beneficially owned by the participants in that sub-fund as tenants in common (or, in Scotland, is the common property of the participants in that sub-fund) and must not be used to discharge any liabilities of, or meet any claims against, any person other than the participants in that sub-fund;

6(4C)

for a limited partnership scheme, that the scheme prohibits pooling as is mentioned in section 235(3)(a) of the Act in relation to separate parts of the scheme property, with the effect that the scheme cannot be an umbrella;

(5)

for an AUT:

(a)

the trust deed:

(i)

is made under and governed by the law of England and Wales, or the law of Scotland or the law of Northern Ireland;

(ii)

is binding on each unitholder as if he had been a party to it and that he is bound by its provisions; and

(iii)

authorises and requires the trustee and the manager to do the things required or permitted of them by its terms;

(b)

subject to the provisions of the trust deed and all the rules made under section 247 of the Act (Trust scheme rules):

(i)

the scheme (other than sums held to the credit of the distribution account) is held by the trustee on trust for the unitholders according to the number of units held by each unitholder or, where relevant, according to the number of individual shares in the scheme property represented by the units held by each unitholder; and

(ii)

the sums standing to the credit of any distribution account are held by the trustee on trust to distribute or apply in accordance with COLL 8.5.15 R (Income);

(c)

a Unitholder is not liable to make any further payment after he has paid the price of his units and that no further liability can be imposed on him in respect of the units he holds; and

(d)

payments to the trustee by way of remuneration are authorised to be paid (in whole or in part) out of the scheme property; and6

6

(6)6

for an ACS:

(a)

the contractual scheme deed:

(i)

is made under and governed by the law of England and Wales, or the law of Scotland or the law of Northern Ireland;

(ii)

is binding on each unitholder as if he had been a party to it and that he is bound by its provisions;

(iii)

authorises and requires the depositary and the authorised contractual scheme manager to do the things required or permitted of them by its terms; and

(iv)

states that units may not be issued to a person other than a person7:

(A)

who 7is a:

(i)

professional ACS investor;

(ii)

large ACS investor; or

(iii)

person who already holds units in the scheme; and

(B)

to whom units in a qualified investor scheme may be promoted under COBS 4.12.4 R;7

7

(v)

states that the authorised contractual scheme manager of an ACS must redeemunits as soon as practicable after becoming aware that those units are vested in anyone (whether as a result of subscription or transfer of units) other than a person meeting the criteria in (iv)(A) and (B);

(vi)

states that for a co-ownership scheme:

(A)

the scheme property is beneficially owned by the participants as tenants in common (or, in Scotland, is the common property of the participants);

(B)

the arrangements constituting the scheme are intended to constitute a co-ownership scheme as defined in section 235A(2) of the Act; and

(C)

the operator and depositary are required to wind up the scheme if directed to do so by the FCA in exercise of its power under section 261X (Directions) or section 261Z (Winding up or merger of master UCITS) of the Act;

(vii)

states:

(A)

whether the transfer of units in the ACS scheme or, for a co-ownership scheme which is an umbrella (sub-funds of which pursue differing policies in relation to transfer of units), in each particular sub-fund, is either:

(i)

prohibited; or

(ii)

allowed;

(B)

where transfer of units is allowed by the scheme or, where appropriate the sub-fund, in accordance with (A)(ii), units may only be transferred in accordance with the conditions specified by FCArules, including that units may not be transferred to a person other than a person :

7

(i)

who 7is a:

(1)

professional ACS investor; or

(2)

large ACS investor; or

(3)

person who already holds units in the scheme; and

(ii)

to whom units in a qualified investor scheme may be promoted under COBS 4.12.4 R; and7

7

(viii)

states that for a limited partnership scheme, the scheme is not dissolved on any person ceasing to be a limited partner or nominated partner provided that there remains at least one limited partner;

(b)

subject to the provisions of the contractual scheme deed and all the rules made under section 261I of the Act (Contractual scheme rules) and for the time being in force:

(i)

the scheme property (other than sums standing to the credit of the distribution account) is held by, or to the order of, the depositary for and on behalf of the unitholders according to the number of units held by each unitholder or, where relevant, according to the number of individual shares in the scheme property represented by the units held by each unitholder; and

(ii)

the sums standing to the credit of any distribution account are held by the depositary to distribute or apply them in accordance with COLL 8.5.15 R(Income); and

(c)

a unitholder in a co-ownership scheme is not liable to make any further payment after he has paid the price of his units and that no further liability can be imposed on him in respect of the units he holds;

(d)

a unitholder in a limited partnership scheme is not liable for the debts or obligations of the limited partnership scheme beyond the amount of the scheme property which is available to the authorised contractual scheme manager to meet such debts or obligations, provided that the unitholder does not take part in the management of the partnership business;

(e)

the exercise of rights conferred on limited partners by FCA rules does not constitute taking part in the management of the partnership business;

(f)

the limited partners, other than the nominated partner, are to be the participants in the scheme; and

(g)

the operator of a co-ownership scheme is authorised to:

(i)

acquire, manage and dispose of the scheme property; and

(ii)

enter into contracts which are binding on unitholders for the purposes of, or in connection with, the acquisition, management or disposal of scheme property.

3

Investment objectives

A statement of the object of the scheme, in particular the types of investments and assets in which it and each sub-fund (where applicable) may invest and that the object of the scheme is to invest in property of that kind with the aim of spreading investment risk.

4

Units in the scheme

A statement of:

(1)

the classes of units which the scheme may issue, indicating, for a scheme which is an umbrella, which class or classes may be issued in respect of each sub-fund; and

(2)

the rights attaching to units of each class (including any provisions for the expression in two denominations of such rights).

5

Limitation on issue of and redemption of units

Details as to:

(1)

the provisions relating to any restrictions on the right to redeem units in any class; and

(2)

the circumstances in which the issue of the units of any particular class may be limited.

6

Income and distribution

Details of the person responsible for the calculation, transfer, allocation and distribution of income for any class of unit in issue during the accounting period.

3Redemption or cancellation of units on breach of law or rules

6A

A statement that where any holding of units by a unitholder is (or is reasonably considered by the authorised fund manager to be) an infringement of any law, governmental regulation or rule, those units must be redeemed or cancelled.

7

Base currency

A statement of the base currency of the scheme.

8

Meetings

Details of the procedures for the convening of meetings and the procedures relating to resolutions, voting and the voting rights for unitholders.

9

Powers and duties of the authorised fund manager and depositary

Where relevant, details of any function to be undertaken by the authorised fund manager and depositary which the rules in COLL require to be stated in the instrument constituting the fund.8

8

10

Termination and suspension

Details of:

(1)

the grounds under which the authorised fund manager may initiate a suspension of the scheme and any associated procedures; and

(2)

the methodology for determining the rights of unitholders to participate in the scheme property on winding up.

110A

Investment in overseas2 property through an intermediate holding vehicle1

If investment in an overseas2 immovable is to be made through an intermediate holding vehicle or a series of intermediate holding vehicles, a statement that the purpose of that intermediate holding vehicle or series of intermediate holding vehicles will be to enable the holding of overseas2 immovables by the scheme.1

11

Other relevant matters

Details of those matters which enable the scheme, authorised fund manager or depositary to obtain any privilege or power conferred by the rules in COLL which is not otherwise provided for in the instrument constituting the fund.8

8