Related provisions for IFPRU 7.1.7
81 - 100 of 849 items.
A1sponsor must in relation to a sponsor service:11(1) referred to in 3LR 8.2.1R (1) to (4), LR 8.2.1R (11), LR 8.2.1A R and, where relevant LR 8.2.1R (5)3, 1provide assurance to the FCA when required that the responsibilities of the company with or applying for a premium listing of its equity shares3 under the listing rules have been met;3(1A) 3provide to the FCA any explanation or confirmation in such form and within such time limit as the FCA reasonably requires for the purposes
3A sponsor must, for so long as it provides a sponsor service:(1) take such reasonable steps as are sufficient to ensure that any communication or information it provides to the FCA in carrying out the sponsor service is, to the best of its knowledge and belief, accurate and complete in all material respects; and(2) as soon as possible provide to the FCA any information of which it becomes aware that materially affects the accuracy or completeness of information it has previously
3Where a sponsor provides information to the FCA which is or is based on information it has received from a third party, in assessing whether a sponsor has complied with its obligations in LR 8.3.1AR (1) the FCA will have regard, amongst other things, to whether a sponsor has appropriately used its own knowledge, judgment and expertise to review and challenge the information provided by the third party.
The1sponsor will be the main point of contact with the FCA for any matter referred to in LR 8.2.1 The FCA expects to discuss all issues relating to a transaction and any draft or final document directly with the sponsor. However, in appropriate circumstances, the FCA will communicate directly with the company with or applying for a premium listing of its equity shares, or its advisers3.113
1If, in connection with the provision of a3sponsor service, a sponsor becomes aware that it, or a company with or applying for a premium listing of its equity shares is failing or has failed to comply with its obligations under3 the listing rules3, the3disclosure rules or the transparency rules, the sponsor must promptly notify the FCA2.323
1In identifying conflicts of interest, sponsors should also take into account3 circumstances that could:333(1) 3create a perception in the market that a sponsor may not be able to perform its functions properly; or4(2) 3compromise the ability of a sponsor to fulfil its obligations to the FCA in relation to the provision of a sponsor service.
1LR 8.3.11 R recognises that there will be some conflicts of interest that cannot be effectively managed. Providing sponsor services in those cases could adversely affect both a sponsor's ability to perform its functions and market confidence in the sponsor regime. If in doubt about whether a conflict can be effectively managed a sponsor should discuss the issue with the FCA before it decides if it can provide a sponsor service.
6If a listed company or applicant appoints more than one sponsor to provide a sponsor service, the FCA expects the sponsors to co-operate with each other in relation to the sponsor service, including by establishing arrangements for the sharing of information as appropriate having regard to the sponsor service.
A benchmark administrator must:(1) have effective arrangements and procedures that allow the regular monitoring and surveillance of benchmark submissions:(2) monitor the benchmark submissions in order to identify breaches of its practice standards (set out in MAR 8.3.10R (1)) and conduct that may involve manipulation, or attempted manipulation, of the specified benchmark it administers and provide to the oversight committee of the specified benchmark timely updates of suspected
The oversight committee should be responsible for:(1) considering matters of definition and scope of the specified benchmark;(2) exercising collective scrutiny of benchmark submissions if and when required; and(3) notifying the FCA of benchmark submitters that fail on a recurring basis to follow the practice standards (as set out in MAR 8.3.10R (1)) for the specified benchmark.
The benchmark administrator through its oversight committee must:(1) develop practice standards in a published code which, for the relevant specified benchmark, set out the responsibilities for: 11(a) 1benchmark submitters and (where applicable) persons who make benchmark submissions available;(b) 1the benchmark administrator; and(c) 1the oversight committee;(2) undertake regular periodic reviews of:(a) the practice standards mentioned in MAR 8.3.10R (1);(b) the setting and definition
1(1) 1MAR 8.3.13 R sets out the minimum amount of financial resources a benchmark administrator must hold to carry out administering a specified benchmark.(2) 1The FCA expects benchmark administrators to:(a) normally hold sufficient financial resources to cover the operating costs of administering the specified benchmark for a period of nine months; and(b) notify the FCA where a benchmark administrator's financial resources fall below these levels (required by MAR 8.3.17 R and
To meet the financial resources requirement in MAR 8.3.13R (2), the FCA expects a benchmark administrator to hold both sufficient liquid financial assets and net capital to be able to cover the operating costs of administering the specified benchmark.11(1) net capital 1 can include common stock, retained earnings, disclosed reserves, other instruments generally classified as common equity tier one capital or additional tier one capital and may include interim earnings that have
If an owner proposes to transfer the asset pool to a new owner it must provide the FCA as a minimum with the following information in writing at least three months before the proposed transfer date:(1) name, address and contact details of the proposed new owner;(2) proposed transfer date and reasons for the transfer;(3) an explanation of how the proposed new owner will comply with the requirements imposed on it by the RCB Regulations and RCB; and(4) confirmation that the existing
If an issuer proposes to make a material change to the contractual terms of a regulated covered bond, it must inform the FCA of the following information to the FCA at least 3 months before the proposed date of the change:(1) details of the proposed change including proposed date of change and the reasons for it;(2) an assessment of the impact of the change on the ability of the issuer and owner to continue to comply with their requirements under the RCB Regulations and RCB; and
The issuer or the owner, as the case may be, must notify the FCA immediately in writing by e-mail, or hand-delivered letter, if requirements relating to the relevant regulated covered bond under the RCB Regulations or RCB are, or are likely to be, materially breached, or of any other matter which the FCA should be made aware of.
(1) The purpose of REC 3.15.2 R to REC 3.15.5 G is to enable the FCA3 to obtain information where a UK recognised body decides to suspend the provision of its services in relation to particular investments or (for an RAP) decides to cancel an auction.2 Planned changes to the provision of services should be notified to the FCA3under REC 3.14.33(2) REC 3.15.6 R to REC 3.15.7 R provide for notification to the FCA3where a UK recognised body is unable to operate or provide its facilities
Where, for any reason, an RIE: (1) suspends trading in any derivative (other than an option in relation to a security), in any type of security or in any type of option in relation to a security; or(2) temporarily calls a trading halt in respect of any type of security or in any type of option in relation to a security;it must immediately give the FCA3notice of that event, particulars of that derivative, type of security or type of option in relation to a security, as the case
Where a UK recognised body suspends providing clearing facilitation services generally in respect of any derivative (other than an option in relation to a security), type of security or type of option in relation to a security, it must immediately give the FCA notice of that event, particulars of that derivative, type of security or type of option in relation to a security, as the case may be, and the reasons for the action taken.33
Where a UK recognised body suspends any arrangements it makes for the safeguarding and administration of any type of asset belonging to any other person (other than an undertaking in the same group), that UK recognised body must immediately give the FCA3notice of that event, particulars of that type of asset and the reasons for the action taken.3
Where, because of the occurrence of any event or circumstances, a UK recognised body is unable to operate any of its facilities within its normal hours of operation, it must immediately give the FCA3notice of that inability and inform the FCA:333(1) which facility it is unable to operate; (2) what event or circumstance has caused it to become unable to operate that facility within those hours; and(3) what action, if any, it is taking or proposes to take to enable it to recommence
Where, because of the occurrence of any event or circumstances, a UK recognised body extends its hours of operation, it must immediately give the FCA3notice of that event, and inform the FCA3:33(1) what event or circumstance has caused it to do so; (2) the new hours of operation; and(3) the date on which it expects to revert to its normal hours of operation.
(1) The applicant must submit to the FCA by the date specified in paragraph (2):(a) the completed form A in final form;(b) the relevant fee; and(c) the other information referred to in PR 3.1.1 R in draft form.(2) The date referred to in paragraph (1) is:(a) at least 10 working days before the intended approval date of the prospectus; or(b) at least 20 working days before the intended approval date of the prospectus if the applicant does not have transferable securitiesadmission
If an applicant wishes the FCA to provide a certificate of approval to another competent authority at the time the prospectus is approved, it should include a request for the supply of the certificate with its application for approval of the prospectus (PR 5.3.2 R sets out the requirements for such a request).
Section 87A(1) of the Act provides for the approval of a prospectus by the FCA:
(1) |
The [FCA] may not approve a prospectus unless it is satisfied that: |
|
(a) |
the United Kingdom is the home State in relation to the issuer of the transferable securities to which it relates, |
|
(b) |
the prospectus contains the necessary information, and |
|
(c) |
all of the other requirements imposed by or in accordance with this Part or the prospectus directive have been complied with (so far as those requirements apply to a prospectus for the transferable securities in question). |
|
The FCA will follow the executive procedures for statutory notice decisions and statutory notice associated decisions if it:(1) proposes to refuse to approve a prospectus; or(2) decides to refuse to approve a prospectus after having given the applicant a written notice.Note: DEPP 44 sets out the executive procedures for statutory notice decisions and statutory notice associated decisions.4
(1) A person seeking to have the function of approving a prospectus transferred to the competent authority of another EEA State must make a written request to the FCA at least 10 working days before the date the transfer is sought.(2) The request must:(a) set out the reasons for the proposed transfer;(b) state the name of the competent authority to whom the transfer is sought; and(c) include a copy of the draft prospectus.
The FCA will consider transferring the function of approving a prospectus to the competent authority of another EEA State:(1) if requested to do so by the issuer, offeror or person requesting admission or by another competent authority; or(2) in other cases if the FCA considers it would be more appropriate for another competent authority to perform that function.
A person who wishes the FCA to vet an equivalent document referred to in PR 1.2.2 R (2) or (3) or PR 1.2.3R (3) or (4) must submit to the FCA:(1) a copy of the document;(2) a cross reference list identifying the pages in the document where each item that is equivalent to the disclosure requirements for a prospectus may be found;(3) contact details of individuals who are:(a) sufficiently knowledgeable about the documentation to be able to answer queries from the FCA; and(b) available
There is no definition in the Financial Promotion Order of what ‘proper systems and procedures’ are, and the matter will ultimately be for the courts to determine. This is unsurprising as systems and procedures may take many different forms depending upon the precise circumstances in which financial promotions are made. But it is clear that persons seeking conclusive proof that the exemption applies must consciously make arrangements to prevent their dealing with certain recipients
In any case, some but not all of the conditions referred to in PERG 8.12.5G (1) to PERG 8.12.5G (2) and PERG 8.12.7G (1) to PERG 8.12.7G (2) (or the additional condition that the communication is included in a website, newspaper or periodical publication which is principally accessed in or intended for a non-UK market or in a radio or television broadcast or teletext service transmitted principally for reception overseas) may be met. In these cases, those conditions being satisfied
This exemption applies to any financial promotion that is made with a view to or for the purposes of introducing the recipient to certain kinds of person. These are authorised persons who carry on the controlled activity to which the financial promotion relates, or exempt persons where the financial promotion relates to a controlled activity that is also a regulated activity in relation to which he is an exempt person. This is subject to the requirement that:11(1) the person making
The conditions in article 18(2) include a requirement that the person making the financial promotion does not select, modify or otherwise exercise control over its content before it is transmitted or received. Article 18(3) provides that a person is not selecting, modifying or exercising control merely as a result of having power to remove material which is illegal, defamatory or in breach of copyright or at the request of a regulatory body or where the law requires him to do
The conditions in article 18 also require that the person acting as the mere conduit must communicate in the course of an activity1 carried on by him the principal purpose of which is transmitting or receiving material provided to him by others. In the FCA's view, what matters is that the person is carrying on an activity1 which has the required principal purpose. Such an activity1 might represent but a part of a person’s overall business1 activities (however small), so long as
Article 19(4) sets out conditions which, if all are satisfied, offer conclusive proof that a financial promotion is directed only at investment professionals. These conditions relate to indications accompanying the financial promotion and the existence of proper systems and procedures. The guidance about proper systems and procedures in PERG 8.12.6 G applies equally to article 19. Article 19(6) specifically states that a financial promotion may be treated as made only to or directed
With this objective in mind, the exemption in article 20 applies to any non-real time financial promotion the contents of which are devised by a person acting as a journalist where the financial promotion is in:1(1) a newspaper, journal, magazine or other periodical publication;(2) a regularly updated news or information service (such as a website or teletext service); or(3) a television or radio broadcast or transmission.In addition, the publication, service or broadcast must
Provided the conditions in PERG 8.12.25 G are met, the exemption in article 20 applies to any non-real time financial promotion. However, there is an additional condition where the subject matter of the financial promotion is shares or options, futures or contracts for differences relating to shares and the financial promotion identifies directly a person who issues or provides such an investment. In such cases, the exemption is subject to a disclosure requirement which is itself
The effect of PERG 8.12.27G (1) is that a journalist will not breach section 21 by not disclosing a financial interest, providing that the publication, service or broadcast concerned operates proper systems and procedures. As with the exemption in article 12 of the Financial Promotion Order (see PERG 8.12.6 G), what proper systems and procedures are will be a matter ultimately for the courts to determine and may vary according to the medium used. It will depend upon all the circumstances
Persons such as experts or analysts may be approached to contribute at very short notice and may be overseas. In such cases, the systems and procedures referred to in PERG 8.12.29 G may not be practical. It is the FCA's opinion that, where occasional contributors are concerned, proper systems and procedures may include arrangements for ensuring that the need for disclosure (or the avoidance of financial interests) is drawn to the contributor’s attention before the communication
It appears to the FCA, however, that there will be situations when it may not be practical for the persons who are responsible for a publication, service or broadcast to apply proper systems and procedures to every person who may, whilst acting in the capacity of a journalist, communicate a financial promotion. For example where persons are asked to stand in at the last moment. In such cases, it is the FCA's opinion that the benefit of the exclusion will not be lost as respects
The exemption applies where the financial promotion:(1) comprises words which are spoken by the director or employee and not broadcast, transmitted or displayed in writing; or(2) is displayed in writing only because it is part of an interactive dialogue to which the director or employee is a party and in the course of which he is expected to respond immediately to questions put by a recipient of the communication.This is provided that the financial promotion is not part of an
The first part of the exemption (referred to in PERG 8.12.34G (1)) specifically precludes any form of written communication. However, the FCA understands that the Treasury did not intend to prohibit the use of written words in the form of subtitling. These may be an aid to those with hearing difficulties or to interpret a foreign language, or the use of captions which supplement a spoken communication by highlighting aspects of it without introducing anything new. The FCA cannot
SYSC 12.1.13 R (2)(dA) requires the firm to ensure that the risk management processes and internal control mechanisms at the level of any UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group of which a firm is a member comply with the obligations set out in this section on a consolidated (or sub-consolidated) basis. In the appropriate regulator's view, the requirement to apply this section at group, parent undertaking and subsidiary undertaking levels (as provided for in SYSC 19A.3.1
(1) This section applies in relation to Remuneration Code staff, except as set out in (3).(2) When establishing and applying the total remuneration policies for Remuneration Code staff, a firm must comply with this section in a way and to the extent that is appropriate to its size, internal organisation and the nature, the scope and the complexity of its activities (the remuneration principles proportionality rule).(3) Paragraphs (1) and (2) do not apply to the requirement for
(1) Remuneration Code staff comprises:(a) an employee of an IFPRU investment firm whose professional activities have a material impact on the firm’s risk profile, including any employee who is deemed to have a material impact on the firm’s risk profile in accordance with Regulation (EU) 604/2014 of 4 March 2014 (Regulatory technical standards to identify staff who are material risk takers); or(b) subject to (2) and (3), an employee of an overseas firm in SYSC 19A1.1.1R(1)(d) (i.e.,
The appropriate regulator would normally expect it to be appropriate for the ban on paying variable remuneration to 3members of the management body of a firm that benefits from exceptional government intervention to apply only in relation to 3members of the management body who were in office at the time that the intervention was required.33
(1) This Remuneration Principle stresses the importance of risk adjustment in measuring performance, and the importance within that process of applying judgment and common sense. A firm should ask the risk management function to validate and assess risk-adjustment techniques, and to attend a meeting of the governing body or remuneration committee for this purpose.(2) A number of risk-adjustment techniques and measures are available, and a firm should choose those most appropriate
In the appropriate regulator's view, circumstances in which a person will be using a personal hedging strategy include entering into an arrangement with a third party under which the third party will make payments, directly or indirectly, to that person that are linked to or commensurate with the amounts by which the person'sremuneration is subject to reductions.
(1) Taking account of the remuneration principles proportionality rule, the appropriate regulator8 does not generally consider it necessary for a firm to apply the rules referred to in (2) where, in relation to an individual ("X"), both the following conditions are satisfied:8(a) Condition 1 is that Xs variable remuneration is no more than 33% of total remuneration; and(b) Condition 2 is that Xs total remuneration is no more than 500,000.(2) The rules referred to in (1) are those
In the appropriate regulator's view, variable remuneration can be awarded to Remuneration Code staff in the form of retention awards where it is compatible with the Remuneration Code general requirement to do so. The appropriate regulator considers this is likely to be the case only where a firm is undergoing a major restructuring and a good case can be made for retention of particular key staff members on prudential grounds. Proposals to give retention awards should form part
A firm must ensure that any approval by the its shareholders or owners or members for the purposes of SYSC 19A.3.44AR is carried out in accordance with the following procedure:535(1) the firm must give reasonable notice to all its shareholders or owners or members of its intention to seek approval of the proposed higher ratio;55(2) the firm must make a detailed recommendation to all its shareholders or owners or members that includes:(a) the reasons for, and the scope of, the
(1) Deferred remuneration paid in shares or share-linked instruments should be made under a scheme which meets appropriate criteria, including risk adjustment of the performance measure used to determine the initial allocation of shares. Deferred remuneration paid in cash should also be subject to performance criteria.(2) The appropriate regulator would generally expect a firm to have a firm-wide policy (and group-wide policy, where appropriate) on deferral. The proportion deferred
(1) Variable remuneration may be justified, for example, to incentivise employees involved in new business ventures which could be loss-making in their early stages.(2) The governing body (or, where appropriate, the remuneration committee) should approve performance adjustment policies, including the triggers under which adjustment would take place. The appropriate regulator may ask firms to provide a copy of their policies and expects firms to make adequate records of material
(1) Sections 137H and 137I of the Act enables the appropriate regulator to make rules that render void any provision of an agreement that contravenes specified prohibitions in the Remuneration Code, and that provide for the recovery of any payment made, or other property transferred, in pursuance of such a provision. SYSC 19A.3.53A R and1SYSC 19A.3.54 R (together with SYSC 19A Annex 1) are such rules1 and render1 void provisions of an agreement that contravene the specified
1The issuer must send to the FCA loan-by-loan level data relating to the asset pool in the form set out in RCB 3 Annex 7A D within one month of the end of each quarter following any issuance of regulated covered bonds after 1 January 2013. Guidance on how to complete this form is set out in RCB 3 Annex 7B G.
1If the issuer or the owner (as the case may be) proposes to add or remove assets to or from the asset pool which change the level of over collateralisation by 5% or more, it must notify the FCA using the form set out in RCB 3 Annex 2 D (asset notification form) at least 5 business days prior to the proposed transfer, giving expected details of the size and composition of the transfer.
1Where a person intends to rely on article 4(2), 10(2) or 89(2) of EMIR for an exemption from the clearing obligation set out in article 4(1) or 10(1) of EMIR, the person should make their application or notification to the FCA in such manner, and by providing such information, as the FCA directs or requires.
Where a person intends to rely on article 11(6), (7), (8), 9) or (10) for an exemption from the obligation to implement risk management procedures set out in article 11(3) of EMIR, the person should make their application or notification to the FCA in accordance with EMIR requirements, including (where relevant) those set out in the EMIR technical standards on OTC derivatives2.
At any time after receiving an application or notification for exemption from, or a notification in respect of, EMIR requirements, the FCA may require the person concerned to provide it with such further information as it reasonably considers necessary to enable it to determine the application or consider the notification.
(1) 15A must be a fit and proper person having regard to all the circumstances, including-(a) A’s connection with any person;(b) the nature (including the complexity) of any regulated activity that A carries on or seeks to carry on;(c) the need to ensure that A’s affairs are conducted in an appropriate manner, having regard in particular to the interests of consumers and the integrity of the UK financial system;(d) whether A has complied and is complying with requirements imposed
(1) 15B must be a fit and proper person, having regard to the operational objectives of the FCA.(2) The matters which are relevant in determining whether B satisfies the condition in sub-paragraph (1) include-(a) B’s connection with any person;(b) the nature (including the complexity) of any regulated activity that B carries on or seeks to carry on;(c) the need to ensure that B’s affairs are conducted in an appropriate manner, having regard in particular to the interests of consumers
15The guidance in COND 2.5 should be read as applying to both paragraph 2E of Schedule 6 to the Act and, as far as relevant to the discharge by the FCA of its functions under the Act in respect of firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity, paragraph 3D of Schedule 6 of the Act.
(1) [deleted]1515(2) The FCA15 will also take into consideration anything that could influence a firm's continuing ability to satisfy the threshold conditions set out in paragraphs 2E and 3D of Schedule 6 to the Act15. Examples include the firm's position within a UK or international group, information provided by overseas regulators about the firm, and the firm's plans to seek to vary its Part 4A permission15 to carry on additional regulated activities once it has been granted
(1) The emphasis of the threshold conditions set out in paragraphs 2E and 3D of Schedule 6 of the Act15 is on the suitability of the firm itself. The suitability of each person who performs a controlled function will be assessed by the FCA and/or the PRA, as appropriate,15 under the approved persons regime (see SUP 10 (Approved persons) and FIT). In certain circumstances, however, the FCA15 may consider that the firm is not suitable because of doubts over the individual or collective
(1) [deleted]1515(2) Examples of the kind of general considerations to which the FCA may have regard when assessing whether a firm will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, the threshold conditions set out in paragraphs 2E and 3D of Schedule 6 to the Act include, but are not limited to, whether the firm:1515(a) conducts, or will conduct, its business with integrity and in compliance with proper standards;(b) has, or will have, a competent and prudent management; and(c) can demonstrate
Examples of the kind of particular considerations to which the FCA may have regard when assessing whether a firm will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, this threshold condition include, but are not limited to, whether:1515(1) the firm has been open and co-operative in all its dealings with the FCA15and any other regulatory body (see Principle 11 (Relations with regulators)) and is ready, willing and organised to comply with the requirements and standards under the regulatory system
The FCA will
adopt a pre-emptive approach which will be based on making forward-looking
judgments about firms' business
models, product strategy and how they run their businesses, to enable the FCA to identify and intervene earlier to
prevent problems crystallising. The FCA's approach
to supervising firms will contribute
to its delivery against its objective to protect and enhance the integrity
of the UK financial system (as
set out in the Act). Where the FCA has responsibilities
The overall approach in the FCA supervision model is based on the following
principles:(1) forward looking and more interventionist;(2) focused on judgment, not process;(3) consumer-centric;(4) focused on the big issues and causes
of problems;(5) interfaces with executive management/Boards;(6) robust when things go wrong;(7) focused on business model and culture
as well as product supervision;(8) viewing poor behaviour in all markets
through the lens of the impact on consumers;(9)
The FCA supervision
model risk assessment process applies to all firms,
although the detail required may vary from firm to firm. For example, some firms may
experience a highly intensive level of contact although others may only be
contacted once every four years. Firms judged
as high impact are likely to require a more detailed assessment. A peer review
process within the FCA assists
consistency and will be focused on firms and
sectors of the industry that could cause, or are
(1) The FCA intends
to communicate the outcomes of its pillars of supervision to each firm within an appropriate time frame. In
the case of firms in which risks
have been identified which could have a material bearing on the FCA meeting its statutory
objectives, the FCA will
also outline a remedial programme intended to address these.(2) The FCA considers
that it would generally be inappropriate for a firm to
disclose its FCA risk assessment
to third parties, except to those who
As many firms will
not have dedicated, fixed portfolio resource, the first point of contact for
many issues for such firms will
be handled by the FCA's Contact
Centre, with the aim being that fewer issues and queries will need to be referred
to the supervisors. To support all firms the FCA will also provide regional workshops
and road shows to clarify its expectations on these risks and issues that
are particularly important to the FCA.
While respecting each regulator's
different statutory objectives and
mandates, in undertaking its supervisory activity the FCA will
co-ordinate and co-operate with the PRA as
required and necessary in the interests of the effective and efficient supervision
of regulated firms and individuals.
Both regulators will coordinate with each other as required under the Act, including on the exchange of information
relevant to each regulator's individual objectives. However, the FCA and
(1) 8The resources of A must be appropriate in relation to the regulated activities that A carries on or seeks to carry on.(2) The matters which are relevant in determining whether A has appropriate resources include-(a) the nature and scale of the business carried on, or to be carried on, by A;(b) the risks to the continuity of the services provided by, or to be provided by, A; and(c) A’s membership of a group and any effect which that membership may have.(3) Except in a case
(1) The non-financial resources of B must be appropriate in relation to the regulated activities that B carries on or seeks to carry on, having regard to the operational objectives of the FCA.(2) The matters which are relevant in determining whether the condition in sub-paragraph (1) is met include-(a) the nature and scale of the business carried on, or to be carried on, by B;(b) the risks to the continuity of the services provided by, or to be provided by, B;(c) B’s a member
8Paragraph 3C of Schedule 6 to the Act sets out the appropriate non-financial resources threshold condition which is relevant to the discharge by the FCA of its functions under the Act in relation to firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, regulated activities which include a PRA-regulated activity.
8The guidance in COND 2.4 should be read as applying to both paragraph 2D of Schedule 6 of the Act and, as far as relevant to the discharge by the FCA of its functions in respect of firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity under the Act, paragraph 3C of Schedule 6 of the Act.
(1) [deleted]88(2) In this context, the FCA will interpret the term 'appropriate88' as meaning sufficient in terms of quantity, quality and availability, and 'resources' as including all financial resources (though only in the case of firms not carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity)8, non-financial resources and means of managing its resources; for example, capital, provisions against liabilities, holdings of or access to cash and other liquid assets, human
(1) [deleted]88(2) Although8 it is the firm that is being assessed, the FCA8 may take into consideration the impact of other members of the firm's group on the adequacy of its resources8, where relevant to the discharge of the FCA's functions8. For example, in relation to a firm other than a firm carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity, the FCA8 may assess the consolidated solvency of the group. The FCA's8 approach to the consolidated supervision of such
(1) [deleted]88(2) Relevant matters to which the FCA may have regard when assessing whether a firm will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, this threshold condition8may include but are not limited to:(a) (in relation to a firm other than a firm carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity),8 whether there are any indications that the firm may have difficulties if the application is granted, at the time of the grant or in the future, in complying with any of the
(1) A firm other than:99(a) a credit union; or9(b) a firm which intends to appoint , or has appointed, an appointed representative to carry on only credit-related regulated activity;9must submit the form in SUP 12 Annex 3 online 9at http://www.fca.org.uk using the FCA'sONA10system.10(2) A credit union or a firm which intends to appoint , or has appointed, an appointed representative to carry on only credit-related regulated activity9must submit the form in SUP 12 Annex 3 R in
(1) If:434(a) (i) the scope of appointment of an appointed representative is extended to cover insurance mediation activities for the first time; and42(ii) the appointed representative is not included on the Financial Services Register as carrying on insurance mediation activities in another capacity; or42(b) the scope of appointment of an appointed representative ceases to include insurance mediation activity;42the appointed representative's principal must give written notice
(1) As soon as a firm has reasonable grounds to believe that any of the conditions in SUP 12.4.2 R,SUP 12.4.6 R or SUP 12.4.8A R4 (as applicable) are not satisfied, or are likely not to be satisfied, in relation to any of its appointed representatives, it must complete and submit to the FCA the form in SUP 12 Annex 4 R (Appointed representative notification form), in accordance with the instructions on the form.3(2) In its notification under SUP 12.7.8 R (1), the firm must state
(1) 8Subject to (2A), a 9firm other than a credit union must submit the form as set out in SUP 12 Annex 4 R online at http://www.fca.org.uk using the FCA'sONA10system.910(2) A credit union must submit the form in SUP 12 Annex 4 R in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification).(2A) If the notification:9(a) relates to an appointed representative whose scope of appointment covers only credit-related regulated activity; or9(b) is of a change to
8If the FCA's information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, the FCA will endeavour to publish a notice on its website confirming that online submission is unavailable and that firms, other than credit unions, should use the alternative methods of submission set out in SUP 12.7.1AR (3) and SUP 12.7.8AR (3) (as appropriate), and SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G, addressingclearly marking applications for the attention of the Individuals
(1) Regulation 15(8)(f) of the OEIC Regulations (Requirements for authorisation) requires independence between the depositary, the ICVC and the ICVC's directors, as does section 243(4) of the Act (Authorisation orders) for the trustee and manager of an AUT, and section 261D(4) of the Act (Authorisation orders) for the depositary and authorised fund manager of an ACS6. COLL 6.9.3 G to COLL 6.9.5 G give the6FCA's view of the meaning of independence of these relationships. An ICVC,
(1) Independence is likely to be lost if, by means of executive power, either relevant party could control the action of the other.(2) The board of one relevant party should not be able to exercise effective control of the board of another relevant party. Arrangements which might indicate this situation include quorum provisions and reservations of decision-making capacity of certain directors.(3) For an AUT or ACS6, the FCA would interpret the concept of directors in common to
Independence is likely to be lost if either of the relevant parties could control the actions of the other by means of shareholders' votes. The FCA considers this would happen if any shareholding by one relevant party and their respective associates in the other exceeds 15% of the voting share capital, either in a single share class or several share classes. The FCA would be willing, however, to look at cross-shareholdings exceeding 15% on a case-by-case basis to consider if there
(1) Regulation 15(9) of the OEIC Regulations, and sections 243(8) and 261D(10)6 of the Act require that an authorised fund's name must not be undesirable or misleading. This section contains guidance on some specific matters the FCA will consider in determining whether the name of an authorised fund is undesirable or misleading. It is in addition to the requirements of regulation 19 of the OEIC Regulations (Prohibition on certain names).6(2) The FCA will take into account whether
An ICVC must notify the FCA within 14 days of the occurrence of any of the following:(1) any amendment to the instrument of incorporation;(2) any change in the address of the head office of the ICVC;(3) any change of director;(4) any change of depositary;(5) in respect of any director or depositary, any change in the information mentioned in regulation 12(1)(b) or (c) of the OEIC Regulations (Applications for authorisation);(6) any change of the auditor of the ICVC;(7) any order
Examples of when the FCA may cancel the listing of securities include (but are not limited to) situations where it appears to the FCA that:(1) the securities are no longer admitted to trading as required by these rules; or(2) the issuer no longer satisfies its continuing obligations for listing, for example if the percentage of shares in public hands falls below 25% or such lower percentage as the FCA may permit (the FCA may however allow a reasonable time to restore the percentage,
Subject to 41LR 5.2.7 R, LR 5.2.10 R, LR 5.2.11A R9 and LR 5.2.12 R, 1an issuer with a premium listing4that wishes the FCA to cancel the listing of any of its 5equity shares1with a premium listing4must:1114(1) send a circular to the holders of the shares.9 The circular must:9(a) comply with the requirements of LR 13.3.1 R and LR 13.3.2 R (contents of all circulars);(b) be submitted to the FCA for approval prior to publication; and(c) include the anticipated date of cancellation
An issuer that wishes the FCA to cancel the listing of listed securities (other than equity shares1with a premium listing41) must notify a RIS, giving at least 20 business days notice of the intended cancellation but is not required to obtain the approval of the holders of those securities contemplated in LR 5.2.5 R (2).1544
6In determining whether the statutory winding up or reconstruction measures in relation to an overseasissuer under equivalent overseas legislation have a similar effect to those set out in LR 5.2.12R (1) to LR 5.2.12R (6), the FCA will in particular have regard to whether those procedures require a court order, the approval of 75% of the shareholders entitled to vote on the resolution, or a formal declaration of the overseasissuer's insolvency or inability to pay its debts.
The word ‘communicate’ is extended under section 21(13) of the Act and includes causing a communication to be made. This means that a person who causes the communication of a financial promotion by another person is also subject to the restriction in section 21. Article 6(d) of the Financial Promotion Order also states that the word ‘communicate’ has the same meaning when used in exemptions in the Order. Article 6(a) also states that the word ‘communication’ has the same meaning
Apart from the originators of a financial promotion, the FCA considers the following persons to be communicating it or causing it to be communicated:(1) publishers and broadcasters who carry advertisements (including websites carrying banner advertisements); and(2) intermediaries who redistribute another person’s communication probably with their own communications.
In the FCA's view, the following persons will not be causing or communicating:(1) advertising agencies and others when they are designing advertising material for originators;(2) persons who print or produce material for others to use as advertisements;(3) professional advisers when they are preparing material for clients or advising them on the need to communicate or the merits or consequences of their communicating a financial promotion; and(4) persons who are responsible for
The FCA considers that, to communicate, a person must take some active step to make the communication. This will be a question of fact in each case. But a person who knowingly leaves copies of a document where it is reasonable to presume that persons will pick up copies and may seek to act on them will be communicating them.
A general point arises about causing and communicating on whether a particular exemption that applies to a communication made by a specified person also applies to a person who is causing that communication to be made. For example, article 551 of the Financial Promotion Order (Communications by members of professions)1 applies only to a communication by an exempt professional firm.1 This exemption may apply where a person ('P') requests an exempt professional firm ('E') to1communicate
Another general point arises about the scope of exemptions that apply only to financial promotions by a particular person. This is whether the exemption applies to the communication of a financial promotion by an unauthorised person on behalf of the person to whom the exemption applies. In the FCA's view, this will not be the case unless the exemption specifically states that it applies to a communication made on behalf of the person identified in the exemption. For example, article
In the FCA's opinion, the matters in PERG 8.6.9 G have the following effects.(1) Any one particular communication will either be real time or non-real time but not both. This is because:(a) a real time communication is one made in the course of an interactive dialogue (see PERG 8.10.2 G for guidance on the meaning of real time);(b) those exemptions which concern real time communications apply only to communications which are made to persons and not those which are directed at
A firm authorised under Part 4A8 of the Act (Permission to carry on regulated activity) has a single Part 4A permission8 granted by the FCA or the PRA. A firm'sPart 4A permission8 specifies all or some of the following elements (see PERG 2 Annex 2 (Regulated activities and the permission regime) and the information online at the FCA and PRA websites):8888338(1) a description of the activities the firm may carry on, including any limitations;(2) the specified investments involved;
8If an FCA-authorised person wishes to change its Part 4A permission to:(1) add a regulated activity, other than a PRA-regulated activity; or(2) remove a regulated activity from those to which the permission relates; or(3) vary the description of a regulated activity to which the permission relates; or(4) cancel the permission;it can apply to the FCA under section 55H of the Act (Variation by FCA at request of authorised person).
8If an FCA-authorised person wishes to change its Part 4A permission, by adding to the regulated activities to which the permission relates one or more regulated activities, which include a PRA-regulated activity, it can apply to the PRA under section 55I of the Act (Variation by PRA at request of authorised person). The PRA can determine such an application only with the consent of the FCA.
Variation and cancellation of Part 4A permission and imposition, variation and cancellation of requirements. See SUP 6.2.3A G to SUP 6.2.3E G8
8Question |
Variation of Part 4A permission |
Cancellation of Part 4A permission |
Imposition, variation and cancellation of requirements |
What does the application apply to? |
Individual elements of a firm'sPart 4A permission. Variations may involve adding or removing categories of regulated activity or specified investments or varying or removing any limitations in the firm'sPart 4A permission. |
A firm's entire Part 4A permission and not individual elements within it. |
Any requirement imposed on a firm with a Part 4A permission. Requirements may involve requiring the firm concerned to take or refrain from taking a specified action. |
In what circumstances is it usually appropriate to make an application? |
If a firm: 1. wishes to change the regulated activities it carries on in the United Kingdom under a Part 4A permission (SUP 6.3); or 2. has the ultimate intention of ceasing carrying on regulated activities but due to the nature of those regulated activities (for example, accepting deposits, or insurance business) it will require a long term (normally over six months) to wind down (run off) its business (see SUP 6.2.8 G to SUP 6.2.11 G and SUP 6 Annex 4). |
If a firm: 1. has ceased to carry on all of the regulated activities for which it has Part 4A permission (SUP 6.4); or 2. wishes or expects to cease carrying on all of the regulated activities for which it has Part 4A permission in the short term (normally not more than six months). In this case, the firm may apply to cancel its Part 4A permission prior to ceasing the regulated activities (see SUP 6.4.3 G). |
If a firm: 1. wishes to have a new requirement imposed on it; or 2. wishes to vary or cancel an existing requirement imposed by the FCA or PRA (for example, if anything relating to the firm's individual circumstances change and any existing requirement should be varied or cancelled). |
Under section 61(1) of the Act (Determination of applications), the appropriate regulator may grant an application for approval made under section 60 (Applications for approval) only if it is satisfied that the candidate is fit and proper to perform the controlled function to which the application relates.
The Act does not prescribe the matters which the appropriate regulator should take into account when determining fitness and propriety. However, section 61(2) states that the appropriate regulator may have regard (among other things) to whether the candidate or approved person is competent to carry out a controlled function.
6 Where the application relates to a function within a Solvency II firm and is for an FCA controlled function which is also a Solvency II Directive ‘key function’ as defined in the PRA Rulebook: Glossary, then the FCA will also have regard to the assessment made by the firm as required in article 273 of the Solvency II Regulation (EU) 2015/35 of 10 October 2014; Rules 2.1 and 2.2 of the PRA Rulebook: Solvency II Firms: Insurance - Fitness and Propriety, and other factors, as set
In the FCA's view, the circumstances in which a person is giving advice on the borrower varying the terms of a regulated mortgage contract so as to vary his obligations under the contract include (but are not limited to) where the advice is about:(1) the borrower obtaining a further advance secured on the same land as the original loan; or(2) a rate switch or a product switch (that is, where the borrower does not change lender but changes the terms for repayment from, say, a variable
In the FCA's view, guiding a person through scripted questions or a decision tree should not, of itself, involve advice within the meaning of article 53A (it should be generic advice). But the combination of advice, which in isolation may properly be considered generic, with the identification of a particular or several particular regulated mortgage contracts may well, in the FCA's view, cause the person to be advising on regulated mortgage contracts; the FCA considers that it
In the FCA's view, advice requires an element of opinion on the part of the adviser which steers or is intended to steer a borrower or potential borrower in the direction of one or more particular mortgages. In effect, it is a recommendation as to a course of action. Information on the other hand, involves objective statements of facts and figures.
In the FCA's opinion, however, such information is likely take on the nature of advice if the circumstances in which it is provided give it the force of a recommendation as described in PERG 4.6.10 G. Examples of situations where information provided by a person ('P') are likely to take the form of advice are given below.(1) P provides information on a selected, rather than balanced and neutral, basis that would tend to influence the decision of the borrower. This may arise where
Undertaking the process of scripted questioning gives rise to particular issues concerning advice. These mainly involve two aspects of this regulated activity. These are that advice must relate to a particular regulated mortgage contract (see PERG 4.6.5 G) and the distinction between information and advice (see PERG 4.6.13 G). Whether or not scripted questioning in any particular case is advising on regulated mortgage contracts will depend on all the circumstances. If the process
The potential for variation in the form, content and manner of scripted questioning is considerable, but there are two broad types. The first type involves providing questions and answers which are confined to factual matters (for example, whether a borrower wishes to pay a fixed or variable rate of interest or the size of deposit available). In the FCA's view, this does not of itself amount to advising on regulated mortgage contracts, as it involves the provision of information
In the scenarios identified inPERG 4.6.23G (3)1 andPERG 4.6.24G (2)1, the FCA considers that it is necessary to look at the process and outcome of scripted questioning as a whole. It may be that the element of advice incorporated in the questioning may properly be viewed as generic advice if it were considered in isolation. But, although the actual advice may be generic, the process has ended in identifying one or more particular regulated mortgage contracts. The combination of
2Further examples of what is and is not regulated advice
This table belongs to PERG 4.6.33 G.
Example of what the firm3 says and does 3 |
Regulated or not? |
(1) The firm says “We have a wide range of mortgages, including fixed and variable rates. Here are some leaflets which set out the main features.” |
No. Leaflets that just explain the terms and conditions of a lender’s products are not advice (see PERG 4.6.15G (1)). Even if the leaflet contains promotional material, merely handing over the leaflet does not mean that the firm is giving advice. |
(2) The firm says “We have a wide range of mortgages, our best rates are two-year fixed rates, you might want to look at those.” |
Yes. The firm has identified specific products that it offers and is steering the customer to those products. Identifying which products have the lowest rates is not advice on its own, only facts. However, “best” involves a value judgment, particularly when a comparison is made with other products that have different periods for which interest is fixed or that have variable interest rates. |
(3) The firm says “In order to provide you with an illustration, I need to know how much you want to borrow, the term and the property value. Which product or products would you like an illustration for?” |
No. The firm is collecting factual information to provide the customer with an illustration of costs. |
(4) The firm says “Based on what you’ve told me I think you would be best to look at two-year fixed rates. Here is some information about our products.” |
Yes. The firm has made a judgment on what type of product is best for the customer and has identified specific products of that type that it offers. |
(5) The firm says “Our fixed rates start at 4.99% for two years with a £900 fee. Our variable rates start at 4.50% with a £800 fee. Depending on how much you want to borrow and your circumstances, this may affect the rate available to you.” |
No. The firm is comparing two products without recommending either, nor is the firm steering the customer to one over the other. |
(6) A lender with just one mortgage product advises a customer to take out that mortgage. The lender makes it clear that it does not give advice about products other than its own. |
Yes. The lender may argue that this is not regulated advice because it is not recommending one product over another as it only has one product itself and does not give advice about the products of other lenders. However, in the FCA's view this is still regulated advice. For advice to be regulated it must be advice on the merits of entering into a particular regulated mortgage contract (or varying one). It is possible to give advice about the merits of a product without comparing that product with another. |
Note: Unless otherwise specified, the firm might be the lender or an advisory or intermediary firm. |
|
If either the firm or the appointed representative notifies the other that it proposes to terminate the contract of appointment or to amend it so that it no longer meets the requirements contained or referred to in SUP 12.5 (Contracts: required terms), the firm must:2(1) complete and submit to the FCA the form in SUP 12 Annex 5 R (Appointed representative termination form) in accordance with the instructions on the form and no more than ten business days after the date of the
(1) 4Subject to (2A), a5firm other than a credit union must submit any notification under SUP 12.8.1 R (1) in the form set out in SUP 12 Annex 5 R, online at www.fca.org.uk5 using the FCA'sONA6system.556(2) A credit union must submit any notification under SUP 12.8.1 R (1) in the form set out in SUP 12 Annex 5 R and in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification).(2A) A firm must submit any notification under SUP 12.8.1 R (1) that relates to
4If the FCA's information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, the FCA will endeavour to publish a notice on its website confirming that online submission is unavailable and that the alternative methods of submission set out in SUP 12.8.1AR(3) and SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification) should be used.
In assessing whether to terminate a relationship with an appointed representative, a firm should be aware that the notification rules in SUP 15 require notification to be made immediately to the FCA if certain events occur. Examples include a matter having a serious regulatory impact or involving an offence or a breach of any requirement imposed by the Act or by regulations or orders made under the Act by the Treasury.