Related provisions for PRIN 3.1.5
181 - 200 of 600 items.
(1) Before an EEA firm (other than an EEA pure reinsurer1 or an EEA firm that has received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation)3 exercises an EEA right to provide cross border services into the United Kingdom, the Act requires it to satisfy the service conditions, as set out in paragraph 14 of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act. (2) For the purposes of paragraph 14(1)(b) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, the information to be contained in the regulator's
(1) Unless the EEA firm3(other than an EEA pure reinsurer or an EEA firm that received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation)331is passporting under the Insurance Mediation Directive, if the appropriate UK regulator9 receives a regulator's notice or, where no notice is required , is informed of the EEA firm's intention to provide cross border services into the United Kingdom, the appropriate UK regulator9 will, under paragraphs 14(2) and 14(3) of Part II of
6When the FCA receives a consent notice from the EEA firm'sHome State regulator in respect of a firm within paragraph 5(i) of Part I of Schedule 3 to the Act, it will, under paragraph 14(3ZA), use the information received from the EEA firm'sHome State regulator to enter the necessary information into the Financial Services Register.
The purpose of this guidance is three-fold:11(1) to outline the restriction on financial promotion under section 21 of the Act (Restrictions on financial promotion) and the main exemptions from this restriction; and(2) to outline the main circumstances in which persons who are primarily involved in making or helping others to make financial promotions may be conducting regulated activities requiring authorisation or exemption themselves; this part of the guidance may also be of
This guidance is issued under section 139A of the Act. It represents the FCA's views and does not bind the courts. For example, it would not bind the courts in an action for damages brought by a private person for breach of a rule (see section 138D of the Act (Actions for damages)), or in relation to the enforceability of a contract where there has been a breach of sections 19 (The general prohibition) or 21 (Restrictions on financial promotion) of the Act (see sections 26 to
A person will only need authorisation or exemption if he is carrying on a regulated activity 'by way of business' (see section 22 of the Act (Regulated activities)). There are, in fact, three different forms of business test applied to the regulated mortgage activities. In the FCA's view, however, the difference in the business tests should have little practical effect.
There is power in the Act for the Treasury to change the meaning of the business test by including or excluding certain things. The Business Order has been made using this power (partly reflecting differences in the nature of the different activities). The result (which is summarised in PERG 4.3.5 G) is that:(1) the 'by way of business' test in section 22 of the Act applies unchanged in relation to the activity of entering into a regulated mortgage contract;(2) the 'by way of
The 'carrying on the business' test in the Business Order is a narrower test than that of carrying on regulated activities 'by way of business' in section 22 of the Act as it requires the regulated activities to represent the carrying on of a business in their own right. Whether or not the business test is satisfied in any particular case is ultimately a question of judgement that takes account of a number of factors (none of which is likely to be conclusive). The nature of the
Section 39 of the Act (Exemption of appointed representatives) exempts appointed representatives from the need to obtain authorisation (or, in relation to an appointed representative with a limited permission, provides that sections 20(1) and (1A) and 23(1A) of the Act do not apply in relation to the carrying on of the regulated activity which is comprised in the business for which his principal has accepted responsibility and for which he does not have limited permission)1. An
Where a person is already an appointed representative and he proposes to carry on any insurance mediation activities, he will need to consider the following matters.(1) He must become authorised if his proposed insurance mediation activities include activities that do not fall within the table in PERG 5.13.4 G (for example, dealing as agent in pure protection contracts) and he wishes to carry on these activities. The Act does not permit any person to be exempt for some activities
A person who is concerned to know whether his proposed insurance mediation activities may require authorisation will need to consider the following questions (these questions are a summary of the issues to be considered and have been reproduced, in slightly fuller form, in the flow chart in PERG 5.15.2 G (Flow chart: regulated activities related to insurance mediation – do you need authorisation?):(1) will the activities relate to contracts of insurance (see PERG 5.3(Contracts
It is recognised pursuant to section 22 of the Act that a person will not be carrying on regulated activities in the first instance, including insurance mediation activities, unless he is carrying on these activities by way of business. Similarly, where a person's activities are excluded he cannot, by definition, be carrying on regulated activities. To this extent, the content of the questions above does not follow the scheme of the Act. For ease of navigation, however, the questions
An unauthorised person who intends to carry on activities connected with contracts of insurance will need to comply with section 21 of the Act (Restrictions on financial promotion). This guidance does not cover financial promotions that relate to contracts of insurance. Persons should refer to the general guidance on financial promotion in PERG 8 (Financial promotion and related activities). (See in particular PERG 8.17A (Financial promotions concerning insurance mediation activities)
(1) 1This section deals with the circumstances and manner in which an ACS is to be wound up or a sub-fund of a co-ownership scheme is to be terminated otherwise than by the court as an unregistered company under the Insolvency Act 1986 or the Insolvency (Northern Ireland) Order 1989 (further rules regarding schemes of arrangement are found in COLL 7.6 (Schemes of arrangement)).(2) An ACS may be wound up under this section only if it is solvent. Under section 261W of the Act (Requests
This table belongs to COLL 7.4A.1G (5) (Explanation of COLL 7.4A)
Summary of the main steps in winding up an ACS or terminating a sub-fund of a co-ownership scheme under FCArules Notes: N = Notice to be given to the FCA under section 261Q of the Act in a section 261Q case. R = Request to wind up the scheme under section 261W of the Act in a section 261W case. E = commencement of winding up or termination W/U = winding up FAP = final accounting period |
|||
Step number |
Explanation |
When |
|
1 |
Commence preparation of solvency statement |
7.4A.5R(2) |
|
2 |
Send audited solvency statement to the FCA with copy to depositary. |
7.4A.5R(4) and (5) |
|
3 |
In a section 261Q case: - the authorised contractual scheme manager receiving FCA approval; - or one month having passed after submitting the requisite notice under section 261Q of the Act without the authorised contractual scheme manager or depositary having received from the FCA a warning notice under section 261R in respect of the proposal. In a section 261W case, the authorised contractual scheme manager or depositary receives an indication from the FCA that, subject to there being no change in any relevant factor, on the conclusion of the winding up of the ACS, the FCA will agree to the request to wind up the ACS. |
Section 261Q of the Act (in a section 261Q case) 7.4A.4R(3)(c) to (e) (in a section 261W case) |
|
4 |
Normal business ceases; notify unitholders |
E |
7.4A.4R |
5 |
Depositary to realise and distribute proceeds |
ASAP after E |
7.4A.6R(1)-(5) |
6 |
Send annual long report of authorised contractual scheme manager, depositary and auditor to the FCA |
Within 4 months of FAP |
7.4A.9R(7) |
7 |
Request FCA to revoke relevant authorisation order |
On completion of W/U |
7.4A.6R(6) |
(1) Upon the happening of any of the matters or dates referred to in (3), and subject to the requirement of (4) being satisfied, and not otherwise:(a) COLL 6.2 (Dealing), COLL 6.3(Valuation and pricing) and COLL 5 (Investment and borrowing powers) cease to apply to the ACS or to the units and scheme property in the case of a sub-fund of a co-ownership scheme; (b) the depositary must cease to issue and cancelunits, except in respect of the final cancellation under COLL 7.4A.6R
(1) Either before notice is given under section 261Q of the Act or before a request is made under section 261W of the Act in relation to the proposals referred to in COLL 7.4A.4R (4), the authorised contractual scheme manager must make a full inquiry into the ACS's (or, in the case of the termination of a sub-fund of a co-ownership scheme, the sub-fund's) affairs, business and property to establish whether the ACS or the sub-fund will be able to meet all its liabilities.(2) The
Financial penalties, suspensions and public censures are important regulatory tools. However, they are not the only tools available to the FCA, and there will be many instances of non-compliance which the FCA considers it appropriate to address without the use of financial penalties, suspensions or public censures. Having said that, the effective and proportionate use of the FCA's powers to enforce the requirements of the Act, the rules and the Statements of Principle for Approved
3The FCA has the following powers to impose a financial penalty and to publish a public censure. (1) It may publish a statement: (a) against an approved person under section 66 of the Act;
(b) against an issuer under section 87M of the Act;
(c) against a sponsor under section 88A of the Act;
(ca) against a primary information provider under section 89Q of the Act;
(d) where there has
3Section 415B of the Act requires the FCA to consult with the PRA before it takes certain enforcement action in relation to a PRA-authorised person or someone who has a qualifying relationship (as defined in section 415B(4) of the Act) with a PRA-authorised person. Further detail on when the FCA is required to consult the PRA, and when it has agreed to notify the PRA of certain matters, is set out in the Memorandum of Understanding between the PRA and the FCA.
6Paragraph 2B(1) of Schedule 6 to the Act implements article 7(1)(d) of the UCITS Directive, paragraphs 2B(1) to 2B(23) of Schedule 6 to the Act implement article 5(4) of MiFID, paragraph 2B(4) of Schedule 6 to the Act implements article 2.9 of the Insurance Mediation Directive and paragraph 2B(7) of Schedule 6 to the Act implements article 8(1)(e) of AIFMD, although the Act extends the threshold condition set out in paragraph 2B of Schedule 6 of the Act to authorised persons
Neither the UCITS Directive6, MiFID,3 the Insurance Mediation Directive, AIFMD6 nor the Act define what is meant by a firm's 'head office'. This is not necessarily the firm's place of incorporation or the place where its business is wholly or mainly carried on. Although the FCA5 will judge each application on a case-by-case basis, the key issue in identifying the head office of a firm is the location of its central management and control, that is, the location of: 16(1) the directors
10Situations when the FCA may impose restrictions or limitations on the services a sponsor can provide include (but are not limited to) where it appears to the FCA that: (1) the sponsor has no or limited relevant experience and expertise of providing certain types of sponsor services or of providing sponsor services to certain types of company; or(2) the sponsor does not have systems and controls in place which are appropriate for the nature of the sponsor services which the sponsor
10The FCA may impose restrictions or limitations on the services a sponsor can provide or suspend a sponsor's approval under section 88E of the Act if the FCA considers it desirable to do so in order to advance one or more of its operational objectives.[Note: A statutory notice may be required under section 88F of the Act. Where this is the case, the procedure for giving a statutory notice is set out in DEPP.]
The FCA 5 may also5 seek to exercise its own-initiative
powers in certain situations,5 including
the following:55(1) If
the FCA5 determines
that a firm's management, business
or internal controls give rise
to material risks that are not fully addressed by existing requirements,
the FCA5may
seek to use its own-initiative
powers.555(2) If
a firm becomes or is to become
involved with new products or selling practices which present risks not adequately
addressed by existing requirements,
Pursuant
to sections 55L, 55N, 55O, 55P and 55Q of the Act,
within the scope of its functions and powers, the FCA5may seek to impose requirements which
include but are not restricted to:55(1) requiring
a firm to submit regular reports
covering, for example, trading results, management accounts, customer complaints, connected party transactions;(2) where
appropriate, 5requiring a firm to
maintain prudential limits, for example on large exposures,
foreign currency exposures or
liquidity
The FCA5 will seek to give a firm reasonable
notice of an intent to vary its permission or impose a requirement5 and to agree with the firm an
appropriate timescale. However, if the FCA5 considers
that a delay may create a risk to any of the FCA's statutory objectives5,3 the FCA5 may need to act immediately using its powers under section 55J and/or 55L5 of the Act5 with
immediate effect.5535555
(1) 7In addition to instruments admitted to or dealt in on an eligible market, a UCITS scheme may also with the express consent of the FCA (which takes the form of a waiver under sections 138A and 138B of the Act as applied by section 250 of the Act or regulation 7 of the OEIC Regulations) invest in an approved money-market instrument provided:(a) the issue or issuer is itself regulated for the purpose of protecting investors and savings in accordance with COLL 5.2.10AR (2);(b)
A UCITS scheme must not invest in units in a collective investment scheme ("second scheme") unless the second scheme satisfies all of the following conditions, and provided that no more than 30% of the value of the UCITS scheme is invested in second schemes within (1)(b) to (e):88(1) the second scheme must:(a) satisfy the conditions necessary for it to enjoy the rights conferred by the UCITS Directive; or(b) be a recognised scheme18 under the provisions of section 27218 of the
(1) COLL 9.3 gives further detail as to the recognition of a scheme under section 27218of the Act.18(2) Article 5013 of the UCITS Directive sets out the general investment limits. So, a scheme18 which has the power to invest in gold or immovables would not meet the criteria set out in COLL 5.2.13R (1).18131818(3) 8In determining whether a scheme (other than a UCITS)18 meets the requirements of article 50(1)(e)13 of the UCITS Directive for the purposes ofCOLL 5.2.13R (1),18 the
13Authorised fund managers of UCITS schemes or EEA UCITS schemes should bear in mind that where a UCITS scheme, or an EEA UCITS scheme that is a recognised scheme under section 264 of the Act, employs particular investment strategies such as investing more than 35% of its scheme property in government and public securities, or investing principally in units in collective investment schemes, deposits or derivatives, or replicating an index, COBS 4.13.2R (Marketing communications
11The RAO and the auction regulation together generate three broad categories of person in relation to bidding for emissions allowances on an auction platform:(1) The first category consists of an investment firm to which MiFID applies and a BCD credit institution where either firm is bidding on behalf of its clients for emissions auction products or bidding on its own account for emissions auction products that are financial instruments. This category also consists of a person
16Most collective investment schemes will also be either a UCITS or an AIF (although not all AIFs are collective investment schemes). As a result, there is a potential overlap between the activity of establishing, operating and winding up a collective investment scheme and the activities of managing a UCITS and managing an AIF. However, there are exclusions in the RAO which considerably reduce the overlap (see PERG 2.8.10G (2) and PERG 16.5).
16An open-ended investment company will, once it is authorised under regulations made under section 262 of the Act, become an authorised person in its own right under Schedule 5 to the Act (Persons concerned in Collective Investment Schemes). Under ordinary principles, a company operates itself and an authorisedopen-ended investment company will be operating the collective investment scheme constituted by the company. It is not required to go through a separate process of authorisation
The FCA will
adopt a pre-emptive approach which will be based on making forward-looking
judgments about firms' business
models, product strategy and how they run their businesses, to enable the FCA to identify and intervene earlier to
prevent problems crystallising. The FCA's approach
to supervising firms will contribute
to its delivery against its objective to protect and enhance the integrity
of the UK financial system (as
set out in the Act). Where the FCA has responsibilities
While respecting each regulator's
different statutory objectives and
mandates, in undertaking its supervisory activity the FCA will
co-ordinate and co-operate with the PRA as
required and necessary in the interests of the effective and efficient supervision
of regulated firms and individuals.
Both regulators will coordinate with each other as required under the Act, including on the exchange of information
relevant to each regulator's individual objectives. However, the FCA and
1132In accordance with article 11 of the Regulated Activities Amendment Order, the Ombudsman can also consider under the Compulsory Jurisdiction:(1) a relevant existing credit-related complaint referred to the Financial Ombudsman Service before 1 April 2014 which was formerly being dealt with under the Consumer Credit Jurisdiction; and(2) a relevant new credit-related complaint referred to the Financial Ombudsman Service on or after 1 April 2014 which relates to an act or omission
8As a result of section 404B(11) of the Act, the Ombudsman can also consider under the Compulsory Jurisdiction a complaint from a complainant who:(1) is not satisfied with a redress determination made by a respondent under a consumer redress scheme; or(2) considers that a respondent has failed to make a redress determination in accordance with a consumer redress scheme.
4The FCA also has measures available to it where it considers it is appropriate to take protective or remedial action. These include: (1) where a firm's continuing ability to meet the threshold conditions or where an approved person's fitness and propriety to perform the controlled functions to which his approval relates are called into question: (a) varying and/or cancelling of permission and the withdrawal of a firm’s authorisation (see chapter 8); and (b) the withdrawal of
(1) 4A firm to which this rule applies must submit a Remuneration Benchmarking Information Report to the FCA annually.(2) The firm must complete the Remuneration Benchmarking Information Report in the format set out in SUP 16 Annex 33A.(3) The firm must submit the Remuneration Benchmarking Information Report to the FCA within four months of the firm'saccounting reference date.(4) A firm that:(a) is not part of a UK lead regulated group must complete that report on an unconsolidated
(1) A firm to which this rule applies must submit a High Earners Report to the FCA4 annually.104(2) The firm must submit that report to the FCA4 within four months of the end of the firm'saccounting reference date.104(3) A firm that is not part of a UK lead regulated group must complete that report on an unconsolidated basis in respect of remuneration awarded in the last completed financial year to all high earners of the firm who mainly undertook their professional activities
There is power in the Act for the Treasury to specify the circumstances in which a person is or is not to be regarded as carrying on regulated activities by way of business. The Business Order has been made using this power (partly reflecting differences in the nature of the different activities). As such, the business test for insurance mediation activity is distinguished from the standard test for 'investment business' in article 3 of the Business Order. Under article 3(4) of
As with any other contract, a contract of insurance that is not effected by way of a deed will only be legally binding if, amongst other things, it is entered into for valuable consideration. Determining what amounts to sufficient consideration in any given case is a matter for the courts. In practice, however, the legal definition of consideration is very wide. In particular, just because a contract of insurance is 'free' in the colloquial sense does not mean that there is no