Related provisions for GENPRU 1.1.2B
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(1) Given the complexity of issues raised by passporting, UK firms are advised to consult legislation and also to obtain legal advice at earliest opportunity. Firms are encouraged to contact their usual supervisory contact at the appropriate UK regulator5 to discuss their proposals. However, a UK firm which is seeking guidance on procedural or notification issues relating to passporting should contact the FCA and PRA authorisations teams, as and where appropriate.555(2) An applicant
1The guidance in COND 2.7 should be read as applying to both paragraph 2F of Schedule 6 to the Act and, as far as relevant to the discharge by the FCA of its functions under the Act in respect of firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity, paragraph 3E of Schedule 6 of the Act.
1Firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity, should note that the PRA states in its Approach Documents that analysis of such firms' business models will form an important part of the PRA's supervisory approach. For the avoidance of doubt, this guidance does not apply to the PRA's own assessment of the firms' business models.
The effect of section 59 of the Act and SUP 10 is that a credit union must apply to the appropriate regulator for the approval of one or more individuals to perform the functions which are known as controlled functions. Controlled functions fall within two groups: (1) The significant influence functions describe the roles performed by the governing body and senior managers of the firm who exert a significant influence over the regulated activities of the firm.(2) The customer
SUP 10.8: the systems and controls function. This is the function of acting as an employee with responsibility for reporting to the committee of management in relation to: (1) the credit union's financial affairs; or(2) setting and controlling its risk exposure; or (3) adherence to internal systems and controls, procedures and policies.
SUP 10A.9 applies only to a firm which:(1) under SYSC 2.1.1 R or, SYSC 4.1.1 R, apportions a significant responsibility, within the description of the significant management function, to a senior manager of a significant business unit; or(2) undertakes proprietary trading; or(3) (in the case of an EEA firm) undertakes the activity of accepting deposits from banking customers and activities connected with this.
The FCA anticipates that there will be only a few firms needing to seek approval for an individual to perform the significant management function set out in SUP 10A.9.1R (1). In most firms, those approved for the FCA governing functions, FCA required functions and, where appropriate, the systems and controls function or the equivalent PRA controlled functions, are likely to exercise all the significant influence at senior management level.
The scale, nature and complexity of the firm's business may be such that a firm apportions, under SUP 10A.9.1R (1), a significant responsibility to an individual who is not approved to perform the FCA governing functions, FCA required functions or, where appropriate, the systems and controls function or the equivalent PRA controlled functions. If so, the firm should consider whether the functions of that individual fall within the significant management function. For the purposes
6The guidance in COND 2.3 should be read as applying to both paragraph 2C of Schedule 6 of the Act and, as far as relevant to the discharge by the FCA of its functions under the Act in respect of firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity, paragraph 3B of Schedule 6 of the Act.
6Firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity, should note that the PRA is also responsible for assessing effective supervision under its own threshold conditions. Paragraphs 4F and 5F of Schedule 6 to the Act set out the effective supervision threshold conditions which are relevant to the discharge by the PRA of its functions under the Act in relation to firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity. For the avoidance of doubt, this
In assessing the threshold conditions set out in paragraphs 2C and 3B of Schedule 6 to the Act6, factors which the FCA6 will take into consideration include, among other things, whether: 6(1) it is likely that the FCA6 will receive adequate information from the firm, and those persons with whom the firm has close links, to enable it to determine whether the firm is complying with the requirements and standards under the regulatory system for which the FCA is responsible6 and to
A firm (other than the Society and an MTF operator in relation to its MTF business5) must notify to the FCA (in its own capacity and, if applicable, in its capacity as collection agent for the PRA) the value (as at the valuation date specified in Part 5 of FEES 4 Annex 1AR in relation to fees payable to the FCA or Part 5 of FEES 4 Annex 1BR in relation to fees payable to the PRA)15 of each element of business on which the periodic fee payable by the firm is to be calculated.
A firm (other than the Society) must send to the FCA (in its own capacity and, if applicable, in its capacity as collection agent for the PRA)15 in writing the information required under FEES 4.4.1 R as soon as reasonably practicable, and in any event within two months, after the date specified as the valuation date in Part 5 of FEES 4 Annex 1AR in relation of fees payable to the FCA or Part 5 of FEES 4 Annex 1B R in relation to fees payable to the PRA15 (or FEES 4.2.7B R where
In most cases a firm will provide the information required by this section as part of its compliance with the provisions of SUP. To the extent that the FCA (in its own capacity and, if applicable, in its capacity as collection agent for the PRA),14 does not obtain sufficient, or sufficiently detailed, information the FCA or the PRA, as appropriate,14 may seek this by using the general information gathering powers (see SUP 2 (Information gathering by the appropriate regulator14
The periodic fee referred to in FEES 4.3.1 R is (except in relation to the Society,10fee-paying payment service providers and fee-paying electronic money issuers)107 calculated as follows:(1) identify each of the tariffs set out in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 2AR and Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 2BR2626 which apply to the business of the firm for the period specified in that annex;(2) for each of the applicable26 tariffs, calculate the sum payable in relation to the business of the firm
(1) Subject to FEES TP 8, if26 the firm's, designated professional body's, recognised investment exchange's, 12or regulated covered bondissuer's11periodic fee for the previous fee year26 was at least £50,000, it11 must pay the FCA:26262611(a) an amount equal to 50% of the FCA26 periodic fee payable for the previous fee year, by 30 April or, if later, within 30 days of the date of the invoice, in the fee year26 to which the sum due under FEES 4.2.1 R relates; and 26(b) the balance
A firm which is a member of a group may pay all of the amounts due from other firms in the same group under FEES 4.2.1 R, if:(1) it notifies the FCA (in its own capacity and, if applicable, in its capacity as agent for the PRA)25 in writing of the name of each other firm within the group for which it will pay; and25(2) it pays the fees, in accordance with this chapter, as a single amount as if that were the amount required from the firm under FEES 4.2.1 R.
If the payment made does not satisfy in full the periodic fees payable by all of the members of the group notified to the FCA25 under FEES 4.3.7 R, the FCA (in its own capacity and, if applicable, in its capacity as agent for the PRA)25 will apply the sum received among the firms which have been identified in the notification given under FEES 4.3.7R (1) in proportion to the amounts due from them. Each firm will remain responsible for the payment of the outstanding balance attributable
(1) Unless a firm cannot reasonably compare a maturity payment with a calculated asset share, it must:(a) set a target range for the maturity payments that it will make on:(i) all of its with-profits policies; or(ii) each group of its with-profits policies;(b) ensure that each target range:(i) is expressed as a percentage of unsmoothed asset share; and(ii) includes 100% of unsmoothed asset share; and(c) manage its with-profits business, and the business of each with-profit fund,
5Loans to a connected person using assets in a with-profits fund should be considered as investments of assets within the with-profits fund. As such, a Solvency II firm will need to ensure that: (1) such loans comply with the PRA Rulebook: Solvency II Firms: Investments having regard to COBS 20.2.35B G; and(2) where there is a conflict of interests, in the reasonable opinion of the firm's senior management, they are in the best interests of the with-profits policyholders in the
(1) 5A Solvency II firm is required to consider its investment strategy in relation to the assets in a with-profits fund, including any strategic investments, in accordance with the PRA Rulebook: Solvency II Firms: Investments. Firms are expected, in applying the PRA Rulebook: Solvency II Firms: Investments, to take into account the particular circumstances and requirements of the liabilities in the with-profits fund to which those assets relate. For example, a Solvency II firm
(1) 2The aim of the discussions in COBS 20.2.41A R is to:(a) allow the FCA to comment on the adequacy of the firm's planning; and(b) seek agreement with the firm on any other appropriate actions to ensure with-profits policyholders are treated fairly.(2) If the firm is no longer effecting a material volume of new with-profits policies (other than by reinsurance) into a with-profits fund; or if it is ceding by way of reinsurance most or all of the new with-profits policies which
(1) 4A mutual operating a common fund may seek to undertake an exercise to identify that part of the fund to which the mutual considers it would be fair for relevant provisions in COBS 20 not to apply. (2) To give regulatory effect to the identification exercise, the FCA expects that a mutual will need to apply to the FCA to modify the relevant provisions in COBS 20 and elsewhere which are dependent on the definition of the with-profits fund. (3) A mutual will need to demonstrate
(1) 8Part VII of the Act prescribes certain statutory functions in relation to insurance business transfer schemes for both the PRA and the FCA. In accordance with the Act, the PRA and the FCA maintain a Memorandum of Understanding, which describes each regulator’s role in relation to the exercise of its functions under the Act relating to matters of common regulatory interest and how each regulator intends to ensure the coordinated exercise of such functions. Under the Memorandum
The initial documentary8 information on the scheme should be provided to the PRA, who will share it with the FCA, and8 should include its broad outline and its purpose. Each regulator may8 indicate to the promoters how closely it wishes to monitor the progress of the scheme, including the extent to which it wishes to see draft documentation.88
(1) If the transferee is (or will be) an EEA firm (authorised in its Home State to carry on insurance business under the Solvency II Directive6) or a Swiss general insurance company, then the appropriate regulator8 has to consult the transferee's Home State regulator, who has 3 months to respond. It will be necessary for the appropriate regulator8 to obtain from the transferee's Home State regulator a certificate confirming that the transferee will meet the Home State's solvency
8When assessing a proposed scheme under Part VII of the Act each regulator will, taking into account all relevant matters in each case, consider whether it should provide a report to the court. As it will lead the Part VII process for insurance business transfers, the PRA will usually provide such a report.
If the appropriate regulator1 gives a firm a waiver, then the relevant rule no longer applies to the firm. But:1(1) if a waiver directs that a rule is to apply to a firm with modifications, then contravention of the modified rule could lead to appropriate regulator1 enforcement action and (if applicable) a right of action under section 138D1 of the Act (Actions for damages); and11(2) if a waiver is given subject to a condition, it will not apply to activities conducted in breach
Substantive changes to the rules (this would not include simple editorial changes) in the Handbook may affect existing waivers, changing their practical effect and creating a need for a change to the original waiver. The appropriate regulator1 will consult on proposed rule changes. A firm should note proposed rule changes and discuss the impact on a waiver with its appropriate1 supervisory contact.111
Firms are also referred to SUP 15.6 (Inaccurate, false or misleading information). This requires, in SUP 15.6.4 R, a firm to notify the appropriate regulator1 if false, misleading, incomplete or inaccurate information has been provided. This would apply in relation to information provided in an application for a waiver.1
Action which a firm takes either to restore its capital resources to the levels set by the intervention points in this appendix or in PRA Rulebook: Solvency II Firms: Undertakings in Difficulty, or to prevent its capital resources falling below those points, should be consistent with Principle 6 of the FCA's Principles for Businesses. Principle 6 requires a firm to pay due regard to the interests of its customers and treat them fairly.
Where a firm submits a plan for restoration under this appendix or complies with PRA Rulebook: Solvency II Firms: Undertakings in Difficulty, the FCA would expect an explanation of how any actions it plans to take to restore its capital resources are consistent with the firm's obligations under Principle 6 (Customers' interests).
Once the appropriate regulator1 has given a waiver, it may vary it with the firm's consent, or on the firm's application. If a firm wishes the appropriate regulator1 to vary a waiver, it should follow the procedures in SUP 8.3.3 D, giving reasons for the application. In a case where a waiver has been given to a number of firms (see SUP 8.3.10 G), if the appropriate regulator1wishes to vary such waivers with the consent of those firms, it will follow the procedures in SUP 8.3.10
A firm must not appoint as appropriate actuary an actuary who has been disqualified by the FCA5 under section 345 of the Act (Disciplinary measures: FCA) or the PRA under section 345A of the Act (Disciplinary measures: PRA5) from acting as an actuary either for that firm or for a relevant class of firm.55
A firm carrying on long-term insurance business must identify the assets relating to its long-term insurance business which it is required to hold by virtue of :33(1) in the case of a pure reinsurer:(a) INSPRU 1.1.20 R or INSPRU 1.1.21 R; and (b) INSPRU 3.1.61A R; and 3(2) in any other case:3(a) INSPRU 1.1.20 R or INSPRU 1.1.21 R; and3(b) INSPRU 3.1.57 R and INSPRU 3.1.58 R.3
3(1) INSPRU 1.1.16 R requires a firm to establish adequate technical provisions for its long-term insurance contracts. INSPRU 1.1.20 R requires a firm which is not a composite firm to hold admissible assets of a value at least equal to the amount of the technical provisions and its other long-term insurance liabilities. INSPRU 1.1.21 R ensures that a composite firm identifies separate admissible assets with a value at least equal to the technical provisions for long-term insurance
As a result of INSPRU 1.5.27R (2), an actuarial investigation undertaken to determine an established surplus remains in-date for three months from the date as at which the determination of the surplus was made. However, even where the investigation is still in-date, the firm should not make the transfer unless there is sufficient surplus at the time of the transfer to allow it to be made without breach of INSPRU 1.1.20 R or INSPRU 1.1.21 R of the PRAHandbook10.
(1) Section 55C of the Financial Services Act 2012 (Power to amend Schedule 6) gave HM Treasury the power to amend Schedule 6 of the Act. HM Treasury exercised this power by making The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Threshold Conditions) Order 2013 which entered into force on 1 April 2013 (the "TC Order"). The TC Order's main result is the creation of four sets of threshold conditions, namely:(i) conditions for firms authorised and regulated by the FCA only (paragraphs
(1) As a result of the new legal framework for threshold conditions described in COND 1.1A.1G (1), PRA-authorised persons and firms seeking to become PRA-authorised persons are subject to two sets of threshold conditions:(i) the FCA-specific conditions referred to in COND 1.1A.1G (1)(ii)and(ii) one of the two PRA-specific conditions referred to in COND 1.1A.1G (1)(iii) or (iv), depending on the PRA-regulated activities which the PRA-authorised person or firm carries on, or is
COND applies to incoming EEA firms and incoming Treaty firms as set out below:(1) for an incoming EEA firm or an incoming Treaty firm which does not carry on any PRA-regulated activities, FCAthreshold conditions 2C to 2F apply; and(2) for an incoming EEA firm or an incoming Treaty firm which carries on a PRA-regulated activity, FCAthreshold conditions 3B to 3E apply.FCAthreshold conditions apply to incoming EEA firms and incoming Treaty firms only in as far as relevant to the
Behaviour
of the type referred to in APER 4.1.3 E includes, but is not limited to, deliberately:(1) falsifying documents;(2) misleading
a client about the risks of
an investment;(3) misleading
a client about the charges or
surrender penalties of investment products;(4) misleading
a client about the likely performance
of investment products by providing
inappropriate projections of
future investment returns;(5) misleading
a client by informing him that
products require only a single
Deliberately
failing to inform, without reasonable cause:(1) a customer; or(2) his firm (or its auditors or an actuary appointed
by his firm under SUP 4 (Actuaries)1); or1(3) the FCA or
the PRA;66of the fact that their understanding
of a material issue is incorrect, despite being aware of their misunderstanding,
falls within APER 4.1.2 E.
For the purposes of SYSC 12.1.8 R, the question of whether the risk management processes and internal control mechanisms are adequate, sound and appropriate should be judged in the light of the nature, scale and complexity of the group's business and of the risks that the group bears. Unless the firm is a Solvency II firm, risk 12management processes must include the stress testing and scenario analysis required by GENPRU 1.2.42 R and GENPRU 1.2.49R (1)(b).124
Where this section applies with respect to a financial conglomerate, the risk management processes referred to in SYSC 12.1.8R (2) or, for a Solvency II firm, the risk management system referred to in the PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, rule 3,12 must include:(1) sound governance and management processes, which must include the approval and periodic review by the appropriate managing bodies within the financial conglomerate of the strategies and
Where this section applies with respect to a financial conglomerate, the internal control mechanisms referred to in SYSC 12.1.8R (2) or, for a Solvency II firm, the internal control system referred to in the PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, rule 3,12 must include:(1) mechanisms that are adequate to identify and measure all material risks incurred by members of the financial conglomerate and appropriately relate capital in the financial conglomerate