Related provisions for GENPRU 1.1.2B

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COND 1.1A.1GRP
(1) Section 55C of the Financial Services Act 2012 (Power to amend Schedule 6) gave HM Treasury the power to amend Schedule 6 of the Act. HM Treasury exercised this power by making The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Threshold Conditions) Order 2013 which entered into force on 1 April 2013 (the "TC Order"). The TC Order's main result is the creation of four sets of threshold conditions, namely:(i) conditions for firms authorised and regulated by the FCA only (paragraphs
COND 1.1A.3GRP
(1) As a result of the new legal framework for threshold conditions described in COND 1.1A.1G (1), PRA-authorised persons and firms seeking to become PRA-authorised persons are subject to two sets of threshold conditions:(i) the FCA-specific conditions referred to in COND 1.1A.1G (1)(ii)and(ii) one of the two PRA-specific conditions referred to in COND 1.1A.1G (1)(iii) or (iv), depending on the PRA-regulated activities which the PRA-authorised person or firm carries on, or is
COND 1.1A.4GRP
COND applies to incoming EEA firms and incoming Treaty firms as set out below:(1) for an incoming EEA firm or an incoming Treaty firm which does not carry on any PRA-regulated activities, FCAthreshold conditions 2C to 2F apply; and(2) for an incoming EEA firm or an incoming Treaty firm which carries on a PRA-regulated activity, FCAthreshold conditions 3B to 3E apply.FCAthreshold conditions apply to incoming EEA firms and incoming Treaty firms only in as far as relevant to the
APER 4.1.3ERP
Deliberately misleading (or attempting to mislead) by act or omission: (1) a client; or(2) his firm (or its auditors or an actuary appointed by his firm under SUP 4 (Actuaries)1); or1(3) the FCA or the PRA;66falls within APER 4.1.2 E.
APER 4.1.4ERP
Behaviour of the type referred to in APER 4.1.3 E includes, but is not limited to, deliberately:(1) falsifying documents;(2) misleading a client about the risks of an investment;(3) misleading a client about the charges or surrender penalties of investment products;(4) misleading a client about the likely performance of investment products by providing inappropriate projections of future investment returns;(5) misleading a client by informing him that products require only a single
APER 4.1.6ERP
Deliberately failing to inform, without reasonable cause:(1) a customer; or(2) his firm (or its auditors or an actuary appointed by his firm under SUP 4 (Actuaries)1); or1(3) the FCA or the PRA;66of the fact that their understanding of a material issue is incorrect, despite being aware of their misunderstanding, falls within APER 4.1.2 E.
SYSC 12.1.9GRP
For the purposes of SYSC 12.1.8 R, the question of whether the risk management processes and internal control mechanisms are adequate, sound and appropriate should be judged in the light of the nature, scale and complexity of the group's business and of the risks that the group bears. Unless the firm is a Solvency II firm, risk 12management processes must include the stress testing and scenario analysis required by GENPRU 1.2.42 R and GENPRU 1.2.49R (1)(b).124
SYSC 12.1.11RRP
Where this section applies with respect to a financial conglomerate, the risk management processes referred to in SYSC 12.1.8R (2) or, for a Solvency II firm, the risk management system referred to in the PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, rule 3,12 must include:(1) sound governance and management processes, which must include the approval and periodic review by the appropriate managing bodies within the financial conglomerate of the strategies and
SYSC 12.1.12RRP
Where this section applies with respect to a financial conglomerate, the internal control mechanisms referred to in SYSC 12.1.8R (2) or, for a Solvency II firm, the internal control system referred to in the PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, rule 3,12 must include:(1) mechanisms that are adequate to identify and measure all material risks incurred by members of the financial conglomerate and appropriately relate capital in the financial conglomerate
SYSC 3.2.10GRP
(1) Depending on the nature, scale and complexity of its business, it may be appropriate for a firm to have a separate risk assessment function responsible for assessing the risks that the firm faces and advising the governing body and senior managers on them.(2) The organisation and responsibilities of a risk assessment function should be documented. The function should be adequately resourced and staffed by an appropriate number of competent staff who are sufficiently independent
SYSC 3.2.14GRP
(1) SYSC 3.2.13 G includes assessing an individual's honesty, and competence. This assessment should normally be made at the point of recruitment. An individual's honesty need not normally be revisited unless something happens to make a fresh look appropriate.(2) Any assessment of an individual's suitability should take into account the level of responsibility that the individual will assume within the firm. The nature of this assessment will generally differ depending upon whether
SYSC 3.2.16GRP
9(1) Depending on the nature, scale and complexity of its business, it may be appropriate for a firm to delegate much of the task of monitoring the appropriateness and effectiveness of its systems and controls to an internal audit function. An internal audit function should have clear responsibilities and reporting lines to an audit committee or appropriate senior manager, be adequately resourced and staffed by competent individuals, be independent of the day-to-day activities
SYSC 3.2.19GRP
A firm, other than a Solvency II firm,15 should have in place appropriate arrangements, having regard to the nature, scale and complexity of its business, to ensure that it can continue to function and meet its regulatory obligations in the event of unforeseen interruption. These arrangements should be regularly updated and tested to ensure their effectiveness. Solvency II firms are subject to the business continuity requirements in PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions
SUP 10A.7.4GRP
Generally, in relation to a UK establishment of an overseas firm or a firm which is part of an overseas group, where an overseas manager’s responsibilities in relation to the United Kingdom are strategic only, he will not need to be an FCA-approved person. However, where, in accordance with SYSC 3 or SYSC 4 to SYSC 10, he is responsible for implementing that strategy in the United Kingdom, and has not delegated that responsibility to a senior manager in the United Kingdom, he
SUP 10A.7.7GRP
As explained in SUP 10A.11 (Minimising overlap with the PRA approved persons regime), the application of the apportionment and oversight function is sometimes disapplied for a PRA-authorised person.
SUP 4.2.1GRP
Section 340 of the Act gives the PRA6 power to make rules requiring an authorised person, or an authorised person falling into a specified class, to appoint an actuary3. Section 340 further empowers the PRA6 to make rules governing the manner, timing and notification of such an appointment and, where an appointment is not made, for the PRA6 to make an appointment on the firm's behalf. The rule-making powers of the PRA and FCA6 under section 340 of the Act also extend to an actuary's3
SUP 4.2.3GRP
The functions3 described by SUP 4.2.2 G (1) are performed by one or more actuaries who are3 required to hold office continuously and must be approved persons3. Solvency II firms are required to have an actuarial function. Solvency II firms are not required to appoint an external actuary to fulfil the actuarial function for the purposes of rule 6 of the PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, but they must do so if they do not have the internal capability
SUP 4.2.6GRP
3In making appointments under this chapter and in allocating duties to actuaries, firms are reminded of their obligation under SYSC 2.1.1 R or rule 2.2(2) of the PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business4 to maintain a clear and appropriate apportionment of significant responsibilities so that it is clear who has which of those responsibilities and that the business and affairs of the firm can be adequately monitored and controlled by the directors, relevant
APER 4.4.1AGRP
3The Statement of Principle 4 (see APER 2.1A.3 P) is in the following terms: "An approved person must deal with the FCA, the PRA and other regulators in an open and cooperative way and must disclose appropriately any information of which the FCA or the PRA would reasonably expect notice."
APER 4.4.2AGRP
3For the purpose of this Statement of Principle, regulators in addition to the FCA and the PRA are those which have recognised jurisdiction in relation to regulated activities and a power to call for information from the approved person in connection with his accountable function or (in the case of an individual performing an accountable significant-influence function) in connection with the business for which he is responsible. This may include an exchange or an overseas r
APER 4.4.4ERP
Failing to report promptly in accordance with his firm's internal procedures (or if none exist direct to the regulator concerned),3 information which it would be reasonable to assume would be of material significance to theregulator concerned,3 whether in response to questions or otherwise, falls within APER 4.4.3 E. The regulator concerned is:33(1) the FCA if it would be reasonable to assume that it would be of material significance to it;3(2) the PRA if it would be reasonable
SYSC 1.1A.1GRP

1The application of this sourcebook is summarised at a high level in the following table. The detailed application is cut back in SYSC 1 Annex 1 and in the text of each chapter.

Type of firm

Applicable chapters

Insurer

Chapters 2, 3, 12 5 to 18, 213

5

Managing agent

Chapters 2, 3, 11, 12, 18, 213

Society

Chapters 2, 3, 12, 18, 213

Every other firm

Chapters 4 to 12, 18, 19D, 216

6244636

Firms that SYSC 19D applies to should also refer to the Remuneration part of the PRA Rulebook.

SYSC 1.1A.1AGRP

6The application of this sourcebook to firms that are not PRA-authorised persons is summarised at a high level in the following table. The detailed application is cut back in SYSC 1 Annex 1 and in the text of each chapter.

Type of firm

Applicable chapters

Full-scope UK AIFM

Chapter 19B, 21

BIPRU firm (including a third-country BIPRU firm)

Chapters 4 to 10, 12, 18, 19C, 21

IFPRU investment firm (including an overseas firm that would have been an IFPRU investment firm if it had been a UK domestic firm)

Chapters 4 to 10, 12, 18, 19A, 21

SYSC 1.1A.2GRP
21The provisions in SYSC should be read in conjunction with GEN 2.2.23 R to GEN 2.2.25 G. In particular:(1) Provisions made by both the FCA and PRA may contain obligations for or references to FCA-authorised persons. GEN 2.2.23 R limits the application of those provisions so that the PRA will only apply them in respect of PRA-authorised persons and not to such FCA-authorised persons as are included within the provision.(2) Provisions made by both the FCA and PRA may be applied
COBS 20.1A.4RRP
A Solvency II firm effecting or carrying out with-profits insurance business must identify the assets relating to all the business written in, or transferred into, each with-profits fund which it is required to hold under COBS 20.1A.5 R or PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: With Profits rule 2.1.
COBS 20.1A.5RRP
A Solvency II firm must ensure that it holds assets in each of its with-profits funds of a value at least sufficient to cover the "with-profits policy liabilities" defined in the PRA Rulebook: Glossary and as required by PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: With Profits rule 2.1, and any other liabilities in respect of all of the business written in, or transferred into, that with-profits fund.
COBS 20.1A.6RRP
A Solvency II firm must maintain separate accounting records for each of its with-profits funds. The accounting records must identify:(1) all of the assets of that with-profits fund;(2) the best estimate component of technical provisions for the with-profits policies written in, or transferred into, that with-profits fund;(3) the best estimate component of technical provisions for the non-profit insurance contracts written in, or transferred into, that with-profits fund;(4) any
COND 2.2.1BGRP
5Paragraph 2B of Schedule 6 to the Act sets out the location of offices threshold condition for firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, regulated activities which do not include a PRA-regulated activity.
COND 2.2.1CGRP
5The FCA is not responsible for the location of offices threshold condition for firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, regulated activities which include a PRA-regulated activity.
COND 2.2.2GRP
6Paragraph 2B(1) of Schedule 6 to the Act implements article 7(1)(d) of the UCITS Directive, paragraphs 2B(1) to 2B(23) of Schedule 6 to the Act implement article 5(4) of MiFID, paragraph 2B(4) of Schedule 6 to the Act implements article 2.9 of the Insurance Mediation Directive and paragraph 2B(7) of Schedule 6 to the Act implements article 8(1)(e) of AIFMD, although the Act extends the threshold condition set out in paragraph 2B of Schedule 6 of the Act to authorised persons
GEN 4.3.1RRP
A firm must take reasonable care to ensure that every letter (or electronic equivalent) which it or its employees send to a retail client4, with a view to or in connection with the firm carrying on a regulated activity, includes the disclosure in GEN 4 Annex 1 R (firms that are not PRA-authorised persons) or GEN 4 Annex 1AR (PRA-authorised persons) as applicable15.14
GEN 4.3.2AGRP
15For a UK domestic firm that is not a PRA-authorised person, the required disclosure in GEN 4 Annex 1 R is "Authorised and regulated by the Financial Conduct Authority".
GEN 4.3.2BGRP
15For a UK domestic firm that is a PRA-authorised person, the required disclosure in GEN 4 Annex 1AR is "Authorised by the Prudential Regulation Authority and regulated by the Financial Conduct Authority and the7 Prudential Regulation Authority".
GENPRU 2.2.83FRRP
10A building society must not issue a capital instrument that includes a coupon limit in its terms of issue in accordance with GENPRU 2.2.83E R unless it has notified the PRA of its intention to do so at least one month before the intended date of issue.
GENPRU 2.2.83HGRP
10The purpose of GENPRU 2.2.83ER (6) is to limit the potential preferential rights that may arise on capital instruments that are not subject to a coupon limit. The PRA considers that "preferential" refers to both priority of coupon payment and level of coupon payment. Therefore the PRA considers that:(1) a coupon arising on a capital instrument which is not subject to an explicit coupon limit within its terms of issue is likely to be preferential to a coupon on a capital instrument
GENPRU 2.2.213RRP
An item falls into this provision for the purpose of GENPRU 2.2.212 R if it is:(1) an ownership share; or(2) an item of “basic own funds” as defined in the PRA Rulebook: Glossary.1717
GENPRU 2.2.214RRP
The amount to be deducted with respect to each material insurance holding is the higher of:(1) the book value of the material insurance holding; and(2) the solo capital resources requirement for the insurance undertaking or insurance holding company in question calculated in accordance with Part 3 of GENPRU 3 Annex 1 (Method 3 of the capital adequacy calculations for financial conglomerates).
FEES 3.2.1RRP
A person in column (1) of the table in FEES 3.2.7 R37 as the relevant fee payer for a particular activity must pay to the FCA (in its own capacity or, if the fee is payable to the PRA, in its capacity as collection agent for the PRA)76 a fee for each application or request for vetting, or request for support relating to compatibility of its systems with 37FCA systems,7 or admission approval made, or notification or notice of exercise of a Treaty right given, or other matter
FEES 3.2.7RRP

Table of application, notification, vetting and other fees payable to the FCA32

31

31Part 1: Application, notification and vetting fees

31(1) Fee payer

(2) Fee payable (£)37

Due date

(a) Any applicant for Part 4A permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission) whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (ga) of this table26

(1) Unless (2) or (3) 78applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 which apply to that application.

When both (A) and (B) apply, 50% of the tariff payable under (1):34

(2) 50% of the tariff payable under (1) is payable when either (a) or (b) apply:

(a) the application is one referred to in paragraph p; or

(b) the application is a limited permission case under .

(A) the application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 6; and34

(B) the application is:34

(i) a straightforward case under paragraph 2(d) or 3(g) of FEES 3 Annex 1;

(ii) a moderately complex case under paragraph 2(e) or 3(h) of FEES 3 Annex 1; or

(iii) a limited permission case under paragraph 3(i) of FEES 3 Annex 1.

(3) If the applicant applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order at the same time as applying for a Part 4A permission, the fee payable is the higher of: 78

(i) the fee otherwise payable in (1) or (2); and 78

(ii) the fee payable in FEES 3 Annex 10AR. 78

134343434

On or before the application is made

(aa) A person who makes an application under section 24A of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 31 (Applications for a standard licence where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant application”)30

As (a) above less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant application.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

(b) Any Treaty firm that wishes to exercise a Treaty right to qualify for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act (Treaty rights) in respect of regulated activities for which it does not have an EEA right, except for a firm providing cross border services only4

(1) Where no certificate has been issued under paragraph 3(4) of Schedule 4 to the Act the fee payable is, in respect of a particular exercise, set out in FEES 3 Annex 1, part 4

(2) Where a certificate in (i) has been issued no fee is payable

On or before the notice of exercise is given

(c) Any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order

2,000

On or before the application is made

(d) Applicants for an authorisation order for, or recognition under section 272 of the Act27 of, a collective investment scheme

FEES 3 Annex 2R, part 227

27

On or before the application is made

(da) Applicants for the authorisation of an AIF as a UK ELTIF36

FEES 3 Annex 2R, part 2A36

On or before the date the application is made36

(e) The management company27 of a scheme making a notification under section 264 of the Act

2727

FEES 3 Annex 2R, part 327

27

On or before the date the application is made28

28(ea)

(i) An AIFM (other than a UK AIFM or an EEA AIFM with a branch in the UK) notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 57 of the AIFMD UK regulation

(ii) An AIFM notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 58 or 59 of the AIFMD UK regulation

FEES 3 Annex 2 R, part 4

On or before the date the notification is made

28(eb) An applicant for registration on the register of small registered UK AIFM which the FCA is required to maintain under regulation 10 of the AIFMD UK regulation

£750

On or before the date the application is made

(f) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body.

10,000

30 days after the order is granted

(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body:17

(i) under section 287 of the Act; or17

(ii) under regulation 2(1) of the RAP regulations17

76

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1

On or before the date the application is made26

26(ga) Any applicant for:

(i) a Part 4A permission to carry out the regulated activity of administering a specified benchmark; or35administering a specified benchmark for one or more specified benchmarks or;35

(ii) varying its Part 4A permission to carry out the regulated activity of administering a specified benchmark for one or more specified benchmarks35

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(h) Any applicant for recognition as an ROIE76 under section 287 or section 292 of the Act

7676

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(i) [deleted]35

35
35 35

(j) Applicant for approval as sponsor (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(k) [deleted]35

35
35 35

(l) Under the listing rules, an issuer involved in specific events or transactions during the year where documentation is subject to a transaction vetting

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 1, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (v) or super transaction under category 7(q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA

(m) Under the prospectus rules, an issuer or person requesting approval or vetting of the documents arising in relation to specific events or transactions that it might be involved in during the year

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 2, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (v) or super transaction under category 7(q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA

(n) Applicants to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges

50,000

On or before the date the application is made

2(o) In relation to a BIPRU firm, either:29

(i) a firm applying to the FCA29 for permission to use one of the advanced prudential calculation approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6 R (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches or (in the case of any application being made for such permission to the FCA29 as EEA consolidated supervisor under the (transposing parts of the BCD and CAD, as applicable under article 95(2) of the EUCRR29)) any firm making such an application ;5 or

(ii) in the case of an application to 5a Home State regulator other than the FCA295for the use of the Internal Ratings Based approach and the Home State regulator requesting the FCA's29 assistance in accordance with the Capital Requirements Regulations 2006 (transposing parts of the BCD and CAD, as applicable under article 95(2) of the EUCRR29), any firm to which the FCA29 would have to apply any decision to permit the use of that approach.5

1122957629576295762976297629

(1) Unless5 (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6.5

(2) (a) Unless5 (b) applies a1firm submitting a second application for the permission or5guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6, but only in respect of that second application

(b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission5 based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.1

(c) No fee is payable where the Home State regulator has requested the assistance described in paragraph (o)(ii) of column 1 except in the cases specified in 5FEES 3 Annex 6.2

52512555765765

Where the firm has made an application directly to the FCA29, on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the FCA29 notifies the firm that its EEA parent's Home State regulator has requested assistance.229

27629762976

29(oa) Either:

(i) a firm applying to the 37FCA

for permission to use one of the internal approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6A (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches or (in the case of any application being made for such permission to the 37FCA

as consolidating supervisor under the EU CRR) any firm making such an application; or

(ii) in the case of an application to the consolidating supervisor other than the 37FCA

for the use of the IRB approach and the consolidating supervisor requesting the 37FCA's

assistance in accordance with the EU CRR, any firm to which the 37FCA would have to apply any decision to permit the use of that approach.

3737373737

(1) Unless (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6A.

(2) (a) Unless (b) applies a firm submitting a second application for the permission or guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6A, but only in respect of that second application.

(b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.

(c) No fee is payable where the consolidating supervisor has requested the assistance described in paragraph (oa)(ii) of column 1.

37

Where the firm has made an application directly to the 37FCA , on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the 37FCA notifies the firm that its EEA parent's consolidating supervisor has requested assistance.

3737

(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part 4A permission whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (ga) of this table26

(1) Unless (2), (2A), (3), (3A), (3B) or 3(C) 78 applies, if the proposed new1 business of the firm would1 fall within one or more activity groups specified in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 1AR not applicable before the application1, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37 which apply to that application.

(2) Subject to (2A) below, if the firm's application includes an application for a Part 4A permission to carry on a new credit-related regulated activity, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37

that would be payable under (1) above or, if higher, 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37

that would be payable in relation to the new credit-related regulated activity30.37

(2A) If an applicant which already has a Part 4A permission to carry on a credit-related regulated activity exclusively applies for a Part 4A permission to carry on a new credit-related regulated activity, that is specified in Part 3 of FEES 3 Annex 1R37

in the straightforward category (or if it exclusively applies for a number of such permissions), the fee is £25030.37

(3) If the firm is in the A.1 fee-block at the date of the application and the variation involves adding any of the regulated activities of meeting of repayment claims or managing dormant account funds (including the investment of such funds), the fee is 50% of the fee in FEES 3 Annex 1 R that applies to that application11

(3A) If the applicant had a limited permission prior to the application to vary its Part 4A permission, 100% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37

which apply to that application30.37

(3B) If the applicant has a limited permission and its application exclusively relates to another limited permission, the fee is 030

(3C) If the applicant applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order at the same time as it applies for a variation of its Part 4A permission, the fee is the highest of the fees set out in FEES 3 Annex 10AR and the amount otherwise payable in (1), (2), (2A), (3), (3A) or (3B), or (4).78

(4) 11 In all other cases, other than applications by credit unions, the fee payable is 250 for firms which are not, or are not seeking to become, a PRA-authorised person, and 125 for firms which are, or are seeking to become, a PRA-authorised person,76 unless the variation involves only the reduction (and no other increases) in the scope of a Part 4A permission in which case no fee is payable.1

30307878176763776377878371373030233737371137

On or before the date the application is made

30(pa) A person who makes an application under section 30(1) of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 33 (Variations at request of licensee where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant variation application”)

As (a) or 31(p) above, less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant variation application.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

2(q) A super7transaction, being one where:

(i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 1.5 billion and it is a new applicant for a premium listing1377 under the listing rules, or involved in a reverse or hostile takeover or a significant restructuring; or

(ii) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 5 billion and is involved in a class 1 transaction,7 a transaction requiring vetting of an equity prospectus or equivalent document or a transaction requiring vetting of a prospectus or listing particulars in relation to a Depositary Receipt.22

713777227

50,000

On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA.3

33

2(r) Providers of reporting or trade matching systems applying for recognition under MiFID as an Approved Reporting Mechanism.

100,0006

6

Having received its application, within 30 days after the FCA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.6

56

5(s) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme, a transferor.

Note - for the purpose of this paragraph an insurance business transfer scheme consists of a single transferor and a single transferee. Where however such a scheme is part of a single larger scheme, that larger scheme is treated as a single insurance business transfer scheme. If an insurance business transfer scheme includes more than one transferor in accordance with this paragraph, the transferors are liable to pay the fee under column (2) jointly.

Either (1) or (2) as set out below:

(1) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme involving long term insurance business, 9,25037; or

(2) in the case of an insurance business transfer scheme not involving long term insurance business, 5,000.

7575377575377537

On or before any application is made for the appointment of a person as an independent expert.

37

6(t) A firm, a third party acting on a firm's behalf, an operator of a regulated market or an operator of an MTF applying to the FCA to report transaction reports directly to the FCA.

20

100,000

Having received its application, within 30 days after the FCA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.

(u) [deleted]34

34
34 34

(v) A significant transaction, being one where:

(i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 500 million and is producing an equity prospectus or equivalent document, a prospectus or listing particulars22 in relation to a Depository Receipt or a document in relation to a class 1 transaction; or

(ii) the issuer is producing a document for vetting in relation to a reverse takeover, a hostile takeover or a significant restructuring.

A significant transaction does not include a super transaction.

22

20,000

On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA.

[deleted]35

35
35 35

(x)

(i) An issuer or person who:

(1) is a fee payer under one or more of the categories set out in (ii); and

(2) requests the FCA's approval or vetting of a document that includes a mineral expert's report.

(ii) The categories are (1), (m) (q), and (v) of this table.

(iii) A fee under this category is payable in addition to any fee payable under the categories set out in (ii).

5,000

On or before the date the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA.8

8(y) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised payment institution under regulation 5 of the Payment Services Regulations

The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8 which apply to that application.

Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in

FEES 3 Annex 8R

On or before the date the application is made.

(z) An application by a small payment institution for authorisation as an authorised payment institution because regulation 15 of the Payment Services Regulations applies

The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application.

On or before the date the application is made.

(za) An applicant for registration as a small payment institution under regulation 12 of the Payment Services Regulations

FEES 3 Annex 8R, paragraph (1). Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 8R.

On or before the date the application is made.

(zb) An authorised payment institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Payment Services Regulations.

(1) If the payment services carried on by the authorised payment institution prior to the variation only fall within paragraph (f) or (g) or (h) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and any of the payment services in paragraphs (a) to (e) of that Schedule will apply after variation, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application.

(2) Where the

authorised payment institution:(i) already has authorisation to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other services in (a) to (g); or

(ii) has authorisation to provide payment services in either paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to extend its authorisation to include the other paragraph ((f) or (g));

the fee payable is 250 irrespective of the number of agents it has.

(3) In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable.

On or before the date the application is made.

(zc) A small payment institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Payment Services Regulations

(1) If the payment services carried on by the small payment institution prior to the variation only fall within paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and any of the payment services in paragraphs (a) to (e) of that Schedule will apply after variation, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8Rwhich apply to that application.

(2) Where the small payment institution:

(i) is already registered to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other of the services in (a) to (g); or

(ii) is registered to provide payment services in either paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to extend its registration to include the other paragraph ((f) or (g));the fee payable is 250 irrespective of the number of agents it has.

(2)

(3) In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable.

On or before the date the application is made.

A financial institution notifying the FSAFCA in accordance with regulation 121(2)(a) of the Payment Services Regulations.

50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3Annex 8R, paragraphs (2) to (5) which apply to that application.

On or before the date the application is made.

(ze) Any person to which the Special Project Fee for restructuring applies under FEES 3 Annex 9.12

12

Special Project Fee for restructuring in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 9 .

30 days of the date of the invoice.9

(zf) [deleted]76

76
76 91676

16(zg) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution under regulation 5 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zh) An applicant for registration as a small electronic money institution under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zi) An application by a small electronic money institution for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution14because regulation 16 of the Electronic Money Regulations applies.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zj) An authorised electronic money institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zk) A small electronic money institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

15(zl) An applicant for recognition as an accredited body.

2,500

On or before the date the application is made.18

18(zm) An issuer applying for registration of a regulated covered bond.

(1) Unless (2) applies, 45,000.

(2) In the case of a proposed covered bond or programme where the assets in the asset pool will consist primarily of UK residential mortgages, 25,000.

On or before the date the application is made.

18(zn) An issuer who proposes to make a material change to the contractual terms of a regulated covered bond under RCB 3.5.4 D.

6,500

On or before the date the notification under RCB 3.5.4 D is made.21

21(zo) In the case of persons in respect of which the FCA has given notice of its intention to take, or appoint a competent person to take, any steps under CONRED 2.5.12R, either:

(i) a Firm (as defined in CONRED 2.1.1R(1); or

(ii) a person falling within CONRED 2.1.2R(1).

An amount equal to:

(1) a sum determined by the number of hours, or part of an hour, taken by the FCA in relation to work conducted in taking steps under recorded on the FCA's systems, multiplied by the rate in FEES 3 Annex 9 (11)R; or

(2) any amount invoiced to the FCA by a competent person in relation to any work carried out by that competent person in connection with its appointment by the FCA under CONRED 2.5.12R.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

76(zp) A person in respect of which the FCA37 has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to provide it with a report pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act and SUP 5.2.

37

Any amount invoiced to the FCA37 by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the FCA37 pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act.

37

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

76(zq) A person in respect of which the FCA37 has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to collect or update information pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act.

37

Any amount invoiced to the FCA37 by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the FCA 37 pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act.

3737

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.33

33(zr) An applicant for approval as a primary information provider.

1,500

On or before the application for approval is made.

30(zs) Applicant for FCA permission for an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) and/or money paid or property transferred under and agreement to be retained under 3128A(3)(b) of the Act

(1) If the application is for permission for an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) of the Act and for permission for money paid or property transferred under an agreement to be retained under section 28A(3)(b) of the Act, the fee is 31£3,500 per type of agreement specified in the application.30

(2) If the application is for permission for an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) of the Act only, the fee is £3,500 per type of agreement specified in the application.31

(3) If the application is for permission for money paid or property transferred under an agreement to be retained under section 28A(3)(b) of the Act only, the fee is £3,500 per type of agreement specified in the application.31

Where there are a number of agreements of the same type, only one fee is payable in respect of those agreements. A number of agreements are of the same type when those agreements are entered into on the same terms and conditions.

On or before the date the application is made.

(zt) An applicant for registration in the Financial Services Register under article 8(1) of the MCD Order. 78

Unless (1), or (2) applies, the fee as set out in FEES 3 Annex 10A. 78

(1) If the applicant is applying for a Part 4A permission at the same time as it applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, the fee payable in row (a), column (2) paragraph (3) of this Table. 78

(2) If the applicant is applying for a variation of a Part 4A permission at the same time as it applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, the fee payable in row (p), column 2 paragraph (3)(c) of this Table. 78

On or before the application is made.78

32Part 2: Other fees

(1) Fee payer

(2) Fee payable

(3) Due date

(a)

(i) An issuer which has not made public its annual financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.1.3 R.

(ii) An issuer which has not made public its half-yearly financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.2.2 R (2).

(i) Where the issuer has not made public its annual financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.1.3 R, £250 in respect of that annual financial report.

(ii) Where the issuer has not made public its half-yearly financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.2.2 R (2), £250 in respect of that half-yearly financial report.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

[Note:Guidance on how a firm liable to pay a fee under both rows (s) and (ze) of this table for the same transaction should expect to be treated is set out in FEES 3 Annex 11 G.]19

2GENPRU 3 (Cross sector groups) applies to:(1) an IFPRU investment firm;(2) an insurer; and(3) a group containing both the firms in (1) and (2).
FIT 1.2.3AGRP
19Under section 63(1) of the Act (Withdrawal of approval), the FCA may withdraw an approval under section 59 given by the FCA or the PRA in relation to the performance by a person of a function if it considers that the person is not a fit and proper person to perform the function.
FIT 1.2.4BGRP
6 Where the application relates to a function within a Solvency II firm and is for an FCA controlled function which is also a Solvency II Directive ‘key function’ as defined in the PRA Rulebook: Glossary, then the FCA will also have regard to the assessment made by the firm as required in article 273 of the Solvency II Regulation (EU) 2015/35 of 10 October 2014; Rules 2.1 and 2.2 of the PRA Rulebook: Solvency II Firms: Insurance - Fitness and Propriety, and other factors, as set
IFPRU 11.1.2GRP
(1) An IFPRU 730k firm that is not subject to supervision on a consolidated basis will not be an RRD group member.(2) An IFPRU 730k firm may be subject to supervision on a consolidated basis by the FCA, the PRA or another competent authority.
IFPRU 11.1.3RRP
This chapter does not apply to: (1) a PRA authorised person; (2) an RRD group member that is: (a) a qualifying parent undertaking of a PRAauthorised person; and(b) subject to supervision on a consolidated basis by the PRA; and(3) a qualifying parent undertaking that is a mixed activity holding company of a PRA authorised person.
RCB 1.1.4GRP
This section refers to some of the other parts of the FCA Handbook and PRA Handbook9 which may be relevant to regulated covered bonds.9
RCB 1.1.7GRP
An insurer (which is not a UKSolvency II firm,4non-directive friendly society, incoming EEA firm or an incoming Treaty firm) may benefit from increased counterparty limits under INSPRU 2.1.22R (3)(b). An insurer which is a UKSolvency II firm is subject to the rules in the PRA Rulebook which transpose the Solvency II Directive and also to Solvency II Regulation (EU) 2015/35 of 10 October 2014.4
SUP 13A.1.1GRP
(1) 1This chapter applies to an EEA firm that wishes to exercise an entitlement to establish a branch in, or provide cross border services into, the United Kingdom under a Single Market Directive or the auction regulation7. (The Act refers to such an entitlement as an EEA right and its exercise is referred to in the Handbook as "passporting".) (See SUP App 3 (Guidance on passporting issues) for further guidance on passporting.)(2) This chapter also applies to:(a) a Treaty firm
SUP 13A.1.2GRP
This chapter does not apply to:(1) an EEA firm that wishes to carry on in the United Kingdom activities which are outside the scope of its EEA right and the scope of a permission granted under Schedule 4 to the Act; in this case the EEA firm requires a "top-up permission" under Part 4A16 of the Act (see the appropriate UK regulator's website http://www.fca.org.uk/firms/about-authorisation/getting-authorised for the FCA and www.bankofengland.co.uk/pra/Pages/authorisations/newfirm/default.aspx
MIPRU 2.2.2RRP
The firm may allocate the responsibility for its insurance mediation activity to an approved person (or persons) performing:(1) a governing function (other than the non-executive director function); or(2) the apportionment and oversight function; or(3) the significant management function in so far as it relates to dealing in investments as principal, disregarding article 15 of the Regulated Activities Order (Absence of holding out etc) (or agreeing to do so) or an activity which
MIPRU 2.2.3GRP
(1) Typically a firm3 will appoint a person performing a governing function (other than the non-executive director function) to direct its insurance mediation activity. Where this responsibility is allocated to a person performing another function, the person performing the apportionment and oversight function with responsibility for the apportionment of responsibilities must ensure that the firm'sinsurance mediation activity is appropriately allocated.3(2) The descriptions of
DEPP 2.5.3GRP
FCA6 staff under executive procedures will take the decision to give a warning notice if the FCA6 proposes to:66(1) refuse an application for a Part 4A permission6 or to refuse an application to cancel a Part 4A permission6;66(2) impose a limitation or a requirement which was not applied for, or specify a narrower description of regulated activity than that applied for, on the grant of a Part 4A permission6;6(3) refuse an application to vary a Part 4A permission6, or to restrict
DEPP 2.5.6AGRP
6FCA staff under executive procedures will take the decision where the FCA is proposing or deciding to:(1) refuse its consent to the granting by the PRA of an application for a Part 4A permission, or give its consent subject to conditions; (2) refuse its consent to the granting by the PRA of an application for the variation of a Part 4A permission, or give its consent subject to conditions; or(3) refuse its consent to the granting by the PRA of an application to perform a controlled
DEPP 2.5.18GRP
Some of the distinguishing features of notices given under enactments other than the Act are as follows: (1) [deleted]66(2) [deleted]66(3) Friendly Societies Act 1992, section 58A1: The warning notice and decision notice must set out the terms of the direction which the FCA6 proposes or has decided to give and any specification of when the friendly society is to comply with it. A decision notice given under section 58A(3) must give an indication of the society's right, given by