Related provisions for PERG 6.7.11
181 - 200 of 848 items.
The characteristics that a reasonable investor can be expected to have will inform the use of judgment required by the 'expectation test' and the 'satisfaction test'. These tests relate to the investor's ability to realise an investment within a reasonable period and to do so on the basis of the net value of its assets. In the FCA's view, the characteristics of the reasonable investor include:(1) sound judgment based on good sense;(2) some knowledge of, and possibly experience
The reasonable investor is a hypothetical investor. The implications of this are that the test does not relate to actual investment by a particular person at a particular time or in relation to a particular issue of any class of shares or securities. In the FCA's view, what underlies the test is what a reasonable investor would think he was getting into if he were contemplating investment in a particular body corporate. In addition, because the investor is hypothetical, the investment
After an initial assessment, however, the FCA's view is that subsequent applications of the investment condition could produce a different result, but only if there is a change to the constitution or practice of the body corporate which is significant and sustained. For example, this may happen if there is a change in the body corporate's published intentions or regular practices. As the Economic Secretary to the Treasury said in parliamentary debate when commenting on the definition,
Section 236(3) uses the words "the investor would, if he were to participate in the scheme". This is consistent with the fact that the reasonable investor is hypothetical. But applying the test at this early stage makes it clear that there must be objectively justifiable grounds on which the reasonable investor could base the expectation in section 236(3)(a). And on which he could be satisfied on the matters in section 236(3)(b). In the FCA's view, this requires, for example,
36Unless a contrary intention appears, to the extent that a provision made by the FCA15 ('the referring provision') contains a cross-reference to another provision that is not made by the FCA including a provision formerly made by the PRA which the PRA has now deleted15 ('the referred provision'), the referred provision as amended from time to time (excepting deletion in its entirety)15 is to be treated as having15 been made by the FCA15 to the extent necessary to make the referring
A general rule (that is a rule made by the appropriate regulator under36 the general rule making powers36) is to be interpreted as:36(1) applying to a firm with respect to the carrying on of all regulated activities, except to the extent that a contrary intention appears; and(2) not applying to a firm with respect to the carrying on of unregulated activities, unless and then only to the extent that a contrary intention appears.
(1) 36This rule applies to Handbook provisions made by both the FCA and the PRA, and to Handbook provisions made by the FCA and formerly also made by the PRA15. It may affect their application by the FCA to PRA-authorised persons and PRAapproved persons15.(2) Where a Handbook provision (or part of one) goes beyond the FCA's or PRA's powers or regulatory responsibilities, it is to be interpreted as applied by that regulator to the extent of that regulator's powers and regulatory
36Examples of rules being interpreted as cut back by GEN 2.2.23 R include the following:(1) [deleted]1212(2) SYSC 6.1.1 R requires a firm to maintain adequate policies and procedures to ensure compliance with its obligations under the regulatory system; SYSC 6.1.1 R should be interpreted:(a) as applied by the FCA in respect of a PRA-authorised person's compliance with regulatory obligations that are the responsibility of the FCA (for example, in respect of a bank maintaining policies
Article 25(1) applies only where the arrangements bring about or would bring about the particular transaction in question. This is because of the exclusion in article 26. In the FCA's view, a person brings about or would bring about a transaction only if his involvement in the chain of events leading to the transaction is of enough importance that without that involvement it would not take place. The second limb (article 25(2)) is potentially much wider as it does not require
The ordinary business of a publisher or broadcaster can involve him in publishing or broadcasting financial promotions (for example, advertisements) on behalf of authorised or exempt persons. Journalists who write about investments or financial services may promote the services of an authorised or exempt person. In the FCA's opinion, such persons would not normally be regarded as making arrangements under article 25(2). This is the case even if any arrangements they may have made
The Regulated Activities Order contains an exclusion (article 27: Enabling parties to communicate) to bring a degree of certainty to this area. This applies to arrangements which might otherwise fall within article 25(2) merely because they provide the means by which one party to a transaction (or potential transaction) is able to communicate with other parties. In the FCA's view, the crucial element of the exclusion is the inclusion of the word ‘merely’. So that, where a publisher,
For example, in the FCA's view a publisher or broadcaster would be likely to be making arrangements within the meaning of article 25(2) and be unable to make use of the exclusion in article 27 if:(1) he enters into an agreement with a provider of investment services such as a broker or product provider for the purpose of carrying their financial promotion; and(2) as part of the arrangements, the publisher or broadcaster does one or more of the following:(a) brands the investment
Other persons who may benefit from the exclusion in article 27 include persons who provide the means for someone to route an order to another person. A person providing such order routing services would not, in the FCA's view, be merely facilitating communication (of the orders) if he provides added value. This added value could be in the form, for example, of such things as formatted screens, audit trails, checking completeness of orders or matching orders or reconciling tra
The relevant requirements in regulation 5(3) are that:(1) the incoming EEA firm has given a notice to the FCA12 (see SUP 14.4.1 G) and to its Home State regulator stating the details of the proposed change;12(2) if the change arises from circumstances beyond the incoming EEA firm's control, that firm has, as soon as practicable, given to the appropriate UK regulator12 and to its Home State regulator the notice in (1).112
9Where the change arises from circumstances within the control of the incoming EEA firm, the relevant requirements in regulation 7B(4) are that: (1) the incoming EEA firm has given a notice to the FCA and its Home State regulator stating the details of the proposed changes; and (2) either: (a) the FCA has informed the incoming EEA firm that it may make the change; or(b) a period of one month has elapsed beginning with the day on which the incoming EEA firm gave the notice under
(1) 1The FCA may suspend, with effect from such time as it may determine, the listing of any securities if the smooth operation of the market is, or may be, temporarily jeopardised or it is necessary to protect investors. [Note: article 18(1) CARD](2) An issuer that has the listing of any of its securities suspended must continue to comply with all listing rules applicable to it.(3) If the FCA suspends the listing of any securities, it may impose such conditions on the procedure
Examples of when the FCA may suspend the listing of securities include (but are not limited to) situations where it appears to the FCA that:(1) the issuer has failed to meet its continuing obligations for listing; or(2) the issuer has failed to publish financial information in accordance with the listing rules; or(3) the issuer is unable to assess accurately its financial position and inform the market accordingly; or(4) there is insufficient information in the market about a
(1) The removal of the exclusion for groups and joint enterprises in article 69 of the Regulated Activities Order (Groups and joint enterprises) may have implications for a company providing services for:(a) other members of its group; or(b) other participants in a joint enterprise of which it is a participant.(2) Such companies might typically provide risk or treasury management or administration services which may include regulated activities relating to a contract of insurance.
Article 67 excludes from the activities of dealing as agent, arranging (bringing about) deals in investments, making arrangements with a view to transactions in investments, assisting in the administration and performance of a contract of insurance and advising on investments, any activity which:(1) is carried on in the course of carrying on any profession or business which does not otherwise consist of the carrying on of regulated activities in the United Kingdom; and(2) may
Article 67 may also apply to activities relating to assignments of insurance policies, as, in the FCA's view, article 2.3 of the IMD applies essentially to the creation of new contracts of insurance and not the assignment of rights under existing policies. As such, where a solicitor or licensed conveyancer arranges an assignment of a contract of insurance, the exclusion in article 67 remains of potential application. For similar reasons, trustees advising on or arranging assignments
Article 72B (see also PERG 5.3.7 G (Connected contracts of insurance)) may be of relevance to persons who supply non-motor goods or provide services related to travel in the course of carrying on a profession or business which does not otherwise consist of carrying on regulated activities. In the FCA's view, the fact that a person may carry on regulated activities in the course of the carrying on of a profession or business does not, of itself, mean that the profession or business
In the FCA's view, the liability risks referred to in PERG 5.11.13G (5) cover risks in relation to liabilities that the policyholder might have to others (that is, third party claims). Many policies will provide this sort of cover and so fall outside the scope of the exclusion. For example, a policy that covers the cost of unauthorised calls made when a mobile telephone is stolen includes 'liability risks' and would not be a 'connected contract of insurance'. By contrast, travel
The FCA expects a firm to have a validation process that includes the following:(1) standards of objectivity, accuracy, stability and conservatism that it designs its ratings systems to meet and processes that establish whether its rating systems meet those standards;(2) standards of accuracy of calibration (ie, whether outcomes are consistent with estimates) and discriminative power (ie, the ability to rank-order risk) that it designs its rating systems to meet and processes
The FCA expects a firm to be able to explain the performance of its rating systems against its chosen measure (or measures) of discriminative power. In making this comparison, a firm should rely primarily on actual historic default experience where this is available. In particular, the FCA expects a firm to be able to explain the extent of any potential inaccuracy in these measures, caused, in particular, by small sample size and the potential for divergence in the future, whether
In the case of a portfolio for which there is insufficient default experience to provide any confidence in statistical measures of discriminative power, the FCA expects a firm to use other methods. For example, analysis of whether the firm's rating systems and an external measurement approach (eg, external ratings) rank common obligors in broadly similar ways. Where such an approach is used, the FCA would expect a firm to ensure it does not systematically adjust its individual
Under section 60(3) of the CCA, if, on an application made to the FCA by a firm carrying on a consumer credit business or a consumer hire business, it appears to the FCA impracticable for the firm to comply with any requirement of the Consumer Credit (Agreements) Regulations 1983 (SI 1983/1553) or the Consumer Credit (Agreements) Regulations (SI 2010/1014) in a particular case, it may direct that the requirement be waived or varied in relation to the regulated agreement and subject
The requirement under section 64(1)(b) of the CCA to send debtors or hirers a notice of their rights to cancel a cancellable agreement within the seven days following the making of that agreement does not apply in the case of the agreements described in SUP 8A.2.5 G, if: (1) on application by a firm to the FCA, the FCA has determined, having regard to:(a) the manner in which antecedent negotiations for the relevant agreements with the firm are conducted; and(b) the information
If on an application made to the FCA by a firm carrying on a consumer hire business, it appears to the FCA that it would be in the interests of hirers to do so, the FCA may direct that subject to such conditions (if any) as it may specify, section 101 of the CCA shall not apply to consumer hire agreements made by that firm.
Under article 53 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013, any of the following given or made by the Office of Fair Trading which were in effect immediately before 1 April 2014 have effect as if they had been given or made by the FCA:(1) a direction given under section 60(3) of the CCA (form and content of agreements);(2) a determination made under section 64(4) of the CCA (duty to give notice of cancellation rights) and
If a firm has doubts that a prospective introducerappointed representative or other person is of sufficiently good reputation and otherwise fit and proper, the FCA will expect it to resolve those doubts before appointing the prospective introducer appointed representative. For example, if a firm is aware that a person's previous appointment as an introducer appointed representative or representative was terminated, it should take reasonable steps to find out the reasons for the
(1) 1An appointed representative must not commence an insurance mediation activity until he is included on the Financial Services Register as carrying on such activities (see SUP 12.5.2 G (3)). (2) If an appointed representative's scope of appointment is to include an insurance mediation activity, the principal must notify the FSAFCA of the appointment before the appointed representative commences that activity (see SUP 12.7.1 R (1)). (3) As an exception, pre-notification is not
(1) 1The FCA has the power to decide not to include on the Financial Services Register (or to remove from the Financial Services Register) an appointed representative whose scope of appointment includes an insurance mediation activity, if it appears to the FCA that he is not a fit and proper person to carry on those activities (article 95 of the Regulated Activities Order).(2) If the FCA proposes to use the power in (1), it must give the appointed representative a warning notice.
(1) 8A tied agent that is an appointed representative may not start to act as a tied agent until it is included on the applicable register (section 39(1A) of the Act). If the tied agent is established in the UK, the register maintained by the FCA is the applicable register for these purposes. If the tied agent is established in another EEA State, it should consult section 39(1B) of the Act to determine the applicable register.(2) A UK MiFID investment firm that appoints an FCA
(1) A listed company in severe financial difficulty may find itself with no alternative but to dispose of a substantial part of its business within a short time frame to meet its ongoing working capital requirements or to reduce its liabilities. Due to time constraints it may not be able to prepare a circular and convene an extraordinary general meeting to obtain prior shareholder approval.(2) The FCA may modify the requirements in LR 10.5 to prepare a circular and to obtain shareholder
The following documents should be provided in writing to the FCA:(1) confirmation from the listed company that:(a) negotiation does not allow time for shareholder approval;(b) all alternative methods of financing have been exhausted and the only option remaining is to dispose of a substantial part of their business;(c) by taking the decision to dispose of part of the business to raise cash, the directors are acting in the best interests of the company and shareholders as a whole
An announcement should be notified to a RIS no later than the date the terms of the disposal are agreed and should contain:(1) all relevant information required to be notified under LR 10.4.1 R;(2) the name of the acquirer and the expected date of completion of the disposal;(3) full disclosure about the continuing groups prospects for at least the current financial year;(4) a statement that the directors believe that the disposal is in the best interests of the company and shareholders
(1) The FCA will wish to examine the documents referred to in LR 10.8.3 G (including the RIS announcement) before it grants the modification and before the announcement is released.(2) The documents should ordinarily be lodged with the FCA:(a) in draft form at least five clear business days before the terms of the transaction are agreed; and(b) in final form on the day on which approval is sought.
1The reports of transactions in financial instrument shall be made in an electronic form except under exceptional circumstances, when they may be made in a medium which allows for the storing of the information in a way accessible for future reference by the competent authorities other than an electronic form, and the methods by which those reports are made shall satisfy the following conditions: |
|
(a) |
they ensure the safety and confidentiality of the data reported; |
(b) |
they incorporate mechanisms for identifying and correcting errors in a transaction report; |
(c) |
they incorporate mechanisms for authenticating the source of the transaction report; |
(d) |
they include appropriate precautionary measures to enable the timely resumption of reporting in the case of system failure; |
(e) |
they are capable of reporting the information required under Article 13 of the MiFID Regulation in the format specified in SUP 17 Annex 1 EU required by the FCA and in accordance with this paragraph, within the time-limits set out in SUP 17.2.7 R. |
[Note: article 12(1) of the MiFID Regulation] |
|
1A trade matching or reporting system shall be approved by the FCA for the purposes of Article 25(5) of MiFID if the arrangements for reporting transactions established by that system comply with SUP 17.3.1EU and are subject to monitoring by a competent authority in respect of their continuing compliance. |
[Note: article 12(2) of the MiFID Regulation] |
SUP 10A.1.7 R reflects the provisions of section 59(8) of the Act and, in relation to an incoming Treaty firm and a UCITS qualifier, the Treaty and the UCITS Directive. It preserves the principle of Home State prudential regulation. In relation to an incoming EEA firm exercising an EEA right, or an incoming Treaty firm exercising a Treaty right, the effect is to reserve to the Home State regulator the assessment of the fitness and propriety of a person performing a function in
The descriptions of the following FCA controlled functions apply to an appointed representative of a firm, except an introducer appointed representative, as they apply to an FCA-authorised person:(1) the FCAgoverning functions, subject to SUP 10A.1.16 R and except for a tied agent of an EEAMiFID investment firm; and(2) the customer function other than in relation to acting in the capacity of an investment manager (see SUP 10A.10.7R (6)).
(1) SUP 10A.1.15 R is modified in relation to an appointed representative meeting the conditions in (2) so that only one of the following FCA governing functions:(a) director function; or(b) chief executive function; or(c) partner function; or(d) director of unincorporated association function;applies, as appropriate, to an individual within that appointed representative who will be required to be an FCA-approved person.(2) The conditions are that:(a) the scope of appointment
For a firm that is exempt from MiFID under article 2(1)(i) and whose only permission is bidding in emissions auctions, the only FCA controlled functions that apply to it are: (1) the FCA governing functions;(2) the money laundering reporting function; (3) the customer function; and(4) (where it has exercised an opt-in to CASS in accordance with CASS 1.4.9 R and is a CASS medium firm or a CASS large firm) the CASS operational oversight function. This is because the FCA-approved
SUP 10.8: the systems and controls function. This is the function of acting as an employee with responsibility for reporting to the committee of management in relation to: (1) the credit union's financial affairs; or(2) setting and controlling its risk exposure; or (3) adherence to internal systems and controls, procedures and policies.
(1) The FCA may dispense with or modify the listing rules in such cases and by reference to such circumstances as it considers appropriate (subject to the terms of EU directives and the Act).(2) A dispensation or modification may be either unconditional or subject to specified conditions.(3) If an issuer or sponsor has applied for, or been granted, a dispensation or modification, it must notify the FCA immediately it becomes aware of any matter which is material to the relevance
(1) An application to the FCA to dispense with or modify a listing rule must be in writing.(2) The application must:(a) contain a clear explanation of why the dispensation or modification is requested;(b) include details of any special requirements, for example, the date by which the dispensation or modification is required;(c) contain all relevant information that should reasonably be brought to the FCA's attention;(d) contain any statement or information that is required by
If an issuer applies to the FCA to dispense with or modify a listing rule on the basis that it is in severe financial difficulty, the FCA would ordinarily expect the issuer to comply with the conditions in LR 10.8 (to the extent relevant to the particular rule for which the dispensation or modification is sought). In particular, the FCA would expect the issuer to comply with those conditions that are directed at demonstrating that it is in severe financial difficulty.
An issuer or sponsor should consult with the FCA at the earliest possible stage if it:
- (1)
is in doubt about how the listing rules apply in a particular situation; or
- (2)
considers that it may be necessary for the FCA to dispense with or modify a listing rule.
2Where a listing rule refers to consultation with the FCA, submissions should be made in writing other than in circumstances of exceptional urgency or in the case of a submission from a sponsor in relation to the provision of a sponsor service.
Address for correspondence
Note:The FCA's address for correspondence is:
The Financial Conduct Authority |
25 The North Colonnade |
Canary Wharf |
London, E14 5HS |
Tel: 020 7066 8333 |
If a decision maker is asked to decide whether to give a decision notice or second supervisory notice, it will:(1) review the material before it;(2) consider any representations made (whether written, oral or both) and any comments by FCA1 staff or others in respect of those representations;1(3) decide whether to give the notice and the terms of any notice given.
If the FCA1 receives no response or representations within the period specified in a warning notice, the decision maker may regard as undisputed the allegations or matters in that notice and a decision notice will be given accordingly. A person who has received a decision notice and has not previously made any response or representations to the FCA1, may nevertheless refer the FCA's1 decision to the Tribunal.111
If the FCA1 receives no response or representations within the period specified in a first supervisory notice, the FCA1 will not give a second supervisory notice. The outcome depends on when the relevant action took or takes effect (as stated in the notice). If the action:11(1) took effect immediately, or on a specified date which has already passed, it continues to have effect (subject to any decision on a referral to the Tribunal); or(2) was to take effect on a specified date
Under section 388(3) of the Act, following the giving of a decision notice but before the FCA1 takes action to which the decision notice relates, the FCA1 may give the person concerned a further decision notice relating to different action concerning the same matter. Under section 388(4) of the Act, the FCA1 can only do this if the person receiving the further decision notice gives its consent. In these circumstances the following procedure will apply:111(1) FCA1staff will recommend
(1) When deciding whether to take enforcement
action under Part 7 of the RCB Regulations,
and what form that enforcement action should take, the FCA will consider all relevant factors,
including:(a) the relevant factors on decisions to take action set out in DEPP 6.2.1 G;(b) whether any contractual or other arrangements agreed between the
parties can be used effectively to address any perceived failure under the RCB Regulations; and(c) the interests of investors in the relevant
When considering whether to impose
a financial penalty, the amount of penalty, and whether to impose the penalty
on the issuer or the owner, the FCA will have regard, where relevant,1 to:(1) the statement on determining the appropriate level of a financial
penalty set out 1in DEPP 6.5 to DEPP 6.5D1;(2) the particular arrangements between the issuer and
the owner; (3) the likely impact of the penalty on the interests of investors
in a regulated covered bond;
and(4) the conduct
Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 6
2(1) The [UK RIE] must be able and willing to promote and maintain high standards of integrity and fair dealing in the carrying on of regulated activities by persons in the course of using the facilities provided by the [UK RIE]. |
(2) The [UK RIE] must be able and willing to cooperate by the sharing of information or otherwise, with the [FCA].4with any other authority, body or person having responsibility in the United Kingdom for the supervision or regulation of any regulated activity or other financial service, or with an overseas regulator within the meaning of section 195 of the Act. 4 |
In determining whether a UK recognised body is able and willing to promote and maintain high standards of integrity and fair dealing in the carrying on of regulated activities, the FCA4 may have regard to the extent to which the UK recognised body seeks to promote and encourage, through its rules, practices and procedures, conduct in regulated activities which is consistent with the Code of Market Conduct (see MAR 1) and with any other codes of conduct, rules or principles relating
In assessing the ability of a UK recognised body to cooperate with the FCA4 and other appropriate bodies, the FCA4 may have regard to the extent to which the constitution and rules of the UK recognised body and its agreements with its members enable it to obtain information from members and to disclose otherwise confidential information to the FCA4 and other appropriate bodies.444
In assessing the willingness of a UK recognised body to cooperate with the FCA4 and other appropriate bodies, the FCA4 may have regard to:44(1) the extent to which the UK recognised body is willing to provide information about it and its activities to assist the FCA4 in the exercise of its functions;4(2) the extent to which the UK recognised body is open with the FCA4 or other appropriate bodies in regulatory matters;4(3) how diligently the UK recognised body investigates or pursues
In the FCA view, this means that the reasonable investor must be satisfied that what he will get when he realises his investment is his proportionate share in the value of BC's underlying assets, less any dealing costs. In other words, that he is satisfied he will get net asset value. The investment condition focuses on the way the body corporate operates over time, and not by reference to particular issues of shares or securities (see PERG 9.6.3 G (The investment condition (section
For the 'satisfaction test' to be met, there must be objectively justifiable grounds on which the reasonable investor could form a view. He must be satisfied that the value of BC's property will be the basis of a calculation used for the whole, or substantially the whole, of his investment. The FCA considers that the circumstances, or combination of circumstances, in which a reasonable investor would be in a position to form this view include:(1) where the basis of net asset valuation
PERG 9.9.3 G (2)and PERG 9.9.3 G (3) refer to circumstances where the reasonable investor may be satisfied that he can realise his investment at net asset value because of arrangements made to ensure that the shares or securities trade at net asset value on a market. There may, for example, be cases of market dealing where the price of shares or securities will not depend on the market. An example is where BC or a third party undertakes to ensure that the market value reflects
However, where there is a market, the FCA does not consider that the test in section 236(3)(b) would be met if the price the investor receives for his investment is wholly dependent on the market rather than specifically on net asset value. In the FCA's view, typical market pricing mechanisms introduce too many uncertainties to be able to form a basis for calculating the value of an investment (linked to net asset value) of the kind contemplated by the satisfaction test. As a
The fact that the definition must be applied to BC as a whole (see PERG 9.6.3 G (The investment condition (section 236(3) of the Act): general)) is also relevant here. So, for example, in a take-over situation the fact that a bidder may be willing to provide an exit route for an investment at net asset value will be irrelevant within the context of the definition. This is so even if an investor invests in particular shares or securities in the knowledge or expectation or in anticipation
(1) The FCA may dispense with, or modify, a requirement in DTR 8 in such cases and by reference to such circumstances as it considers appropriate (subject to the Act).(2) A dispensation or modification may be either unconditional or subject to specified conditions.(3) If a primary information provider or a person that is applying for approval as a primary information provider has applied for, or been granted, a dispensation or modification, it must notify the FCA immediately it
(1) An application to the FCA to dispense with or modify a requirement in DTR 8 must be in writing.(2) The application must:(a) contain a clear explanation of why the dispensation or modification is requested;(b) include details of any special requirements, for example, the date by which the dispensation or modification is required;(c) contain all relevant information that should reasonably be brought to the FCA's attention;(d) contain any statement or information that is required
A primary information provider or a person applying for approval as a primary information provider must consult with the FCA at the earliest possible stage if they:(1) are in doubt about how a requirement in DTR 8 applies in a particular situation; or(2) consider that it may be necessary for the FCA to dispense with or modify a requirement in DTR 8.
Where a requirement in DTR 8 refers to consultation with the FCA, submissions must be made in writing other than in circumstances of exceptional urgency.Address for correspondenceNote: The FCA's address for correspondence in relation to DTR 8 is:Primary Market Monitoring
Enforcement and Market Oversight Division
The Financial Conduct Authority
12 Endeavour Square
London, E20 1JN
Primary Market MonitoringMarkets DivisionThe Financial Conduct Authority25 The North ColonnadeCanary
The appropriate regulator9 recognises that there may be occasions when, because of a particular emergency, a person (generally a firm, but in certain circumstances, for example in relation to price stabilising rules, an unauthorised person) may be unable to comply with a particular rule in the Handbook. The purpose of GEN 1.3.2 R is to provide appropriate relief from the consequences of contravention of such a rule in those circumstances.193
(1) If any emergency arises which:(a) makes it impracticable for a person to comply with a particular rule in the Handbook; (b) could not have been avoided by the person taking all reasonable steps; and(c) is outside the control of the person, its associates and agents (and of its and their employees);the person will not be in contravention of that rule to the extent that, in consequence of the emergency, compliance with that rule is impracticable. (2) Paragraph (1) applies only
GEN 1.3.2 R operates on the appropriate regulator's9rules. It does not affect the appropriate regulator's9 powers to take action against a firm in an emergency, based on contravention of other requirements and standards under the regulatory system. For example, the appropriate regulator9 may exercise its own-initiative power in appropriate cases to vary a firm'sPart 4A permission9 based on a failure or potential failure to satisfy the threshold conditions (see SUP 7 (Individual9