Related provisions for INSPRU 1.5.4

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DISP 2.5.1RRP
The Ombudsman can consider a complaint under the Voluntary Jurisdiction if:426(1) it is not covered by the Compulsory Jurisdiction;830 and426(2) it relates to an act or omission by a VJ participant in carrying on one or more of the following activities:(a) an activity carried on after 28 April 1988 which:(i) was not a regulated activity at the time of the act or omission, but(ii) was a regulated activity when the VJ participant joined the Voluntary Jurisdiction (or became an
CONC 3.1.9RRP
This chapter applies to a firm in relation to:(1) a communication with, or the communication or approval for communication of a financial promotion to, a person in the UK;(2) the communication of an unsolicited real time financial promotion, unless it is made from a place, and for the purposes of a business which is only carried on, outside the UK; and(3) the communication or approval for communication of a financial promotion that is an electronic commerce communication to a
EG 19.10.2RP
1The Enterprise Act identifies two types of breach which trigger the Part 8 enforcement powers. These are referred to as: (1) “domestic infringements”, which are breaches of particular UK enactments or of contractual or tortious duties, in each case if they occur in the course of a business and in relation to goods or services supplied or sought to be supplied: (a) to or for a person in the UK; or (b) by a person with a place of business in the UK; and (2) “Community infringements”,
EG 9.3.5RP
2The following are examples of types of behaviour which have previously resulted in FCA the deciding to issue a prohibition order or withdraw the approval of an approved person:(1) Providing false or misleading information to the FCA; including information relating to identity, ability to work in the United Kingdom, and business arrangements; (2) Failure to disclose material considerations on application forms, such as details of County
LR 17.3.8GRP
An issuer, whose securities are admitted to trading on a regulated market in the United Kingdom, should consider its obligations under DTR 2 (Disclosure and control of inside information by issuers).1
SUP 16.4.2AGRP
8This section may be of relevance to non-directive firms.
SUP 3.4.4GRP
An auditor which a firm proposes to appoint should have skills, resources and experience commensurate with the nature, scale and complexity of the firm's business and the requirements and standards under the regulatory system to which it is subject. A firm should have regard to whether its proposed auditor has expertise in the relevant requirements and standards (which may involve access to UK expertise) and possesses or has access to appropriate specialist skill, for example
DTR 6.1.1RRP
(1) 1Subject to the exemptions set out in DTR 6.1.16 R - DTR 6.1.19 R this section applies in relation to an issuer whose Home State is the United Kingdom.(2) References to transferable securities, shares and debt securities are to such instruments as are admitted to trading.
PR 1.2.1UKRP

Sections 85 and 86 of the Act provide for when a prospectus approved by the FCA will be required:

85

(1)

It is unlawful for transferable securities to which this subsection applies to be offered to the public in the United Kingdom unless an approved prospectus has been made available to the public before the offer is made.

(2)

It is unlawful to request the admission of transferable securities to which this subsection applies to trading on a regulated market situated or operating in the United Kingdom unless an approved prospectus has been made available to the public before the request is made.

(3)

A person who contravenes subsection (1) or (2) is guilty of an offence and liable –

(a)

on summary conviction, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum or both;

(b)

on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or a fine or both.

(4)

A contravention of subsection (1) or (2) is actionable, at the suit of a person who suffers loss as a result of the contravention, subject to the defences and other incidents applying to actions for breach of statutory duty.

(5)

Subsection (1) applies to all transferable securities other than –

(a)

those listed in Schedule 11A;

(b)

such other transferable securities as may be specified in prospectus rules [see PR 1.2.2 R].

(6)

Subsection (2) applies to all transferable securities other than –

(a)

those listed in Part 1 of Schedule 11A;

(b)

such other transferable securities as may be specified in prospectus rules [see PR 1.2.3 R].

(7)

"Approved prospectus" means, in relation to transferable securities to which this section applies, a prospectus approved by the competent authority of the home State in relation to the issuer of the securities.

86

Exempt offers to the public

(1)

A person does not contravene section 85(1) if –

(a)

the offer is made to or directed at qualified investors only;

(b)

the offer is made to or directed at fewer than 1502 persons, other than qualified investors, per EEA State;

(c)

the minimum consideration which may be paid by any person for transferable securities acquired by him pursuant to the offer is at least 100,0003 euros (or an equivalent amount);

3

(d)

the transferable securities being offered are denominated in amounts of at least 100,0003 euros (or equivalent amounts);

33

(e)

the total consideration for the transferable securities being offered in the EEA states3 cannot exceed 100,000 euros (or an equivalent amount); or3

3

3(f)

the offer falls within subsection (1A).

3(1A)

An offer (“the current offer”) falls within this subsection where transferable securities are resold or placed through a financial intermediary where:

3(a)

the transferable securities have previously been the subject of one or more offers to the public;

3(b)

in respect of one or more of those previous offers, any of paragraphs (a) to (e) of subsection (1) applied;

3(c)

a prospectus is available for the securities which has been approved by the FCA and meets either of the conditions in subsection (1B);4 and

4

3(d)

the issuer or other person who was responsible for drawing up the prospectus has given written consent to the use of the prospectus for the purpose of the current offer.4

4(1B)

The conditions referred to in subsection (1A)(c) are:

(a)

that the prospectus was approved by the FCA no earlier than 12 months before the date the current offer is made, and is supplemented by every supplementary prospectus which was required to be submitted under section 87G; or

(b)

in the case of non-equity transferable securities falling within article 5(4)(b) of the prospectus directive, that the securities concerned have not ceased to be issued in a continuous or repeated manner.

(2)

Where -

(a)

a person who is not a qualified investor ("the client") has engaged a qualified investor falling within point (1) of Section 1 of Annex II to the markets in financial instruments directive3 to act as his agent; and

3

(b)

the terms on which the qualified investor is engaged enable him to make decisions concerning the acceptance of offers of transferable securities on the client's behalf without reference to the client,

an offer made to or directed at the qualified investor is not to be regarded for the purposes of subsection (1) as also having been made to or directed at the client.

(3)

For the purposes of subsection (1)(b), the making of an offer of transferable securities to –

(a)

trustees of a trust,

(b)

members of a partnership in their capacity as such, or

(c)

two or more persons jointly,

is to be treated as the making of an offer to a single person.

(4)

In determining whether subsection (1)(e) is satisfied in relation to an offer ("offer A"), offer A is to be taken together with any other offer of transferable securities of the same class made by the same person which –

(a)

was open at any time within the period of 12 months ending with the date on which offer A is first made; and

(b)

had previously satisfied subsection (1)(e).

(5)

For the purposes of this section, an amount (in relation to an amount denominated in euros) is an "equivalent amount" if it is an amount of equal value denominated wholly or partly in another currency or unit of account.

(6)

The equivalent is to be calculated at the latest practicable date before (but in any event not more than 3 working days before) the date on which the offer is first made.

(7)

"Qualified investor" in relation to an offer of transferable securities,3 means –

(a)

a person described in points (1) to (4) of Section I of Annex II to the markets in financial instruments directive, other than a person who, before the making of the offer, has agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II to that directive;3

3

(b)

a person who has made a request to one or more relevant firms to be treated as a professional client in accordance with Section II of Annex II to that directive and has not subsequently, but before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with that relevant firm (or each of those relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II to that directive;3

3

(c)

a person who is recognised as an eligible counterparty in accordance with article 24 of that directive and has not, before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II of that directive;3

3

3(d)

a person whom any relevant firm is authorised to continue to treat as a professional client in accordance with article 71(6) of that directive.

3(8)

In subsection (7) “relevant firm” means an investment firm or credit institution acting in connection with the offer.

3(9)

Investment firms and credit institutions must communicate their classification of their clients as being or not being qualified investors on request to an issuer, subject to complying with the Data Protection Act 1998 or any directly applicable EU legislation relating to data protection.

3(10)

In subsections (8) and (9) -

“credit institution” means -

(a) a credit institution authorised under the banking consolidation directive; or

(b) an institution which would satisfy the requirements for authorisation as a credit institution under that directive if it had its registered office (or if it does not have one, its head office) in an EEA State.

SUP 16.3.16GRP
The firm is responsible for ensuring delivery of the required report at the by the due date. If a report is received by the appropriate regulator49after the due date and the firm believes its delivery arrangements were adequate, it may be required to provide proof of those arrangements. Examples of such proof would be:4949(1) "proof of posting" receipts from a UK post office or overseas equivalent which demonstrates that the report was posted early enough to allow delivery by
LR 9.8.6RRP
In the case of a listed company incorporated in the United Kingdom, the following additional items must be included in its annual financial report1:1(1) a statement setting out all the interests (in respect of which transactions are notifiable to the company under DTR 3.1.2 R) 4of each person who is4 a3director of the listed company as at the end of4 the period under review including:44334(a) all changes in the interests of each director that have occurred between the end of the
PERG 5.1.8GRP
Rights conferred on third parties cannot be affected by guidance given by the FCA. This guidance represents the FCA's view, and does not bind the courts, for example, in relation to the enforceability of a contract where there has been a breach of the general prohibition on carrying on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom without authorisation (see sections 26 to 29 of the Act (Enforceability of Agreements)).
EG 2.1.1RP
1The FCA's effective and proportionate use of its enforcement powers plays an important role in the pursuit of its statutory objectives, including its operational objectives of securing an appropriate degree of protection for consumers, protecting and enhancing the integrity of the UK financial system, and promoting effective competition in the interests of consumers. For example, using enforcement helps to contribute to the protection of consumers and to deter future contraventions
SYSC 19D.1.1RRP
(1) The dual-regulated firms Remuneration Code applies to:(a) a building society;(b) a bank;(c) a UK designated investment firm;(d) an overseas firm that;(i) is not an EEAfirm;(ii) has its head office outside the EEA; and(iii) would be a firm in (a), (b) or (c) if it had been a UK domestic firm, had carried on all of its business in the United Kingdom and had obtained whatever authorisations for doing so as are required under the Act.(2) For a firm which falls under (1)(a), (1)(b)
CONC 3.9.3RRP
A firm must ensure that a financial promotion or a communication with a customer (to the extent a previous communication to the same customer has not included the following information) includes:(1) a statement of the services the firm offers;(2) a statement of any relationship with a business associate which is relevant to the services offered in the promotion; [Note: paragraph 2.5a of DMG](3) a statement setting out the level of fees charged for the firm's services, how they
COLL 11.3.5RRP
(1) Where the feeder UCITS and the master UCITS are UCITS schemes, the master-feeder agreement must provide that the law of a specified part of the United Kingdom applies to the agreement and that both parties agree to the exclusive jurisdiction of the courts of that part of the United Kingdom.(2) Where the feeder UCITS and the master UCITS are established in different EEA States, the master-feeder agreement must provide that the applicable law shall be either:(a) the law of the