Related provisions for LR 8.6.7B

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IFPRU 4.11.1GRP
The FCA considers that income-producing real estate (IPRE) is a particularly difficult asset class for which to build effective rating systems that are compliant with the requirements of the internal ratings based (IRB) approach.
IFPRU 4.11.5GRP
The FCA expects that an IPRE rating system will only be compliant if a firm is able to demonstrate the following in respect of its treatment of cash flows (except where the firm can demonstrate that this is not an appropriate risk driver):(1) the difference in deal ratings when tenant ratings are altered is intuitive;(2) the transformation of ratings into non-rent payment probability is intuitive. Even where tenants are rated by the firm the PD will not usually represent a direct
IFPRU 4.11.6GRP
The FCA expects that an IPRE rating system will only be compliant if a firm is able to demonstrate the following in respect of its treatment of interest-rate risk (IRR):(1) IRR is included as a relevant risk driver (unless the portfolio is exclusively hedged);(2) the way in which IRR is included in the deal rating is intuitive with respect to model philosophy. For example, a 'point in time' rating should consider the current interest rate and likely change over a one-year time
IFPRU 4.11.8GRP
The FCA expects that firms will not be compliant with the calibration requirements relating to use of a long-run default rate, unless it can demonstrate that:(1) the internal data series is the longest relevant and accurate data series, on a EU CRR compliant definition of default, that is available;(2) the determination of long-run default rate includes reference to an appropriate source of downturn data (this may require the use of external data);(3) the relevance of any external
IFPRU 4.11.9GRP
The FCA expects that a firm will only be compliant with the calibration requirements relating to model philosophy if it can demonstrate that:(1) the model philosophy is clearly articulated and justified. Justification should include analysis of the performance of assets, and the corresponding ratings assigned, over a change in economic conditions (ie, as long as period as possible); and(2) in addition to encapsulating this information in a coherent way in the calibration, the
IFPRU 4.11.12GRP
The FCA considers that, to meet the requirements referred to in IFPRU 4.11.1 G, it will be necessary for firms to demonstrate that a firm has a good understanding of PD models that are constructed theoretically and that the parameter estimates reflect a one-year PD. In addition, even if empirical data were not used to determine the PD estimate it should, where available, be used to back-test the estimates.
IFPRU 4.11.13GRP
The FCA expects that, as most models of this type will be able to produce one-year estimates of PD that correspond closely to point-in-time estimates, firms should conduct robust back-testing of such estimates by comparing them with realised default rates. Firms would need to demonstrate that the results of such back-testing meet pre-defined and stringent standards in order for the FCA to be satisfied that the IRB requirements are met.
IFPRU 4.11.14GRP
Because assumptions in the model build process are likely to materially impact the resulting PDs, the FCA would expect these choices to be clearly justified in the model documentation and to have been independently reviewed. To be satisfied that a firm is complying with article 176(1)(d) of the EU CRR, the FCA expects a firm to support justification for all assumptions with analysis of the sensitivity of the model outputs to changes in the assumptions.
IFPRU 4.11.15GRP
Where the firm has fewer1than 20 defaults in their internal data set, the FCA expects it to be necessary for firms to perform a statistical low default portfolio calibration, as set out in the guidance in this section.1
IFPRU 4.11.16GRP
The FCA expects that a firm will be compliant with the validation requirements only where1it can demonstrate, in respect of discriminatory power, that:11(1) appropriate minimum standards that the rating system is expected to reach are defined, together with reasoning behind the adoption of such standards and that the factors considered when determining the tests are clearly documented;(2) an objective rank-ordering metric, measured using an appropriate time horizon (eg, using
IFPRU 4.11.17GRP
The FCA expects that a firm will be compliant with the validation requirements only where1it can demonstrate in respect of the calibration that:11(1) observed default rate versus PD is considered at grade level and across a range of economic environments (ie, as long as period as possible);(2) where the PD does not relate to a pure point-in-time estimate, either the PD or the observed default rate is transformed such that comparison between the two is meaningful. This transformation
IFPRU 4.11.18GRP
The FCA also expects that a firm will be compliant with the validation requirements only where1it can demonstrate that:11(1) appropriate stability metrics should be considered across a range of economic environments (ie, longest period possible including most recent data);(2) the tolerances for the degree of divergence, and associated actions for what should happen when they are not met, is pre-defined; and(3) subsections of portfolios by characteristics affecting risk profile,
IFPRU 4.11.19GRP
The FCA expects that a firm will1 be able to comply with certain other EU CRR requirements only where it can1demonstrate that:11(1) in relation to article 144(1)(e) of the EU CRR, where more than one model is used, the rationale, and the associated boundary issues, is clearly articulated and justified and the criteria for assigning an asset to a rating model are objective and clear;(2) in relation to article 173(1)(c) of the EU CRR, the firm has a process in place to ensure valuations
SUP 15.7.2GRP
A firm should have regard to the urgency and significance of a matter and, if appropriate, should also notify its usual supervisory contact at the appropriate regulator7 by telephone or by other prompt means of communication, before submitting a written notification. Oral notifications should be given directly to the firm's usual supervisory contact at the appropriate regulator.7 An oral notification left with another person or left on a voicemail or other automatic messaging
SUP 15.7.3GRP
The appropriate regulator7 is entitled to rely on any information it receives from a firm and to consider any notification received as being made by a person authorised by the firm to do so. A firm should therefore consider whether it needs to put procedures in place to ensure that only appropriate employees make notifications to the appropriate regulator7 on its behalf.77
SUP 15.7.4RRP
Unless stated in the notification rule, or on the relevant form (if specified), a written notification required from a firm under any notification rule must be:2(1) given to or addressed for the attention of the firm's usual supervisory contact at the appropriate regulator;7 and7(2) delivered to the appropriate regulator7 by one of the methods in SUP 15.7.5A R or SUP 15.7.5B R as applicable:77
SUP 15.7.5ARRP

7Methods of notification

Method of delivery

1.

Post to the appropriate address in SUP 15.7.6A G

2.

Leaving the notification at the appropriate address in SUP 15.7.6A G and obtaining a time-stamped receipt

3.

Electronic mail to an address for the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA and obtaining an electronic confirmation of receipt

4.

Hand delivery to the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA

5.

Fax to a fax number for the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA and receiving a successful transmission report for all pages of the notification

6.

Online submission via the FCA's website at www.fca.org.uk.
SUP 15.7.6AGRP

7The current published address of the FCA for postal submission or hand delivery of notifications is:

  1. (1)

    The Financial Conduct Authority

    25 The North Colonnade London

    Canary Wharf

    E14 5HS

    if the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA is based in London, or

  2. (2)

    The Financial Conduct Authority

    Quayside House 127

    Fountainbridge

    Edinburgh EH3 8DJ

    if the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA is based in Edinburgh.7

SUP 15.7.7GRP
If the firm or its group is subject to lead supervision arrangements by the appropriate regulator,7 the firm or group may give or address a notice under SUP 15.7.4 R(1) to the supervisory contact at the appropriate regulator,7 designated as lead supervisor, if the firm has chosen to make use of the lead supervisor as a central point of contact (see SUP 1.5).77
SUP 15.7.8GRP
If a firm is a member of a group which includes more than one firm, any one undertaking in the group may notify the appropriate regulator7 on behalf of all firms in the group to which the notification applies. In this way, that undertaking may satisfy the obligation of all relevant firms in the group to notify the appropriate regulator.7 Nevertheless, the obligation to make the notification remains the responsibility of the individual firm itself. See also SUP 15.7.3 G.77
SUP 15.7.9GRP
Firms wishing to communicate with the appropriate regulator7 by electronic mail or fax should obtain the appropriate address or number from the FSA7appropriate regulator.77
SUP 15.7.10RRP
If a notification rule requires notification within a specified period:(1) the firm must give the notification so as to be received by the appropriate regulator7no later than the end of that period; and 7(2) if the end of that period falls on a day which is not a business day, the notification must be given so as to be received by the appropriate regulator7 no later than the first business day after the end of that period. 7
SUP 15.7.14GRP
The appropriate regulator7 has made arrangements with the Society of Lloyd's with respect to the monitoring of underwriting agents. Underwriting agents should check whether these arrangements provide for any notifications required under this chapter to be sent to the Society instead of to the appropriate regulator.7 [For further details see the appropriate regulator's7 website.]777
SUP 15.7.16GRP
The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Service of Notices) Regulations 2001 (SI 2001/1420) contain provisions relating to the service of documents on the appropriate regulator.7 They do not apply to notifications required under notification rules because of the specific rules in this section.7
SUP 16.3.8RRP
A written report must be delivered to the appropriate regulator49 by one of the methods listed in SUP 16.3.9 R.2249
SUP 16.3.9RRP

Method of submission of reports (see SUP 16.3.8 R)

228

Method of delivery

1.

Post to the published address of the FCA49 for postal submission of reports

49

2.

Leaving the report marked for the attention of "Central Reporting"22 at the published address of the FCA49 for hand delivery of reports and obtaining a dated receipt

49

3.

Electronic mail or fax to the published e-mail address or fax number of the FCA's49 Central Reporting team.22

2249

4.22

Online submission via the appropriate systems accessible from the22appropriate regulator's49 website

49822
SUP 16.3.10GRP
  1. (1)

    The current published address of the FCA49 for postal submission of reports is:

    49

    Central Reporting22

    The Financial Conduct49 Authority

    49

    PO BOX 35747

    London E14 5WP

  2. (2)

    The current published address of the FCA49 for hand delivery of reports is:

    49
    1. (a)

      Central Reporting22

      The Financial Conduct49Authority

      49

      25 The North Colonnade

      Canary Wharf

      London E14 5HS

      if the firm's usual supervisory contact at the appropriate regulator49 is based in London, or:

      49
    2. (b)

      The Financial Conduct49Authority

      49

      Quayside House

      127 Fountainbridge

      Edinburgh EH3 8DJ

      if the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA49 is based in Edinburgh.2

      49
  3. (3)

    22The current published email address and fax number for the FCA's49 Central Reporting team is regulatory.reports@fca.org.uk49 and 020 7066 3905. The Central Reporting team does not handle general correspondence between firms and the appropriate regulator49. Accordingly, firms should not make submissions to the Central Reporting team's email address or fax number other than as directed in SUP 16.3.8 R.

    4949
SUP 16.3.11RRP
A firm must submit reports required under this chapter to the appropriate regulator49 containing all the information required.49
SUP 16.3.12GRP
SUP 15.6 refers to and contains requirements regarding the steps that firms must take to ensure that information provided to the appropriate regulator49 is accurate and complete. Those requirements apply to reports required to be submitted under this chapter.49
SUP 16.3.13RRP
(1) A firm must submit a report required by this chapter in the frequency, and so as to be received by the appropriate regulator49 no later than the due date, specified for that report.49(2) If the due date for submission of a report required by this chapter falls on a day which is not a business day, the report must be submitted so as to be received by the appropriate regulator49 no later than the first business day after the due date. 49(3) If the due date for submission of
SUP 16.3.14AGRP
9Failure to submit a report in accordance with the rules in, or referred to in,12 this chapter or the provisions of relevant legislation12 may also lead to the imposition of a financial penalty and other disciplinary sanctions. A firm may be subject to reporting requirements under relevant legislation other than the Act, not referred to in this chapter. An example of this is reporting to the appropriate regulator49 by building societies under those parts of the Building Societies
SUP 16.3.15GRP
The appropriate regulator may from time to time send reminders to firms when reports are overdue. Firms should not, however, assume that the appropriate regulator49 has received a report merely because they have not received a reminder.14949
SUP 16.3.16GRP
The firm is responsible for ensuring delivery of the required report at the by the due date. If a report is received by the appropriate regulator49after the due date and the firm believes its delivery arrangements were adequate, it may be required to provide proof of those arrangements. Examples of such proof would be:4949(1) "proof of posting" receipts from a UK post office or overseas equivalent which demonstrates that the report was posted early enough to allow delivery by
SUP 16.3.17RRP
(1) A firm must notify the appropriate regulator49if it changes its accounting reference date.49(2) When a firm extends its accounting period, it must make the notification in (1) before the previous accounting reference date.(3) When a firm shortens its accounting period, it must make the notification in (1) before the new accounting reference date.4(4) SUP 16.10.4A R to SUP 16.10.4C G (Requirement to check the accuracy of standing data and to report changes to the appropriate
SUP 16.3.18GRP
SUP 16.2.1 G emphasises the importance to the appropriate regulator49 of timely and accurate information. The extension of a firm's accounting period to more than 15 months may hinder the timely provision of relevant and important information to the appropriate regulator49. This is because many due dates for reporting to the appropriate regulator49 are linked to firms'accounting reference dates. Indeed, for some categories of firm, the only reports required by the appropriate
SUP 16.3.19GRP
If more than one firm in a group intends to change its accounting reference date at the same time, a single notification may be given to the appropriate regulator49, as described in SUP 15.7.8 G.49
SUP 16.3.22GRP
The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Service of Notices) Regulations 2001 (SI 2001/1420) contain provisions relating to the service of documents on the appropriate regulator49. They do not apply to reports required under SUP 16, because of the specific rules in this section.49
SUP 16.3.23GRP
When the appropriate regulator49 receives a report which contains confidential information and whose submission is required under this chapter, it is obliged under Part 2349of the Act (Public Record, Disclosure of Information and Co-operation) to treat that information as confidential. (See SUP 2.2.4 G for the FCA and SUP 2.2.4A G for the PRA49) 4949
SUP 16.3.24GRP
SUP 2.3.12A G and SUP 2.3.12B G state that the appropriate regulator49 may pass to other regulators information which it has in its possession. Such information includes information contained in reports submitted under this chapter. The appropriate regulator's49 disclosure of information to other regulators is subject to SUP 2.2.4 G or SUP 2.2.4A G49 (Confidentiality of information).4949
IFPRU 4.3.3GRP
The FCA will, taking into account the nature, scale and complexity of a firm's activities, monitor that it does not solely or mechanistically rely on external credit ratings for assessing the creditworthiness of an entity or financial instrument.[Note: article 77(2) of CRD]
IFPRU 4.3.4GRP
Article 20(6) of the EU CRR states that, where the IRB approach is used on a unified basis by those entities which fall within the scope of article 20(6) (EEA group), the FCA is required to permit certain IRB requirements to be met on a collective basis by members of that group. In particular, the FCA considers that, where a firm is reliant upon a rating system or data provided by another member of its group, it will not meet the condition that it is using the IRB approach on
IFPRU 4.3.5GRP
Prior to reliance being placed by a firm on a rating system or data provided by another member of the group, the FCA expects the proposed arrangements to have been explicitly considered, and found to be appropriate, by the governing body of the firm.
IFPRU 4.3.6GRP
If a firm uses a rating system or data provided by another group member, the FCA would expect the firm'sgoverning body to delegate those functions formally to the persons or bodies that are to carry them out.
IFPRU 4.3.7GRP
Where a firm seeks to demonstrate to the FCA that the effect of its non-compliance with the requirements of Part Three, Title II Chapter 3 of the EU CRR (Internal ratings based approach) is immaterial under article 146(b) of the EU CRR (Measures to be taken where the requirements cease to be met), the FCA expects the firm to have taken into account all instances of non-compliance with the requirements of the IRB approach and to have demonstrated that the overall effect of non-compliance
IFPRU 4.3.8GRP
(1) Where the firm's rating systems are used on a unified basis under article 20(6) of the EU CRR, the FCA considers that the governance requirements in article 189 of the EU CRR can only be met if the subsidiaries have delegated to the governing body or designated committee of the EEA parent institution, EEA parent financial holding company or EEA parent mixed financial holding company responsibility for approval of the firm's rating systems.(2) The FCA expects an appropriate
IFPRU 4.3.9GRP
The FCA expects a firm seeking to apply the Standardised Approach on a permanent basis to certain exposures to have a well-documented policy explaining the basis on which exposures are to be selected for permanent exemption from the IRB approach. This policy should be provided to the FCA when the firm applies for permission to use the IRB approach and maintained thereafter. Where a firm also wishes to undertake sequential implementation, the FCA expects the firm's roll-out plan
IFPRU 4.3.10GRP
(1) The FCA may permit the exemption of exposures to sovereigns and institutions under article 150(1)(a) and (b) of the EU CRR respectively only if the number of material counterparties is limited and it would be unduly burdensome to implement a rating system for such counterparties.(2) The FCA considers that the 'limited number of material counterparties' test is unlikely to be met if for the UK group total outstandings to 'higher risk' sovereigns and institutions exceed either
IFPRU 4.3.11GRP
Where a firm wishes permanently to apply the Standardised Approach to certain business units on the grounds that they are non-significant and/or certain exposure classes or types of exposures on the grounds that they are immaterial in terms of size and perceived risk profile, the FCA expects to permit a firm to make use of this exemption only to the extent that the risk-weighted exposure amount calculated under article 92(3)(a) and (f) of the EU CRR that are based on the Standardised
IFPRU 4.3.12GRP
The following points set out the level at which the FCA expects the 15% test to applied for a firm that is a member of a group:(1) if a firm is part of a group subject to consolidated supervision in the EEA and for which the FCA is the consolidating supervisor, the calculations in (1) are carried out with respect to the wider group;(2) if a firm is part of a group subject to consolidated supervision in the EEA and for which the FCA is not the consolidating supervisor the calculation
IFPRU 4.3.14GRP
Where a firm wishes to permanently apply the Standardised Approach to exposures to connected counterparties in accordance with article 150(1)(e) of the EU CRR, the FCA would normally expect to grant permission to do so only if the firm had a policy that provided for the identification of connected counterparties exposures that would be permanently exempted from the IRB approach and also identified connected counterparty exposures (if any) that would not be permanently exempted
IFPRU 4.3.15GRP
In the event that a firm with IRB permission acquires a significant new business, it should discuss with the FCA whether sequential roll-out of the firm's IRB approach to these exposures would be appropriate. In addition, the FCA would expect to review any existing time period and conditions for sequential roll-out and determine whether these remain appropriate (see article 148 of the EU CRR).
IFPRU 4.3.17GRP
The FCA expects a firm to ensure that all documentation relating to its rating systems (including any documentation referenced in this chapter or required by the EU CRR that relate to the IRB approach) is stored, arranged and indexed in such a way that it could make them all, or any subset thereof, available to the FCA immediately on demand or within a short time thereafter.
PERG 6.7.2GRP
The disaster recovery provider sets up and maintains a range of IT and related facilities (PABX etc). The disaster recovery contracts so far considered by the FCA give the recipient, subject to certain conditions including an up front payment, priority access to all or a specified part of these facilities if a 'disaster' causes the failure of a similar business system on which the recipient relies. The provider sells access to the same facilities to a number of different recipients,
PERG 6.7.4GRP
However, the disaster recovery contracts considered by the FCA had two key features.(1) Priority access to facilities in the event of a disaster was expressed to be on a 'first come, first served' basis. The contracts provided expressly that if the facilities needed by recipient A were already in use, following an earlier invocation by recipient B, the provider's obligation to recipient A was reduced to no more than an obligation of 'best endeavours' to meet A's requirements.
PERG 6.7.5GRP
Based on these features, the FCA reached the conclusion, with which the other terms of the contracts were consistent (PERG 6.6.8 G (3)), that these disaster recovery contracts were not contracts of insurance.
PERG 6.7.6GRP
An important part of the conclusion in PERG 6.7.5 G was that, although the provider assumed a risk at the outset of the contract, looking at the contract as a whole and interpreting the common law in the context of the FCA objectives (see PERG 6.5.2 G and PERG 6.5.3 G) there was no relevant assumption of risk.(1) The presence or absence of an assumption of risk is an important part of the statutory rationale for the prudential regulation of insurance.(2) In Medical Defence Union
PERG 6.7.8GRP
Notwithstanding PERG 6.7.7 G, the FCA's view is that an obligation that is of the same nature as a seller's or supplier's usual obligations as regards the quality of the goods or services is unlikely to be an insurance obligation in substance.
PERG 6.7.9GRP
The FCA is unlikely to classify a contract containing a simple manufacturer's or retailer's warranty as a contract of insurance, if the FCA is satisfied that the warranty does no more that crystallise or recognise obligations that are of the same nature as a seller's or supplier's usual obligations as regards the quality of the goods or services.
PERG 6.7.11GRP
It follows from PERG 6.7.10 G that the FCA is unlikely to be satisfied that an obligation in a contract of sale or supply is of the same nature as the seller's or supplier's usual obligations as regards the quality of goods or services, if that obligation has one or more of the following features:(1) it is assumed by a person other than the seller or supplier (a 'third party'); or(2) it is significantly more extensive in content, scope or duration than a seller's usual obligations
PERG 6.7.12GRP
Other things being equal, the FCA is likely to classify a contract of sale containing a warranty that has one or more of the features in PERG 6.7.11 G as a contract of insurance. The features in PERG 6.7.11 G (1) and (2) typically distinguish a 'third party' warranty and an 'extended warranty' from a 'simple' manufacturer's or retailer's warranty.
PERG 6.7.13GRP
If a warranty is provided by a third party, the FCA will usually treat this as conclusive of the fact that there are different transactions and an assumption or transfer of risk. This conclusion would not usually depend on whether the provider is (or is not) a part of the same group of companies as the manufacturer or retailer. But it will be the third party (who assumes the risk) that is potentially effecting a contract of insurance.
PERG 6.7.14GRP
A manufacturer or retailer may undertake a warranty obligation to his customer in a separate contract with the customer, distinct from the contract of sale or supply of goods or services. The FCA will examine the separate contract to see if it is a contract of insurance. But the mere existence of a separate warranty contract is unlikely to be conclusive by itself.
PERG 6.7.15GRP
A manufacturer or retailer may undertake an obligation to ensure that the customer becomes a party to a separate contract of insurance in respect of the goods sold. This would include, for example, a contract for the sale of a freezer, with a simple warranty in relation to the quality of the freezer, but also providing insurance (underwritten by an insurer and in respect of which the customer is the policyholder) covering loss of frozen food if the freezer fails. The FCA is unlikely
PERG 6.7.16GRP
The FCA distinguishes the contract in PERG 6.7.15 G from a contract under which the manufacturer or retailer assumes the obligation to provide the customer with an indemnity against loss or damage if the freezer fails, but takes out insurance to cover the cost of having to provide the indemnity to the customer. The obligation to indemnify is of a different nature from the seller's or supplier's usual obligations as regards the quality of goods or services and is an insurance obligation.
PERG 6.7.17GRP
The following are examples of typical warranty schemes operated by motor dealers. Provided that, in each case, the FCA is satisfied that the obligations assumed by the dealer are not significantly more extensive in content, scope or duration that a dealer's usual obligations as to the quality of motor vehicles of that kind, the FCA would not usually classify the contracts embodying these transactions as contracts of insurance.(1) The dealer gives a verbal undertaking to the purchaser
PERG 6.7.19GRP
Some providers argued that these schemes amount to nothing more than a 'manufacturer's warranty' of their own work, within the scope of PERG 6.7.7 G (Example 3: manufacturers' and retailers' warranties). However, HM Revenue and Customs is expected to make a significant number of random checks of self-assessment forms, irrespective of the quality of the work done by the provider. These random checks are also covered by the schemes. The FCA concluded, therefore, that these schemes
PERG 6.7.21GRP
If, however, a contract of this kind were structured so that the recipient was charged at a commercial rate for any legal services in fact provided, the FCA's approach will be to treat the arrangement as non-insurance. This is principally because, by taking on obligations of this kind, the provider does not assume a relevant risk (see PERG 6.7.6 G). The position might be different if the solicitor carries the additional obligation to pay for alternative legal services to be provided
EG 19.29.1RP
1The Immigration Regulations give the FCA investigation and sanctioning powers in relation to the contravention of section 40 of the Immigration Act 2014 (the Immigration Act), as well as the contravention of requirements imposed by, or under, the Immigration Regulations.
EG 19.29.2RP
1The FCA's approach to taking enforcement action under the Immigration Regulations will mirror its general approach to enforcing the Act, as set out in EG 2. It will seek to exercise its enforcement powers in a manner that is transparent, proportionate and responsive to the issue and consistent with its publicly stated policies. It will also seek to ensure fair treatment when exercising its enforcement powers. Finally, it will aim to change the behaviour of the person who is
EG 19.29.3RP
1The Immigration Regulations, for the most part, mirror the FCA's investigative and sanctioning powers under the Act. The FCA has adopted procedures and policies for the use of those powers that are akin to those it has under the Act. Key features of the FCA's approach are described below.
EG 19.29.5RP
1The FCA will notify the subject of the investigation that it has appointed investigators to carry out an investigation under the Immigration Regulations and the reasons for the appointment, unless notification is likely to result in the investigation being frustrated. In most cases, the FCA expects to carry out a scoping visit early on in the enforcement process. The FCA's policy in civil investigations under the Immigration Regulations is to use powers to
EG 19.29.6RP
1The RDC is the FCA’s decision maker for decisions which require warning notices or decision notices to be given under the Immigration Regulations, as set out in DEPP 2 Annex 1G. The RDC will make its decisions following the procedure set out in DEPP 3.2 or, where appropriate, DEPP 3.3.
EG 19.29.7RP
1The Immigration Regulations do not require the FCA to publish procedures to commence criminal prosecutions. However, the FCA will normally follow its equivalent decision-making procedures for similar decisions under the Act, as set out in EG 12.
EG 19.29.8RP
1The Immigration Regulations apply sections 393 and 394 of the Act to warning notices and decision notices given under the Immigration Regulations and so require the FCA to give third party rights and to give access to material.
EG 19.29.10RP
1When determining whether to take action to impose a penalty or to issue a public censure under the Immigration Regulations, the FCA’s policy includes having regard to the relevant factors in DEPP 6.2 and DEPP 6.4. When determining the level of financial penalty, the FCA’s policy includes having regard to the relevant principles and factors in DEPP 6.5 to DEPP 6.5B, DEPP 6.5D and DEPP 6.7.
EG 19.29.11RP
1As with cases under the Act, the FCA may settle or mediate appropriate cases involving civil breaches of the Immigration Regulations to assist it to exercise its functions. DEPP 5, DEPP 6.7 and EG 5 set out information on the FCA’s settlement process and the settlement discount scheme.
EG 19.29.12RP
1When determining whether to take action to impose a suspension or restriction under the Immigration Regulations, the FCA's policy includes having regard to the relevant factors in DEPP 6A.2 and 6A.4. When determining the length of the period of suspension or restriction, the FCA's policy includes having regard to the relevant principles and factors in DEPP 6A.3.
EG 19.29.13RP
1The FCA will apply the approach to publicity that is outlined in EG 6.
REC 5.2.1GRP
An applicant for recognised body status needs to demonstrate to the FCA5 that it is able to meet the recognised body requirements31before a recognition order can be made. Once it has been recognised, a recognised body has to comply with the recognised body requirements31at all times. (Guidance on the recognised body requirements3 applicable to UK recognised bodies (and applicants) is given in REC 2 and REC 2A).35333
REC 5.2.1AGRP
In addition, under section 290A of the Act (Refusal of recognition on ground of excessive regulatory provision), the FCA5 must refuse to make a recognition order in relation to a body applying for recognition as a UK RIE if it appears to the FCA5 that an existing or proposed regulatory provision of the applicant in connection with the applicant's business as an investment exchange or the provision by the applicant of clearing facilitation services5 imposes, or will impose, an
REC 5.2.2GRP
(1) There is no standard application form. A prospective applicant should contact the Markets Division at the FCA5 at an early stage for advice on the preparation, scheduling and practical aspects of its application.5(2) It is very important, if an application is to be processed smoothly and in a reasonable time, that it is comprehensively prepared and based on a well-developed and clear proposal.
REC 5.2.3GRP
An application should:(1) be made in accordance with any directions the FCA5 may make under section 287 (Application by an investment exchange) of the Act or (for RAPs) regulation 2 of the RAP regulations;353355(2) in the case of an application under section5 287 of the Act, 3be accompanied by the applicant's regulatory provisions and in the case of an application under section 287 of the Act information required pursuant to sub-sections 287(3)(c), (d) and (e) of the Act (see
REC 5.2.5GRP
A prospective applicant who is an authorised person may wish to consult the FCA5 about the extent to which information which it has already supplied in connection with its status as an authorised person can be used to support an application to become a UK recognised body. 5
REC 5.2.5AGRP
3A UK RIE applying for recognition as an RAP may wish to consult the FCA5 about the extent to which information which it has already supplied in connection with its status as a UK RIE can be used to support an application to be recognised as an RAP.5
REC 5.2.6GRP
Under section 289 of the Act (Applications: supplementary) or (for an RAP applicant) regulation 2 of the RAP regulations,3 the FCA5 may require the applicant to provide additional information, and may require the applicant to verify any information in any manner. In view of their likely importance for any application, the FCA5 will normally wish to arrange for its own inspection of an applicant's information technology systems.55
REC 5.2.6AGRP
1In the case of an application to become a UK RIE or an RAP3, under subsection 290(1B) of the Act and (for an RAP applicant) regulation 2(8) of the RAP regulations3, the application must be determined by the FCA5 before the end of the period of six months beginning with the date on which it receives the completed application.5
REC 5.2.7GRP
At any time after making a formal application, the applicant may make amendments to its rules, guidance or any other part of its application submitted to the FCA.555
REC 5.2.8GRP
(1) The FCA5 will keep the applicant informed of the progress of the application.5(2) It may be necessary to ask the applicant to clarify or amplify some aspects of its proposals. The FCA5 may wish to discuss various aspects of the application and may invite the applicant to attend one or more meetings for that purpose. When requested to do so, the FCA5 will explain the nature of the information which it has asked an applicant to supply in connection with its application.55
REC 5.2.12GRP
Where the FCA5 considers that it is unlikely to make a recognition order it will discuss its concerns with the applicant as early as possible with a view to enabling the applicant to make changes to its rules or guidance, or other parts of the application (see REC 5.2.7 G). If the FCA5 decides that it will not make a recognition order, it will follow the procedure set out in section 298 of the Act (Directions and revocation: procedure) or (in the case of an RAP) regulation 5 of
REC 5.2.14GRP

Information and supporting documentation (see REC 5.2.4 G).

(1)

Details of the applicant's constitution, structure and ownership, including its memorandum and articles of association (or similar or analogous documents ) and any agreements between the applicant, its owners or other persons relating to its constitution or governance (if not contained in the information listed in REC 5.2.3A G)1. An applicant for RAP status must provide details of the relationship between the governance arrangements in place for the UK RIE and the RAP.3

(2)

Details of all business to be conducted by the applicant, whether or not a regulated activity (if not contained in the information listed in REC 5.2.3A G)1.

(3)

Details of the facilities which the applicant plans to operate, including details of the trading platform or (for an RAP) auction platform,3 settlement arrangements, clearing facilitation services5 and custody services which it plans to supply. An applicant for RAP status must provide details on the relationship between the auction platform and any secondary market in emissions auction products4 which it operates or plans to operate.3

54

(4)

Copies of the last three annual reports and accounts and, for the current financial year, quarterly management accounts.

(5)

Details of its business plan for the first three years of operation as a UK recognised body (if not contained in the information listed in REC 5.2.3A G)1.

(6)

A full organisation chart and a list of the posts to be held by key individuals (with details of the duties and responsibilities) and the names of the persons proposed for these appointments when these names are available (if not contained in the information listed in REC 5.2.3A G)1.

(7)

Details of its auditors, bankers, solicitors and any persons providing corporate finance advice or similar services (such as reporting accountants) to the applicant.

(8)

Details of any relevant functions to be outsourced or delegated, with copies of relevant agreements.

(9)

Details of information technology systems and of arrangements for their supply, management, maintenance and upgrading, and security.

(10)

Details of all plans to minimise disruption to operation of its facilities in the event of the failure of its information technology systems.

(11)

Details of internal systems for financial control, arrangements for risk management and insurance arrangements to cover operational and other risks.

(12)

Details of its arrangements for managing any counterparty risks.

5

(13)

Details of internal arrangements to safeguard confidential or privileged information and for handling conflicts of interest.

(14)

Details of arrangements for complying with the notification rules and other requirements to supply information to the FCA5.

5

(15)

Details of the arrangements to be made for monitoring and enforcing compliance with its rules and with its clearing, settlement and default arrangements.

(16)

A summary of the legal due diligence carried out in relation to ascertaining the enforceability of its rules (including default rules) and the results and conclusions reached.

5

(17)

Details of the procedures to be followed for declaring a member in default, and for taking action after that event to close out positions, protect the interests of other members and enforce its default rules.

(18)

Details of membership selection criteria, rules and procedures, including (for an RAP) details of how the rules of the UK RIE will change in order to reflect RAP status.3

(19)

Details of arrangements for recording transactions effected by, or cleared through, its facilities.

(20)

Details of arrangements for detecting financial crime and market abuse , including arrangements for complying with money laundering law.

(21)

Details of criteria, rules and arrangements for selecting specified investments to be admitted to trading on (or cleared by) an RIE and, where relevant, details of how information regarding specified investments will be disseminated to users of its facilities.

5

(22)

Details of arrangements for cooperating with the FCA5 and other appropriate authorities, including draft memoranda of understanding or letters.

5

(23)

Details of the procedures and arrangements for making and amending rules, including arrangements for consulting on rule changes.

(24)

Details of disciplinary and appeal procedures, and of the arrangements for investigating complaints.
SUP 15.8.1RRP
73A firm which manages the assets of an occupational pension scheme must notify the FCA20 as soon as reasonably practicable if it receives any request or instruction from a trustee which it:20(1) knows; or(2) on substantial grounds:(a) suspects; or(b) has cause reasonably to suspect;is at material variance with the trustee's duties.1
SUP 15.8.2RRP
If a firm begins or ceases to administer individual pension accounts, it must notify the FCA20 as soon as reasonably practicable that it has done so.5220
SUP 15.8.3RRP
(1) An insurer must notify the FCA20in respect of any firm (the "intermediary") as soon as reasonably practicable if:20(a) any amount of commission due from the intermediary to the insurer in accordance with an indemnity commission clawback arrangement remains outstanding for four months after the date when the insurer gave notice to the intermediary that the relevant premium had not been paid; or(b) any amount of commission due from the intermediary to the insurer as a result
SUP 15.8.4GRP
(1) 467In accordance with article 3111of the Money Laundering Regulations, with effect from 15 December 200711, a firm is required to notify the FCA:20111120(a) before it begins or within 28 days of it beginning11; and(b) immediately11 after it ceases;11to operate a money service business or a trust or company service provider.1111(2) The notification referred to in (1) should be made in accordance with the requirements in SUP 15.7 (Form and method of notification)
SUP 15.8.5GRP
467A firm which is already operating a money service business or a trust or company service provider11 as at 15 December 200711 is required by the Money Laundering Regulations to notify the FCA20 of that fact and should do so in the manner specified in SUP 15.8.4 G(2) before 15 January 200811.111120
SUP 15.8.6RRP
If a UK UCITS management company intends to delegate to a third party any one or more of its functions for the more efficient conduct of its business, it must first inform the FCA20 in an appropriate manner.141420[Note: article 13(1)(a) of the UCITS Directive]14
SUP 15.8.8RRP
(1) 9If a firm begins or ceases to hold itself out as acting as a CTF provider, it must notify the FCA20 as soon as reasonably practicable that it has done so.20(2) A firm that acts as a CTF provider must provide theFCA,20 as soon as reasonably practicable, with details of:20(a) any third party administrator that it engages;(b) details of whether it intends to offer HMRC allocated CTFs12; and12(c) whether it intends to provide its own stakeholder CTF account.
SUP 15.8.9RRP
10A BIPRUfirm must report to the appropriate regulator20 immediately any case in which its counterparty in a repurchase agreement or reverse repurchase agreement or securities or commodities lending or borrowing transaction defaults on its obligations.20
EG 19.23.1RP
1The FCA has investigation and sanctioning powers in relation to both criminal and civil breaches of the Electronic Money Regulations. The Electronic Money Regulations impose requirements including, amongst other things, various provisions regulating the rights and obligations of electronic money institutions.
EG 19.23.2RP
1In addition to its powers that apply to authorised electronic money institutions, generally the FCA has the power to prohibit or restrict the carrying out of certain regulated activities by EEA authorised electronic money institutions.
EG 19.23.3RP
1The FCA's approach to enforcing the Electronic Money Regulations will mirror its general approach to enforcing the Act, as set out in EG 2. It will seek to exercise its enforcement powers in a manner that is transparent, proportionate, responsive to the issue, and consistent with its publicly stated policies. It will also seek to ensure fair treatment when exercising its enforcement powers. Finally, it will aim to change the behaviour of the electronic money
EG 19.23.4RP
1The Electronic Money Regulations, for the most part, mirror the FCA's investigative, sanctioning and regulatory powers under the Act. The FCA has decided to adopt procedures and policies in relation to the use of those powers akin to those it has under the Act. Key features of the FCA's approach are described below.
EG 19.23.6RP
1The FCA will notify the subject of the investigation that it has appointed investigators to carry out an investigation under the Electronic Money Regulations and the reasons for the appointment, unless notification is likely to prejudice the investigation or otherwise result in it being frustrated. The FCA's policy in civil investigations under the Electronic Money Regulations is to use powers to compel information in the same way as it would in the course
EG 19.23.7RP
1The RDC is the FCA's decision maker for some of the decisions under the Electronic Money Regulations as set out in DEPP 2 Annex 1G. The RDC will make its decisions following the procedure set out in DEPP 3.2 or, where appropriate, DEPP 3.3 and 3.4. DEPP 3.4 applies for urgent notices under regulation 11(6), (9) and (10)(b) (including as applied by regulation 15).
EG 19.23.9RP
1The Electronic Money Regulations do not require the FCA to have published procedures to commence criminal prosecutions. However, in these situations the FCA expects that it will normally follow its decision-making procedures for the equivalent decisions under the Act.
EG 19.23.10RP
1The Electronic Money Regulations require the FCA to give third party rights as set out in section 393 of the Act and to give access to material as set out in section 394 of the Act in certain cases.
EG 19.23.11RP
1Certain FCA decisions (for example the cancellation of an authorisation or the imposition of a financial penalty) may be referred to the Tribunal by an aggrieved party.
EG 19.23.12RP
1When determining whether to take action to impose a penalty the FCA's policy includes having regard to the relevant factors in DEPP 6.2 and DEPP 6.4. When determining the level of a financial penalty the FCA's policy includes having regard to relevant principles and factors in DEPP 6.5 to 6.5D.
EG 19.23.13RP
1When determining whether to suspend the authorisation or, as the case may be, the registration of an electronic money institution or limit or otherwise restrict the carrying on of electronic money issuance or payments services business by an electronic money issuer the FCA's policy will have regard to the relevant factors in DEPP 6A.
EG 19.23.14RP
1As with cases under the Act, the FCA may settle or mediate appropriate cases involving civil breaches of the Electronic Money Regulations to assist it to exercise its functions under the Regulations in the most efficient and economic way. See DEPP 5, DEPP 6.7 and EG 5 for further information on the settlement process and the settlement discount scheme.
EG 19.23.15RP
1The Electronic Money Regulations apply section 169 of the Act which requires the FCA to publish a statement of policy on the conduct of certain interviews in response to requests from overseas regulators. For the purposes of the Electronic Money Regulations the FCA will follow the procedures described in DEPP 7.
SUP 6.3.1AGRP
27Under section 55H of the Act, an FCA-authorised person may apply to the FCA to vary its Part 4A permission to:(1) allow it to carry on further regulated activities, other than a PRA-regulated activity; or(2) reduce the number of regulated activities it is permitted to carry on; or (3) vary the description of its regulated activities (including by the removal or variation of any limitations).
SUP 6.3.1BGRP
27Under section 55I of the Act, an FCA-authorised person may apply to the PRA to vary its Part 4A permission to add regulated activities which include a PRA-regulated activity.
SUP 6.3.2AGRP
27Under section 55L(5) of the Act a firm with a Part 4A permission may apply to the FCA for the imposition of a new requirement and/or the variation or cancellation of any requirement previously imposed by the FCA.
SUP 6.3.15DRP
(1) Subject to (1A), a17firm other than a credit union wishing to make an application under SUP 6 must apply online using the form specified on the ONA18system.14141727272718(1A) A firm wishing to make an application under SUP 6 which covers only credit-related regulated activities must submit any form, notice or application by using the form in SUP 6 Annex 5 and submitting it in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification).17(2) [deleted]271427(3)
SUP 6.3.28AGRP
27Where a firm applies to the PRA for the variation of its Part 4A permission, the FCA, in giving consent to such an application or imposing any requirements on the firm, is required by section 55B(3) of the Act to ensure that the firm satisfies and will continue to satisfy the threshold conditions for which the FCA is responsible in relation to all the regulated activities for which the firm has or will have Part 4A permission after the variation.
SUP 6.3.28BGRP
(1) 27The FCA's duty under section 55B(3) of the Act does not prevent it, having regard to that duty, from taking such steps as it considers necessary in relation to a particular firm, to meet any of its operational objectives. This may include granting or consenting to (as the case may be) a firm's application for variation of Part 4A permission when it wishes to wind down (run off) its business activities and cease to carry on new business as a result of no longer being able
SUP 6.3.32AGRP
27The FCA's power to vary a Part 4A permission after it receives an application from a firm extends to including in the Part 4A permission as varied any provision that could be included as though a fresh permission was being given in response to an application under section 55A of the Act (Application for permission). Under section 55E of the Act (Giving permission: the FCA) the FCA may:(1) incorporate in the description of a regulated activity such limitations (for example, as
SUP 6.3.32BGRP
27Thus, when determining an application for variation of Part 4A permission, the FCA can, include new limitations and vary existing limitations, either on application from the firm (for example, the customer categories with which a firm may carry on a specified activity) or, if considered appropriate, by the FCA under section 55E(5) of the Act.
SUP 6.3.32CGRP
27If a firm has applied (whether to the FCA or the PRA) for the variation of a Part 4A permission, the FCA has the power to impose on that person such requirements, taking effect on or after the variation of permission, as the FCA considers appropriate.
SUP 6.3.34AGRP
27Where a firm has made an application to the PRA for the variation of its Part 4A permission and requirements are imposed by the FCA which were not included in the firm's application, the FCA will be required to issue the firm with a warning notice and decision notice (see SUP 6.3.39 G).
SUP 6.3.36AGRP
27Where the application cannot be determined by the PRA without the consent of the FCA, section 55V(3) of the Act requires that the FCA's decision must also be made within the period required in SUP 6.3.35 G or SUP 6.3.36 G as appropriate.
SUP 6.3.37AGRP
27The FCA publishes standard times on its website setting out how long the application process is expected to take. From time to time, the FCA also publishes its performance against these times.
SUP 6.3.40GRP
DEPP9gives guidance on the FCA's27 decision making procedures including the procedures it will follow if it proposes to refuse an application for variation of Part 4A permission or for imposition or variation of a requirement27 either in whole or in part (for example, an application granted by the FCA27 but subject to limitations or requirements not applied for).92727
SUP 6.3.42GRP
(1) Firms should be aware that the appropriate regulator may exercise its own-initiative variation power to vary or cancel their Part 4A permission if they do not (see section 55J of the Act (Variation or cancellation on initiative of regulator)):2727(a) commence a regulated activity for which they have Part 4A permission27 within a period of at least 12 months from the date of being given; or27(b) carry on a regulated activity for which they have Part 4A permission27 for a period
IFPRU 2.2.16GRP
A firm should carry out assessments of the sort described in the overall Pillar 2 rule and IFPRU 2.2.13 R at least annually, or more frequently if changes in the business, strategy, nature or scale of its activities or operational environment suggest that the current level of financial resources is no longer adequate. The appropriateness of the internal process, and the degree of involvement of senior management in the process, will be taken into account by the FCA when reviewing
IFPRU 2.2.31RRP
(1) As part of its obligations under the overall Pillar 2 rule, a firm must carry out an evaluation of its exposure to the interest-rate risk arising from its non-trading activities.(2) The evaluation under (1) must cover the effect of a sudden and unexpected parallel change in interest rates of 200 basis points in both directions.(3) A firm must immediately notify the FCA if any evaluation under this rule suggests that, as a result of the change in interest rates described in
IFPRU 2.2.37RRP
(1) As part of its obligation under the overall Pillar 2 rule, a firm that is a significant IFPRU firm must:(a) for the major sources of risk identified in line with IFPRU 2.2.7R(2), carry out stress tests and scenario analyses that are appropriate to the nature, scale and complexity of those major sources of risk and to the nature, scale and complexity of the firm's business; and(b) carry out the reverse stress testing under SYSC 20 (Reverse stress testing).(2) In carrying out
IFPRU 2.2.46RRP
A firm that is not a member of a FCAconsolidation group must apply the ICAAPrules on an individual basis. [Note: article 108(1) of CRD]
IFPRU 2.2.48RRP
A firm controlled by a parent financial holding company in a Member State or a parent mixed financial holding company in a Member State must comply with the ICAAPrules on the basis of the consolidated situation of that holding company, if the FCA is responsible for supervision of the firm on a consolidated basis under article 111 of CRD. [Note: article 108(3) of CRD]
IFPRU 2.2.51RRP
For the purpose of the ICAAPrules as they apply on a consolidated basis or on a sub-consolidated basis: (1) the firm must ensure that the FCA consolidation group has the processes, strategies and systems required by the overall Pillar 2 rule;(2) the risks to which the overall Pillar 2 rule and the general stress and scenario testing rule refer are those risks as they apply to each member of the FCA consolidation group;(3) the reference in the overall Pillar 2 rule to amounts
IFPRU 2.2.52RRP
(1) This rule relates to the assessment of the amounts, types and distribution of financial resources, own funds and internal capital (referred to in this rule as "resources") under the overall Pillar 2 rule as applied on a consolidated basis and to the assessment of diversification effects as referred to in IFPRU 2.2.14 R (3)(b) as applied on a consolidated basis.(2) A firm must be able to explain how it has aggregated the risks referred to in the overall Pillar 2 rule and the
IFPRU 2.2.53RRP
(1) A firm must allocate the total amount of financial resources, own funds and internal capital identified as necessary under the overall Pillar 2 rule (as applied on a consolidated basis) between different parts of the FCA consolidation group. IFPRU 2.2.11 R (Identifying different tiers of capital) does not apply to this allocation(2) The firm must carry out the allocation in (1) in a way that adequately reflects the nature, level and distribution of the risks to which the group
IFPRU 2.2.54RRP
A firm must also allocate the total amount of financial resources, own funds and internal capital (referred to in this rule as "resources") identified as necessary under the overall Pillar 2 rule as applied on a consolidated basis or sub-consolidated basis between each firm which is a member of the FCA consolidation group on the following basis:(1) the amount allocated to each firm must be decided on the basis of the principles in IFPRU 2.2.53 R (2); and(2) if the process in (1)
IFPRU 2.2.55GRP
A firm to which the ICAAPrules apply on a consolidated basis need not prepare a consolidated basis assessment if such an assessment has been prepared by another member of its FCA consolidation group. In such cases, a firm may adopt such an assessment as its own. A firm nevertheless remains responsible for the assessment.
IFPRU 2.2.56GRP
The purpose of IFPRU 2.2.52 R to IFPRU 2.2.55 G is to enable the FCA to assess the extent, if any, to which a firm's assessment, calculated on a consolidated basis, is lower than it would be if each separate legal entity were to assess the amount of capital it would require to mitigate its risks (to the same level of confidence) were it not part of a group subject to consolidated supervision under Part One, Title II, Chapter 2 of the EUCRR (Prudential consolidation). The reason
IFPRU 2.2.59RRP
Where a firm is a member of a FCA consolidation group or a non-EEA sub-group, the firm must ensure that the risk management processes and internal control mechanisms at those levels comply with the obligations set out in the risk control rules on a consolidated basis (or a sub-consolidated basis).[Note: article 109(2) of CRD]
IFPRU 2.2.60RRP
Compliance with the obligations in IFPRU 2.2.59 R must enable the FCA consolidation group or the non-EEA sub-group to have arrangements, processes and mechanisms that are consistent, well integrated and ensure that data relevant to the purpose of supervision can be produced.[Note: article 109(2) of CRD]
IFPRU 2.2.63RRP
When the overall financial adequacy rule applies on a consolidated basis or sub-consolidated basis, the firm must ensure that at all times its FCA consolidation group maintains overall financial resources and internal capital, including own funds and liquidity resources, which are adequate, both as to amount and quality, to ensure that there is no significant risk that the liabilities of any members of its FCA consolidation group cannot be met as they fall due.
IFPRU 2.2.73GRP
(1) In identifying an appropriate range of adverse circumstances and events in accordance with IFPRU 2.2.37 R (2):(a) a firm will need to consider the cycles it is most exposed to and whether these are general economic cycles or specific to particular markets, sectors or industries;(b) for the purposes of IFPRU 2.2.37 R (2)(a), the amplitude and duration of the relevant cycle should include a severe downturn scenario based on forward-looking hypothetical events, calibrated against
IFPRU 2.2.74GRP
The FCA may formulate macroeconomic and financial market scenarios which a firm may use as an additional input to its ICAAP submission. In addition, the FCA may also ask a firm to apply specific scenarios directly in its ICAAP submission.
IFPRU 2.2.86GRP
A firm should include in the written record in IFPRU 2.2.43 R (Documentation of risk assessments) a description of the broad business strategy of the FCA consolidation group or the non-EEA sub-group of which it is a member, the group's view of its principal risks and its approach to measuring, managing and controlling the risks. This description should include the role of stress testing, scenario analysis and contingency planning in managing risk on an individual basis and consolidated
IFPRU 2.2.87GRP
A firm should satisfy itself that the systems (including IT) of the FCA consolidation group or the non-EEA sub-group of which it is a member are sufficiently sound to support the effective management and, where applicable, the quantification of the risks that could affect the FCA consolidation group or the non-EEA sub-group, as the case may be.
IFPRU 2.2.88GRP
In performing stress tests and scenario analyses, a firm should take into account the risk that its group may have to bring back on to its consolidated balance sheet the assets and liabilities of off-balance sheet entities as a result of reputational contagion, notwithstanding the appearance of legal risk transfer.
PERG 8.14.4GRP
The FCA considers the effect of each of the conditions in PERG 8.14.3G (1) to PERG 8.14.3G (3) to be as follows.(1) The first condition requires the financial promotion to be made, so ruling out any financial promotions which are directed at persons. The effect of article 6(b) and (e) of the Financial Promotion Order is that a communication is made to a person when it is addressed to him and that person to whom the financial promotion is addressed is its recipient. This means
PERG 8.14.5GRP
In the FCA's opinion, the indicators referred to in PERG 8.14.4 G suggest that there are two essential elements of a one-off financial promotion. These are that it is tailored to the circumstances of the recipient and that it is individual in nature (in that it is not simply a personalised letter sent out as part of a general mailshot). Apart from this there is no need for the communication to be an isolated instance. For example, the fact that there may be a considerable number
PERG 8.14.6GRP
In the FCA's view, a group of recipients who may be engaging in investment activity jointly could include:(1) a married couple;(2) two or more persons who will invest jointly in a product (for example, a cohabiting couple who are not married or members of a family);(3) the directors of a company or partners in a firm;(4) members of a group of companies;(5) the participants in a joint commercial enterprise;(6) the members of an investment club; and(7) the managers or prospective
PERG 8.14.7GRP
A financial promotion may fail to satisfy all of the indicators referred to in PERG 8.14.4 G because it is addressed to more than one recipient and they are not persons who will engage in investment activity jointly. In the FCA's view, such a financial promotion is capable of being one-off where the persons are to enter into the same transaction and the promotion is tailored to their individual circumstances. This may typically happen during negotiations for the sale of a company
PERG 8.14.9GRP
In the FCA's view, a person such as an investment manager or adviser is not conducting an organised marketing campaign purely because he regularly provides a particular client with financial promotions as part of his service. Neither is such a person conducting an organised marketing campaign purely because he may have several clients whose personal circumstances and objectives may suggest that a particular investment opportunity may attract them. If he considers the individual
PERG 8.14.10GRP
In the FCA's view, a person will not be making one-off financial promotions simply by sending out a series of letters to a number of customers or potential customers where a few details are changed (such as the name and address) but the bulk of the letter is standard. Such letters would be likely to be part of an organised marketing campaign.
PERG 8.14.12GRP
In the FCA's view, the article 28A exemption should provide scope for persons such as professional advisers to make unsolicited real time financial promotions in various situations. For example, when approaching persons with whom their clients are proposing to do business or those persons’ professional advisers. The exemption will not apply where the financial promotions are part of an organised marketing campaign (see PERG 8.14.4G (3)). So, in cases where a professional adviser
PERG 8.14.13GRP
Whether or not it would be reasonable to believe that any person understands the risks associated with the investment activity covered in a financial promotion or would expect to be contacted about it must be judged on the particular circumstances. In the FCA's opinion, the exemption requires that the recipient has the required understanding of risk at the time the promotion is made to him. However, it would be reasonable to believe that a person understands the risk involved
PERG 8.14.16GRP
In order to make an unsolicited real time financial promotion, an overseas communicator must rely on either article 32 or article 33. Article 32 provides an exemption for unsolicited real time financial promotions made by an overseas communicator to persons who were previously overseas and were a customer of his then. This is subject to certain conditions, including that, in broad terms, the customer would reasonably expect to be contacted about the subject matter of the financial
PERG 8.14.18GRP
This exemption allows a person in another EEA State who lawfully carries on a controlled activity in that State to promote into the United Kingdom. The terms of the exemption are that the promotion must comply with the rules inCOBS 45,9MCOB 3 or CONC 39 (as relevant). Care should be taken as any failure to satisfy any of the relevant requirements of these rules may mean that this exemption is not satisfied and that the financial promotion may breach section 21 if it has not been
PERG 8.14.20GRP
In the FCA's opinion;(1) it will not matter that a person enters into arrangements for investment or other purposes provided that he also enters them into for commercial purposes; and(2) each participant must be carrying on the business in question in their own right.This means that the sponsors or promoters of a company who arrange for private investors to become shareholders will not be setting up a joint enterprise simply because the company may intend to carry on a relevant
PERG 8.14.24GRP
A person seeking to make a financial promotion to another person may wish to make enquiries of that person to establish whether he is certified. Unless another exemption applies or the financial promotion is approved by an authorised person, such enquiries will not be possible if the enquiry communication is an inducement or invitation to engage in investment activity. In the FCA's8 view, a communication which is merely an enquiry seeking to establish that a person holds a current
PERG 8.14.26GRP
Article 49(4) gives the list of conditions which, if all are met, is proof that the financial promotion is directed at relevant persons. It is not necessary for all or any of the conditions to be met for a financial promotion to be regarded as directed at relevant persons. Ultimately the matter will be one of fact to be determined by taking account of the circumstances in which the financial promotion is made. In the FCA's opinion, it is not necessary for a financial promotion,
PERG 8.14.27GRP
To be a sophisticated investor for the purposes of article 50, the recipient of a financial promotion must have a current certificate from an authorised person stating that he has enough knowledge to be able to understand the risks associated with the description of investment to which the financial promotion relates. Where the financial promotion is an outgoing electronic commerce communication3, the certificate may be signed by a person who is entitled, under the law of an EEA
PERG 8.14.28GRP
The exemption also requires that certain warnings are given to the potential investor. In this respect, article 50(3)(d) provides that the financial promotion must state that there is a significant risk of losing all monies invested or of incurring additional liability. In the FCA's view, these are alternative statements and whichever is the relevant statement should be included. If there is no risk of incurring additional liability the statement may simply say that there is a
PERG 8.14.37GRP
In the FCA's view, a main aim of the exemption (see PERG 8.14.35G (1)) is to remove from the scope of section 21 a financial promotion concerning the sale of a corporate business by a person who, either alone or with others, controls the business to another person who, either alone or with others, proposes to control the business.
PERG 8.14.40GRP
In the FCA's17 opinion, provided that the purpose of the transaction is for the buyer to acquire the necessary control, it is irrelevant who is the seller. The exemption specifically applies to financial promotions which are communicated on behalf of the parties or potential parties to the transaction.1717
PERG 8.14.41GRP
Several exemptions, including article 43 of the Financial Promotion Order (Members and creditors of certain bodies corporate), apply only in relation to relevant investments being shares or debentures or alternative debentures7 in the body corporate or a member of its group, or warrants or certificates representing certain securities relating to such shares or debentures or alternative debentures.7 In the FCA's view, an exchangeable debt security which is partly a debenture or
PERG 8.14.42GRP
The exemptions for bearer instruments (articles 41 and 42 of the Financial Promotion Order) relate to financial promotions made to or directed at persons entitled to bearer instruments. For clarity, the FCA takes the view that persons who hold bearer instruments through a clearing system such as Euroclear or Clearstream are persons entitled to those instruments for the purposes of articles 41 and 42.
SYSC 19D.3.2GRP
SYSC 12.1.13R(2)(dA) requires the firm to ensure that the risk management processes and internal control mechanisms at the level of any UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group of which a firm is a member, comply with the obligations in this section on a consolidated basis (or sub-consolidated basis).
SYSC 19D.3.3RRP
(1) This section applies in relation to dual-regulated firms Remuneration Code staff, except as set out in (3).(2) When establishing and applying the total remuneration policies for dual-regulated firms Remuneration Code staff, a firm must comply with this section in a way, and to the extent, that is appropriate to its size, internal organisation and the nature, the scope and the complexity of its activities (the dual-regulated firms remuneration principles proportionality rule).(3)
SYSC 19D.3.4RRP
(1) Dual-regulated firms Remuneration Code staff comprises:(a) an employee of a dual-regulated firm whose professional activities have a material impact on the firm’s risk profile, including any employee who is deemed to have a material impact on the firm’s risk profile in accordance with Regulation (EU) 604/2014 of 4 March 2014 (Regulatory technical standards to identify staff who are material risk takers); or(b) subject to (2) and (3), an employee of an overseas firm in SYSC
SYSC 19D.3.22GRP
The FCA would normally expect it to be appropriate for the ban on paying variable remuneration to members of the management body of a firm that benefits from exceptional government intervention to apply only to members of the management body who were in office at the time that the intervention was required.
SYSC 19D.3.24GRP
(1) This Remuneration Principle stresses the importance of risk adjustment in measuring performance, and the importance within that process of applying judgment and common sense. The FCA expects that a firm will apply qualitative judgements and common sense in the final decision about the performance-related components of variable remuneration pools. (2) A number of risk-adjustment techniques and measures are available, and a firm should choose those most appropriate to its circumstances.
SYSC 19D.3.33GRP
In the FCA’s view, circumstances in which a person will be using a personal hedging strategy include (and are not limited to) entering into an arrangement with a third party under which the third party will make payments, directly or indirectly, to that person that are linked to or commensurate with the amounts by which the person's remuneration is subject to reductions.
SYSC 19D.3.35GRP
(1) Taking account of the dual-regulated firms remuneration principles proportionality rule, the FCA does not generally consider it necessary for a firm to apply the rules in (2) where, in relation to an individual (X), both the following conditions are satisfied:(a) Condition 1 is that X’s variable remuneration is no more than 33% of total remuneration; and(b) Condition 2 is that X’s total remuneration is no more than £500,000.(2) The rules referred to in (1) are those relating
SYSC 19D.3.46GRP
(1) Guaranteed variable remuneration should be subject to the same requirements applicable to variable remuneration awarded by the firm including deferral, malus and clawback.(2) The FCA expects that guaranteed variable awards and retention awards should not be common practice for dual-regulated firms Remuneration Code staff and should be limited to rare, infrequent occurrences. The FCA expects a firm to provide prior notification to the FCA of any such proposed awards.
SYSC 19D.3.50RRP
A firm must ensure that any approval by its shareholders or owners or members, for the purposes of SYSC 19D.3.49R, is carried out in accordance with the following procedure: (1) the firm must give reasonable notice to all its shareholders or owners or members of its intention to seek approval of the proposed higher ratio;(2) the firm must make a detailed recommendation to all its shareholders or owners or members that includes:(a) the reasons for, and the scope of, the approval
SYSC 19D.3.51RRP
A firm must notify the FCA without delay of the decisions taken by its shareholders or members or owners including any approved higher maximum ratio.[Note: article 94(1)(g)(ii) of the CRD]
SYSC 19D.3.60GRP
(1) Deferred remuneration paid in:(a) shares or share-linked instruments should be made under a scheme which meets appropriate criteria, including risk adjustment of the performance measure used to determine the initial allocation of shares;(b) cash should also be subject to performance criteria.(2) The FCA would generally expect a firm to have a firm-wide policy (and group-wide policy, where appropriate) on deferral. The proportion deferred should generally rise with the ratio
SYSC 19D.3.62RRP
A firm must:(1) set specific criteria for the application of malus and clawback; and(2) ensure that the criteria for the application of malus and clawback in particular cover situations where the employee:(a) participated in, or was responsible for, conduct which resulted in significant losses to the firm; or(b) failed to meet appropriate standards of fitness and propriety.[Note: article 94(1)(n) of the CRD and Standards 6 and 9 of the FSB Compensation Standards][Note: The FSA
SYSC 19D.3.65GRP
The governing body (or, where appropriate, the remuneration committee) should approve performance adjustment policies, including the triggers under which adjustment would take place. The FCA may ask firms to provide a copy of their policies and expects firms to make adequate records of material decisions to operate the adjustments.
SYSC 19D.3.68GRP
(1) Sections 137H and 137I of the Act enable the FCA to make rules that render void any provision of an agreement that contravenes specified prohibitions in the dual-regulated firms Remuneration Code, and that provide for the recovery of any payment made, or other property transferred, in pursuance of such a provision.(2) SYSC 19D.3.66R and SYSC 19D.3.67R (together with SYSC 19D Annex 1) are:(a) rules referred to in (1) that render void provisions of an agreement that contravene
FEES 3.2.1RRP
A person in column (1) of the table in FEES 3.2.7 R37 as the relevant fee payer for a particular activity must pay to the FCA (in its own capacity or, if the fee is payable to the PRA, in its capacity as collection agent for the PRA)78 a fee for each application or request for vetting, or request for support relating to compatibility of its systems with 37FCA systems,7 or admission approval made, or notification or notice of exercise of a Treaty right given, or other matter
FEES 3.2.3BGRP
23If FEES 3.2.3AR (1)(a) applies to a fee payer, that fee payer would be expected to notify the FCA of these circumstances in advance of making its payment (and, in any event, no less than 7 days before the date on which the application for a Part 4A permission or the variation of a Part 4A permission is made) unless such notification is impossible in the circumstances, eg, there is a sudden technological failure.
FEES 3.2.4GRP
The FCA expects that a person seeking to become a recognised body or a designated professional body or to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges or accredited bodies 15will generally pay their respective fees by electronic credit transfer.
FEES 3.2.5GRP
(1) (a) 37The appropriate authorisation or registration 8fee is an integral part of an application for, or an application for a variation of, a Part 4A permission ,24 authorisation, registration or variation under the Payment Services Regulations or the Electronic Money Regulations, registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order80or notification or registration under the AIFMD UK regulation24.16248(b) 37 Any application or notification24 received by the37FCA without the accompanying
FEES 3.2.7RRP

Table of application, notification, vetting and other fees payable to the FCA32

31

31Part 1: Application, notification and vetting fees

31(1) Fee payer

(2) Fee payable (£)37

Due date

(a) Any applicant for Part 4A permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission) whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (ga) of this table26

(1) Unless (2) or (3) 80applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 which apply to that application.

When both (A) and (B) apply, 50% of the tariff payable under (1):34

(2) 50% of the tariff payable under (1) is payable when either (a) or (b) apply:

(a) the application is one referred to in paragraph p; or

(b) the application is a limited permission case under .

(A) the application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 6; and34

(B) the application is:34

(i) a straightforward case under paragraph 2(d) or 3(g) of FEES 3 Annex 1;

(ii) a moderately complex case under paragraph 2(e) or 3(h) of FEES 3 Annex 1; or

(iii) a limited permission case under paragraph 3(i) of FEES 3 Annex 1.

(3) If the applicant applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order at the same time as applying for a Part 4A permission, the fee payable is the higher of: 80

(i) the fee otherwise payable in (1) or (2); and 80

(ii) the fee payable in FEES 3 Annex 10AR. 80

134343434

On or before the application is made

(aa) A person who makes an application under section 24A of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 31 (Applications for a standard licence where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant application”)30

As (a) above less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant application.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

(b) Any Treaty firm that wishes to exercise a Treaty right to qualify for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act (Treaty rights) in respect of regulated activities for which it does not have an EEA right, except for a firm providing cross border services only4

(1) Where no certificate has been issued under paragraph 3(4) of Schedule 4 to the Act the fee payable is, in respect of a particular exercise, set out in FEES 3 Annex 1, part 4

(2) Where a certificate in (i) has been issued no fee is payable

On or before the notice of exercise is given

(c) Any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order

2,000

On or before the application is made

(d) Applicants for an authorisation order for, or recognition under section 272 of the Act27 of, a collective investment scheme

FEES 3 Annex 2R, part 227

27

On or before the application is made

(da) Applicants for the authorisation of an AIF as a UK ELTIF36

FEES 3 Annex 2R, part 2A36

On or before the date the application is made36

(e) The management company27 of a scheme making a notification under section 264 of the Act

2727

FEES 3 Annex 2R, part 327

27

On or before the date the application is made28

28(ea)

(i) An AIFM (other than a UK AIFM or an EEA AIFM with a branch in the UK) notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 57 of the AIFMD UK regulation

(ii) An AIFM notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 58 or 59 of the AIFMD UK regulation

FEES 3 Annex 2 R, part 4

On or before the date the notification is made

28(eb) An applicant for registration on the register of small registered UK AIFM which the FCA is required to maintain under regulation 10 of the AIFMD UK regulation

£750

On or before the date the application is made

(f) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body.

10,000

30 days after the order is granted

(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body:17

(i) under section 287 of the Act; or17

(ii) under regulation 2(1) of the RAP regulations17

78

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1

On or before the date the application is made26

26(ga) Any applicant for:

(i) a Part 4A permission to carry out the regulated activity of administering a specified benchmark; or35administering a specified benchmark for one or more specified benchmarks or;35

(ii) varying its Part 4A permission to carry out the regulated activity of administering a specified benchmark for one or more specified benchmarks35

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(h) Any applicant for recognition as an ROIE78 under section 287 or section 292 of the Act

7878

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(i) [deleted]35

35		 35 35

(j) Applicant for approval as sponsor (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(k) [deleted]35

35		 35 35

(l) Under the listing rules, an issuer involved in specific events or transactions during the year where documentation is subject to a transaction vetting

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 1, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (v) or super transaction under category 7(q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA

(m) Under the prospectus rules, an issuer or person requesting approval or vetting of the documents arising in relation to specific events or transactions that it might be involved in during the year

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 2, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (v) or super transaction under category 7(q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA

(n) Applicants to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges

50,000

On or before the date the application is made

2(o) In relation to a BIPRU firm, either:29

(i) a firm applying to the FCA29 for permission to use one of the advanced prudential calculation approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6 R (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches or (in the case of any application being made for such permission to the FCA29 as EEA consolidated supervisor under the (transposing parts of the BCD and CAD, as applicable under article 95(2) of the EUCRR29)) any firm making such an application ;5 or

(ii) in the case of an application to 5a Home State regulator other than the FCA295for the use of the Internal Ratings Based approach and the Home State regulator requesting the FCA's29 assistance in accordance with the Capital Requirements Regulations 2006 (transposing parts of the BCD and CAD, as applicable under article 95(2) of the EUCRR29), any firm to which the FCA29 would have to apply any decision to permit the use of that approach.5

1122957829578295782978297829

(1) Unless5 (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6.5

(2) (a) Unless5 (b) applies a1firm submitting a second application for the permission or5guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6, but only in respect of that second application

(b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission5 based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.1

(c) No fee is payable where the Home State regulator has requested the assistance described in paragraph (o)(ii) of column 1 except in the cases specified in 5FEES 3 Annex 6.2

52512555785785

Where the firm has made an application directly to the FCA29, on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the FCA29 notifies the firm that its EEA parent's Home State regulator has requested assistance.229

27829782978

29(oa) Either:

(i) a firm applying to the 37FCA

for permission to use one of the internal approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6A (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches or (in the case of any application being made for such permission to the 37FCA

as consolidating supervisor under the EU CRR) any firm making such an application; or

(ii) in the case of an application to the consolidating supervisor other than the 37FCA

for the use of the IRB approach and the consolidating supervisor requesting the 37FCA's

assistance in accordance with the EU CRR, any firm to which the 37FCA would have to apply any decision to permit the use of that approach.

3737373737

(1) Unless (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6A.

(2) (a) Unless (b) applies a firm submitting a second application for the permission or guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6A, but only in respect of that second application.

(b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.

(c) No fee is payable where the consolidating supervisor has requested the assistance described in paragraph (oa)(ii) of column 1.

37

Where the firm has made an application directly to the 37FCA , on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the 37FCA notifies the firm that its EEA parent's consolidating supervisor has requested assistance.

3737

(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part 4A permission whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (ga) of this table26

(1) Unless (2), (2A), (3), (3A), (3B) or 3(C) 80 applies, if the proposed new1 business of the firm would1 fall within one or more activity groups specified in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 1AR not applicable before the application1, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37 which apply to that application.

(2) Subject to (2A) below, if the firm's application includes an application for a Part 4A permission to carry on a new credit-related regulated activity, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37

that would be payable under (1) above or, if higher, 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37

that would be payable in relation to the new credit-related regulated activity30.37

(2A) If an applicant which already has a Part 4A permission to carry on a credit-related regulated activity exclusively applies for a Part 4A permission to carry on a new credit-related regulated activity, that is specified in Part 3 of FEES 3 Annex 1R37

in the straightforward category (or if it exclusively applies for a number of such permissions), the fee is £25030.37

(3) If the firm is in the A.1 fee-block at the date of the application and the variation involves adding any of the regulated activities of meeting of repayment claims or managing dormant account funds (including the investment of such funds), the fee is 50% of the fee in FEES 3 Annex 1 R that applies to that application11

(3A) If the applicant had a limited permission prior to the application to vary its Part 4A permission, 100% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37

which apply to that application30.37

(3B) If the applicant has a limited permission and its application exclusively relates to another limited permission, the fee is 030

(3C) If the applicant applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order at the same time as it applies for a variation of its Part 4A permission, the fee is the highest of the fees set out in FEES 3 Annex 10AR and the amount otherwise payable in (1), (2), (2A), (3), (3A) or (3B), or (4).80

(4) 11 In all other cases, other than applications by credit unions, the fee payable is 250 for firms which are not, or are not seeking to become, a PRA-authorised person, and 125 for firms which are, or are seeking to become, a PRA-authorised person,78 unless the variation involves only the reduction (and no other increases) in the scope of a Part 4A permission in which case no fee is payable.1

30308080178783778378080371373030233737371137

On or before the date the application is made

30(pa) A person who makes an application under section 30(1) of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 33 (Variations at request of licensee where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant variation application”)

As (a) or 31(p) above, less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant variation application.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

2(q) A super7transaction, being one where:

(i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 1.5 billion and it is a new applicant for a premium listing1379 under the listing rules, or involved in a reverse or hostile takeover or a significant restructuring; or

(ii) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 5 billion and is involved in a class 1 transaction,7 a transaction requiring vetting of an equity prospectus or equivalent document or a transaction requiring vetting of a prospectus or listing particulars in relation to a Depositary Receipt.22

713797227

50,000

On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA.3

33

2(r) Providers of reporting or trade matching systems applying for recognition under MiFID as an Approved Reporting Mechanism.

100,0006

6

Having received its application, within 30 days after the FCA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.6

56

5(s) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme, a transferor.

Note - for the purpose of this paragraph an insurance business transfer scheme consists of a single transferor and a single transferee. Where however such a scheme is part of a single larger scheme, that larger scheme is treated as a single insurance business transfer scheme. If an insurance business transfer scheme includes more than one transferor in accordance with this paragraph, the transferors are liable to pay the fee under column (2) jointly.

Either (1) or (2) as set out below:

(1) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme involving long term insurance business, 9,25037; or

(2) in the case of an insurance business transfer scheme not involving long term insurance business, 5,000.

7777377777377737

On or before any application is made for the appointment of a person as an independent expert.

37

6(t) A firm, a third party acting on a firm's behalf, an operator of a regulated market or an operator of an MTF applying to the FCA to report transaction reports directly to the FCA.

20

100,000

Having received its application, within 30 days after the FCA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.

(u) [deleted]34

34		 34 34

(v) A significant transaction, being one where:

(i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 500 million and is producing an equity prospectus or equivalent document, a prospectus or listing particulars22 in relation to a Depository Receipt or a document in relation to a class 1 transaction; or

(ii) the issuer is producing a document for vetting in relation to a reverse takeover, a hostile takeover or a significant restructuring.

A significant transaction does not include a super transaction.

22

20,000

On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA.

[deleted]35

35		 35 35

(x)

(i) An issuer or person who:

(1) is a fee payer under one or more of the categories set out in (ii); and

(2) requests the FCA's approval or vetting of a document that includes a mineral expert's report.

(ii) The categories are (1), (m) (q), and (v) of this table.

(iii) A fee under this category is payable in addition to any fee payable under the categories set out in (ii).

5,000

On or before the date the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA.8

8(y) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised payment institution under regulation 5 of the Payment Services Regulations

The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8 which apply to that application.

Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in

FEES 3 Annex 8R

On or before the date the application is made.

(z) An application by a small payment institution for authorisation as an authorised payment institution because regulation 15 of the Payment Services Regulations applies

The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application.

On or before the date the application is made.

(za) An applicant for registration as a small payment institution under regulation 12 of the Payment Services Regulations

FEES 3 Annex 8R, paragraph (1). Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 8R.

On or before the date the application is made.

(zb) An authorised payment institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Payment Services Regulations.

(1) If the payment services carried on by the authorised payment institution prior to the variation only fall within paragraph (f) or (g) or (h) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and any of the payment services in paragraphs (a) to (e) of that Schedule will apply after variation, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application.

(2) Where the

authorised payment institution:(i) already has authorisation to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other services in (a) to (g); or

(ii) has authorisation to provide payment services in either paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to extend its authorisation to include the other paragraph ((f) or (g));

the fee payable is 250 irrespective of the number of agents it has.

(3) In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable.

On or before the date the application is made.

(zc) A small payment institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Payment Services Regulations

(1) If the payment services carried on by the small payment institution prior to the variation only fall within paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and any of the payment services in paragraphs (a) to (e) of that Schedule will apply after variation, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8Rwhich apply to that application.

(2) Where the small payment institution:

(i) is already registered to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other of the services in (a) to (g); or

(ii) is registered to provide payment services in either paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to extend its registration to include the other paragraph ((f) or (g));the fee payable is 250 irrespective of the number of agents it has.

(2)

(3) In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable.

On or before the date the application is made.

A financial institution notifying the FSAFCA in accordance with regulation 121(2)(a) of the Payment Services Regulations.

50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3Annex 8R, paragraphs (2) to (5) which apply to that application.

On or before the date the application is made.

(ze) Any person to which the Special Project Fee for restructuring applies under FEES 3 Annex 9.12

12

Special Project Fee for restructuring in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 9 .

30 days of the date of the invoice.9

(zf) [deleted]78

78		 78 91678

16(zg) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution under regulation 5 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zh) An applicant for registration as a small electronic money institution under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zi) An application by a small electronic money institution for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution14because regulation 16 of the Electronic Money Regulations applies.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zj) An authorised electronic money institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zk) A small electronic money institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

15(zl) An applicant for recognition as an accredited body.

2,500

On or before the date the application is made.18

18(zm) An issuer applying for registration of a regulated covered bond.

(1) Unless (2) applies, 45,000.

(2) In the case of a proposed covered bond or programme where the assets in the asset pool will consist primarily of UK residential mortgages, 25,000.

On or before the date the application is made.

18(zn) An issuer who proposes to make a material change to the contractual terms of a regulated covered bond under RCB 3.5.4 D.

6,500

On or before the date the notification under RCB 3.5.4 D is made.21

21(zo) In the case of persons in respect of which the FCA has given notice of its intention to take, or appoint a competent person to take, any steps under CONRED 2.5.12R, either:

(i) a Firm (as defined in CONRED 2.1.1R(1); or

(ii) a person falling within CONRED 2.1.2R(1).

An amount equal to:

(1) a sum determined by the number of hours, or part of an hour, taken by the FCA in relation to work conducted in taking steps under recorded on the FCA's systems, multiplied by the rate in FEES 3 Annex 9 (11)R; or

(2) any amount invoiced to the FCA by a competent person in relation to any work carried out by that competent person in connection with its appointment by the FCA under CONRED 2.5.12R.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

78(zp) A person in respect of which the FCA37 has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to provide it with a report pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act and SUP 5.2.

37

Any amount invoiced to the FCA37 by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the FCA37 pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act.

37

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

78(zq) A person in respect of which the FCA37 has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to collect or update information pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act .

37

Any amount invoiced to the FCA37 by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the FCA 37 pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act.

3737

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.33

33(zr) An applicant for approval as a primary information provider.

1,500

On or before the application for approval is made.

30(zs) Applicant for FCA permission for an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) and/or money paid or property transferred under and agreement to be retained under 3128A(3)(b) of the Act

(1) If the application is for permission for an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) of the Act and for permission for money paid or property transferred under an agreement to be retained under section 28A(3)(b) of the Act, the fee is 31£3,500 per type of agreement specified in the application.30

(2) If the application is for permission for an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) of the Act only, the fee is £3,500 per type of agreement specified in the application.31

(3) If the application is for permission for money paid or property transferred under an agreement to be retained under section 28A(3)(b) of the Act only, the fee is £3,500 per type of agreement specified in the application.31

Where there are a number of agreements of the same type, only one fee is payable in respect of those agreements. A number of agreements are of the same type when those agreements are entered into on the same terms and conditions.

On or before the date the application is made.

(zt) An applicant for registration in the Financial Services Register under article 8(1) of the MCD Order. 80

Unless (1), or (2) applies, the fee as set out in FEES 3 Annex 10A. 80

(1) If the applicant is applying for a Part 4A permission at the same time as it applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, the fee payable in row (a), column (2) paragraph (3) of this Table. 80

(2) If the applicant is applying for a variation of a Part 4A permission at the same time as it applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, the fee payable in row (p), column 2 paragraph (3)(c) of this Table. 80

On or before the application is made.80

32Part 2: Other fees

(1) Fee payer

(2) Fee payable

(3) Due date

(a)

(i) An issuer which has not made public its annual financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.1.3 R.

(ii) An issuer which has not made public its half-yearly financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.2.2 R (2).

(i) Where the issuer has not made public its annual financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.1.3 R, £250 in respect of that annual financial report.

(ii) Where the issuer has not made public its half-yearly financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.2.2 R (2), £250 in respect of that half-yearly financial report.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

[Note:Guidance on how a firm liable to pay a fee under both rows (s) and (ze) of this table for the same transaction should expect to be treated is set out in FEES 3 Annex 11 G.]19

FIT 1.3.1GRP
The appropriate regulator will have regard to a number of factors when assessing the fitness and propriety of a person to perform a particular controlled function. The most important considerations will be the person's:(1) honesty, integrity and reputation;(2) competence and capability; and(3) financial soundness.
FIT 1.3.2GRP
In assessing fitness and propriety, the appropriate regulator will also take account of the activities of the firm for which the controlled function is or is to be performed, the permission held by that firm and the markets within which it operates.
FIT 1.3.3GRP
The criteria listed in FIT 2.1 to FIT 2.3 are guidance and will be applied in general terms when the appropriate regulator is determining a person's fitness and propriety. It would be impossible to produce a definitive list of all the matters which would be relevant to a particular determination.
FIT 1.3.4GRP
If a matter comes to the appropriate regulator's attention which suggests that the person might not be fit and proper, the appropriate regulator will take into account how relevant and how important it is.
FIT 1.3.5GRP
During the application process, the appropriate regulator may discuss the assessment of the candidate's fitness and propriety informally with the firm making the application and may retain any notes of those discussions.
SUP 8A.3.1GRP
The FCA intends to include any direction or determination made by the FCA waiving, varying or disapplying CCA requirements in the public register under section 347 of the Act.
SUP 8A.3.2DRP
A firm wishing to apply for a direction under section 60(3) of the CCA, must complete the application form in SUP 8A Annex 1 D and submit it to the FCA in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R, SUP 15.7.5A R, SUP 15.7.6A G and SUP 15.7.9 G.
SUP 8A.3.3DRP
A firm wishing to apply for a determination under section 64(4) of the CCA must apply to the FCA in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R, SUP 15.7.5A R, SUP 15.7.6A G and SUP 15.7.9 G.
SUP 8A.3.4DRP
A firm wishing to apply for a direction under section 101(8) of the CCA must complete the application form in SUP 8A Annex 2 D and the information form in SUP 8A Annex 3 D, and submit them to the FCA in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R, SUP 15.7.5A R, SUP 15.7.6A G and SUP 15.7.9 G.
SUP 8A.3.5GRP
The FCA will acknowledge an application promptly and, if necessary, will seek further information from the firm. The time taken to determine an application will depend on the issues it raises. A firm should make it clear in the application if it needs a decision within a specific time.1
SUP 8A.3.6GRP
The FCA will treat a firm's application as withdrawn if it does not hear from the firm within 20 business days of sending a communication which requests or requires a response from the firm. The FCA will not do this if the firm has made it clear to the FCA in some other way that it intends to pursue the application.
SUP 8A.3.7GRP
If the FCA decides not to give a direction or a determination, it will give reasons for the decision.
SUP 8A.3.8GRP
A firm may withdraw its application at any time up to the giving of the direction or determination. In doing so, a firm should give the FCA its reasons for withdrawing the application.
LR 3.2.1GRP
The FCA will maintain the official list on its website.
LR 3.2.2RRP
An applicant for admission must apply to the FCA by:(1) submitting, in final form:(a) the documents described in LR 3.3 in the case of an application in respect of equity shares;44(b) the documents described in LR 3.4 in the case of an application in respect of debt securities or other securities;(c) the documents described in LR 3.5 in the case of a block listing;(2) submitting all additional documents, explanations and information as required by the FCA;(3) submitting verification
LR 3.2.3GRP
Before submitting the documents referred to in LR 3.2.2 R (1), an applicant should contact the FCA to agree the date on which the FCA will consider the application.3
LR 3.2.4RRP
All documents must be submitted to the Issuer Management5at the FCA's address.5
LR 3.2.5GRP
The FCA will admit securities to listing if all relevant documents required byLR 3.2.2 R2 have been submitted to the FCA.2
LR 3.2.6GRP
When considering an application for admission to listing, the FCA may:(1) carry out any enquiries and request any further information which it considers appropriate, including consulting with other regulators or exchanges;(2) request that an applicant, or its specified representative answer questions and explain any matter the FCA considers relevant to the application for listing;(3) take into account any information which it considers appropriate in relation to the application
LR 3.2.7GRP
The admission becomes effective only when the FCA's decision to admit the securities to listing has been announced by being either:(1) disseminated by a RIS; or(2) posted on a notice board designated by the FCA should the electronic systems be unavailable.
REC 3.8.1RRP
A UK recognised body must give the FCA1:1(1) a copy of its annual report and accounts; and(2) a copy of the consolidated annual report and accounts: (a) of any group in which the UK recognised body is a subsidiary undertaking; or(b) (if the UK recognised body is not a subsidiary undertaking in any group) of any group of which the UK recognised body is a parent undertaking;no later than the time specified for the purpose of this rule in REC 3.8.2 R.
REC 3.8.2RRP
The time specified for the purpose of REC 3.8.1 R is the latest of:(1) four months after the end of the financial year to which the document which is to be given to the FCA1relates; or1(2) the time when the documents described in REC 3.8.1 R (1) or REC 3.8.1 R (2)(b) are sent to the members or shareholders of the UK recognised body; or (3) the time when the document described in REC 3.8.1 R (2)(a) are sent to the shareholders in a parent undertaking of the group to which that
REC 3.8.3RRP
Where an audit committee of a UK recognised body has prepared a report in relation to any period or any matter relating to any relevant function of that UK recognised body, the UK recognised body must immediately give the FCA1a copy of that report.1
REC 3.8.4RRP
A UK recognised body must give the FCA1a copy of:1(1) its quarterly management accounts; or (2) its monthly management accounts;within one month of the end of the period to which they relate.
REC 3.8.5GRP
A UK recognised body is not required to provide quarterly and monthly management accounts in respect of the same period, but management accounts (whether quarterly or monthly) should be submitted for all periods. A UK recognised body may choose whichever method is the more suitable for it, but where it intends to change from providing monthly to quarterly management accounts (or from quarterly to monthly management accounts), it should inform the FCA1 of that fact.1
REC 3.8.6RRP
A UK recognised body must give the FCA1:1(1) a statement of its anticipated income, expenditure and cashflow for each financial year; and(2) an estimated balance sheet showing its position as it is anticipated at the end of each financial year;before the beginning of that financial year.
REC 3.8.7RRP
Where the accounting reference date of a UK recognised body is changed, that body must immediately give notice of that event to the FCA1and inform it of the new accounting reference date.1
COLL 11.6.1GRP
(1) Section 258A(1) and (2) and section 261Z(1) and (2)1 (Winding up or merger of master UCITS) of the Act, in implementation of article 60 of the UCITS Directive, provide1 that where a master UCITS is wound up, for whatever reason, the FCA is to direct the manager and trustee of any AUT or the authorised contractual scheme manager and depositary of any ACS1 which is a feeder UCITS of the master UCITS to wind up the scheme, unless one of the following conditions is satisfied:1(a)
COLL 11.6.3RRP
Where the authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme that is a feeder UCITS is notified that its master UCITS is to be wound up, it must submit to the FCA the following:(1) where the authorised fund manager of the feeder UCITS intends to invest at least 85% in value of the scheme property in units of another master UCITS:(a) its application for approval under section 283A of the Act for that investment;(b) where applicable, its notice under section 251 (Alteration of schemes and
COLL 11.6.4RRP
(1) The information in COLL 11.6.3 R must be submitted no later than two months after the date on which the master UCITS has informed the authorised fund manager of the feeder UCITS of the binding decision to be wound up.(2) By way of derogation from (1), where the master UCITS has informed the authorised fund manager of the feeder UCITS of the binding decision to be wound up more than five months before the date at which the winding up will start, the authorised fund manager
COLL 11.6.5RRP
Where the authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme that is a feeder UCITS is notified that the master UCITS is to merge with another UCITS scheme or EEA UCITS scheme or divide into two or more such schemes, it must submit to the FCA the following:(1) where the authorised fund manager of the feeder UCITS intends it to continue to be a feeder UCITS of the same master UCITS:(a) its application under section 283A of the Act, for approval;(b) where applicable, a notice under section
COLL 11.6.7RRP
(1) The information in COLL 11.6.5 R must be submitted to the FCA no later than one month after the date on which the authorised fund manager of the feeder UCITS has received the information of the planned merger or division in accordance with regulation 13(6) of the UCITS Regulations 2011.(2) By way of derogation from (1), where the master UCITS provides the information referred to in, or comparable with, COLL 7.7.10 R (Information to be given to Unitholders) to the authorised
COLL 11.6.8GRP
Regulation 12(4) (Right of redemption) of the UCITS Regulations 2011 provides that where a master UCITS merges with another scheme, the master UCITS must enable its feeder UCITS to repurchase or redeem all the units of the master UCITS in which they have invested before the consequences of the merger become effective, unless the FCA approves the continued investment by the feeder UCITS in a master UCITS resulting from the merger.
COLL 11.6.9RRP
(1) Where:(a) the authorised fund manager of a feeder UCITS has submitted the documents required under COLL 11.6.5R (2) and (3); and(b) does not receive the necessary approvals from the FCA by the business day preceding the last day on which the authorised fund manager of the feeder UCITS can request repurchase or redemption of its units in the master UCITS;the authorised fund manager of the feeder UCITS must exercise the right to repurchase or redeem its units in the master UCITS
COLL 11.6.10RRP
Where:(1) the FCA approves an application under sections 283A (Master-feeder structures), 252A or 261S1 (Proposal to convert to a non-feeder UCITS) of the Act or regulation 22A of the OEIC Regulations that arises as a result of the winding-up, merger or division of the master UCITS (other than an application pursuant to COLL 11.6.5R (1)); and1(2) the authorised fund manager of the feeder UCITS holds or receives cash in accordance with COLL 11.6.9R (4) or as a result of a winding-up;the
COLL 11.6.11GRP
COLL 11.6.10 R gives effect to sections 283A(4), 252A(8) and 261S(8)1 of the Act and regulation 22A(4) of the OEIC Regulations which require the FCA to impose certain conditions when approving the re-investment of cash received from a master UCITS which has been wound up.1
COLL 11.6.12RRP
Where the authorised fund manager of a feeder UCITS has submitted the documents required under COLL 11.6.3R (1), COLL 11.6.3R (2), COLL 11.6.5R (1), COLL 11.6.5R (2) or COLL 11.6.5R (3) and has received written notice of any required approvals from the FCA, it must:(1) inform the master UCITS of those approvals; and(2) in the case of the required approvals received in respect of documents submitted under COLL 11.6.3 R (1) and COLL 11.6.5 R (2), take the necessary measures to comply
COLL 11.6.13RRP
Where the authorised fund manager of a feeder UCITS gives notice to the FCA under section 251 or section 261Q1 of the Act or regulation 21 of the OEIC Regulations that it intends to wind up the scheme, it must inform:(1) the unitholders of the feeder UCITS; and(2) where notice is given under COLL 11.6.5R (4) (Application for approval by a feeder UCITS where a master UCITS merges or divides), the authorised fund manager of the master UCITS;of its intention without undue delay.[Note:
REC 3.26.1GRP
1Under section 300B(1) of the Act (Duty to notify proposal to make regulatory provision), a UK RIE3 that proposes to make any regulatory provision must give written notice of the proposal to the FCA4without delay.344
REC 3.26.2GRP
1Under section 300B(2) of the Act, the FCA4may, by rules under section 293 (Notification requirements):4(1) 1specify descriptions of regulatory provision in relation to which, or circumstances in which, the duty in section 300B(1) does not apply, or(2) 1provide that the duty applies only to specified descriptions of regulatory provision or in specified circumstances.
REC 3.26.3GRP
1Under section 300B(3) of the Act, the FCA4may also by rules under section 293: 4(1) 1make provision as to the form and contents of the notice required, and(2) 1require the UK recognised body to provide such information relating to the proposal as may be specified in the rules or as the FCA4may reasonably require.4
REC 3.26.5RRP
1A notice under section 300B(1) of the Act of a proposal to make a regulatory provision must be in writing and state expressly that it is a notice for the purpose of that section. To be effective, a notice must: (1) 1contain full particulars of the proposal to make a regulatory provision which is the subject of that notice; and(2) 1either be accompanied by sufficient supporting information to enable the FCA4to assess the purpose and effect of the proposed regulatory provision
REC 3.26.6GRP
1In determining whether a UK RIE3has provided sufficient supporting information, the FCA4may have regard to the extent to which the information includes:44(1) 1clearly expressed reasons for the proposed regulatory provision; and(2) 1an appropriately detailed assessment of the likely costs and benefits of the proposed regulatory provision.
REC 3.26.7RRP
1A UK RIE3must provide such additional information in connection with a notice under section 300B(1) of the Act as the FCA4may reasonably require.344
REC 3.26.8GRP
1Where a UK RIE3wishes to give notice to the FCA4for the purposes of section 300B(1) of the Act, it should in the first instance inform its usual supervisory contact at the FCA.43444
REC 3.26.9GRP
1The FCA4expects that an advanced draft of any consultation document a UK RIE3intends to publish in connection with a proposed regulatory provision could provide some or all of the information described in REC 3.26.5 R.3434